A 22-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of frontal throbbing headaches for 3 weeks. Yesterday, the patient had blurry vision in both eyes and a brief episode of double vision. She has been taking ibuprofen with only mild improvement of her symptoms. She has polycystic ovarian syndrome, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and facial acne. She has not had any trauma, weakness, or changes in sensation. Her current medications include metformin and vitamin A. She is 158 cm (5 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 89 kg (196 lbs); BMI is 36 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows decreased peripheral vision. Fundoscopic examination of both eyes is shown. MRI of the brain shows an empty sella. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q192
A 51-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fatigue and progressive pain and stiffness in her hands for 3 months. She used to play tennis but stopped 1 month ago because of difficulties holding the racket and her skin becoming “very sensitive to sunlight.” Her last menstrual period was 1 year ago. She has diabetes mellitus controlled with insulin. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Vital signs are within normal limits. The patient appears tanned. The second and third metacarpophalangeal joints of both hands are tender to palpation and range of motion is limited. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Q193
A 55-year-old man presents to his physician complaining of pain. He states that in the morning he feels rather stiff and has general discomfort and pain in his muscles. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes and is not currently taking any medications. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 147/98 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam demonstrates mild tenderness of the patient's musculature diffusely. The patient has 2+ reflexes and 5/5 strength in his upper and lower extremities. Laboratory values are notable for an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q194
A 26-year-old African-American woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of a nonproductive cough and chest pain. The pain is sharp and worse when she breathes deeply. During this time, she has also had two episodes of hematuria. Over the past 6 months, she has had intermittent pain, stiffness, and swelling in her fingers and left knee. She had two miscarriages at age 22 and 24. Her only medication is minocycline for acne vulgaris. Her temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure is 138/85 mm Hg. Physical examination shows an erythematous rash on her face. There is mild tenderness over the metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally with no warmth or erythema. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q195
A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of fever and lethargy for the past 2 days. He reports that during this time he has had occasional palpitations and shortness of breath. He has asthma and sickle cell disease. Current medications include inhaled albuterol, hydroxyurea, and folic acid. He appears fatigued. His temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F), pulse is 122/min, respirations are 25/min, and blood pressure is 110/72 mm Hg. Examination shows pale conjunctivae. Cardiac examination shows a midsystolic ejection murmur. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 6.5 g/dl
Leukocyte count 5,000/mm3
Platelet count 165,000/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 82 μm3
Reticulocyte count 0.2%
Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
Q196
A 51-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of occasional discoloration and tingling in her fingers. She has no history of major medical illness and takes no medications. Examination of the hands and fingers shows thickened, waxy skin and several firm white nodules on the fingertips. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q197
A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department 4 hours after the sudden onset of a diffuse, dull, throbbing headache. During this time, she also reports blurred vision, nausea, and one episode of vomiting. She has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, atorvastatin, and metformin. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 30 years and drinks 1–2 glasses of wine per day. Her temperature is 36.6 °C (97.9 °F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 185/110 mm Hg. Fundoscopic examination shows bilateral blurring of the optic disc margins. Physical and neurologic examinations show no other abnormalities. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, urea nitrogen, and creatinine are within the reference range. Urinalysis shows 2+ protein but no WBCs or RBCs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q198
A 56-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Physical examination shows hyperpigmented plaques on the posterior neck and in the axillae. His hemoglobin A1c concentration is 7.4% and fasting serum glucose concentration is 174 mg/dL. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's laboratory findings?
Q199
A 44-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter for a 1-week history of right leg weakness, unsteady gait, and multiple falls. During the past 6 months, he has become more forgetful and has sometimes lost his way along familiar routes. He has been having difficulties operating simple kitchen appliances such as the dishwasher and coffee maker. He has recently become increasingly paranoid, agitated, and restless. He has HIV, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His last visit to a physician was more than 2 years ago, and he has been noncompliant with his medications. His temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 152/68 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. He is somnolent and slightly confused. He is oriented to person, but not place or time. There is mild lymphadenopathy in the cervical, axillary, and inguinal areas. Neurological examination shows right lower extremity weakness with normal tone and no other focal deficits. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 3,600/mm3
Platelet count 140,000/mm3
CD4+ count 56/µL
HIV viral load > 100,000 copies/mL
Serum
Cryptococcal antigen Negative
Toxplasma gondii IgG Positive
An MRI of the brain is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q200
A previously healthy 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 1 hour after he was involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is conscious. He smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 16 years but quit 8 years ago. Physical examination shows several ecchymoses over the trunk and abdomen. The abdomen is soft, and there is tenderness to palpation of the right upper quadrant without guarding or rebound. Vital signs are within normal limits. An x-ray of the chest shows no fractures; a 10-mm solid pulmonary nodule is present in the central portion of the right upper lung field. No previous x-rays of the patient are available. A CT scan of the chest is performed, which shows that the nodule has irregular, scalloped borders. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's pulmonary nodule?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: A 22-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of frontal throbbing headaches for 3 weeks. Yesterday, the patient had blurry vision in both eyes and a brief episode of double vision. She has been taking ibuprofen with only mild improvement of her symptoms. She has polycystic ovarian syndrome, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and facial acne. She has not had any trauma, weakness, or changes in sensation. Her current medications include metformin and vitamin A. She is 158 cm (5 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 89 kg (196 lbs); BMI is 36 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows decreased peripheral vision. Fundoscopic examination of both eyes is shown. MRI of the brain shows an empty sella. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Emergent craniotomy
B. Cerebral shunt
C. Alteplase therapy
D. Lumbar puncture (Correct Answer)
E. Acetazolamide therapy
Explanation: ***Lumbar puncture***
- This patient presents with symptoms and signs highly suggestive of **idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH)**, including obesity, young female sex, chronic headache, blurry and double vision, and fundoscopic findings consistent with **papilledema**. An **empty sella** on MRI also supports IIH.
- A lumbar puncture is the **definitive diagnostic test** for IIH, as it measures the **opening pressure** of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and can provide temporary therapeutic relief by removing CSF. Before a lumbar puncture, it's crucial to rule out mass lesions with imaging (which was done with the MRI).
*Emergent craniotomy*
- This procedure is typically reserved for severe cases of increased intracranial pressure caused by **mass lesions**, large hemorrhages, or severe cerebral edema that are unresponsive to less invasive measures.
- There is no evidence of a space-occupying lesion or acute life-threatening pressure elevation requiring such an invasive and immediate surgical intervention.
*Cerebral shunt*
- A cerebral shunt (e.g., ventriculoperitoneal shunt) is a surgical option used for **refractory IIH** or in cases where there is severe, progressive visual loss despite medical management.
- It is not the initial diagnostic or first-line therapeutic step, especially before confirming the diagnosis and trying medical management.
*Alteplase therapy*
- **Alteplase** is a **thrombolytic agent** used to dissolve blood clots, primarily in acute ischemic stroke, pulmonary embolism, or myocardial infarction.
- There is no indication of a thrombotic event or ischemic stroke in this patient's presentation.
*Acetazolamide therapy*
- **Acetazolamide** is the **first-line medical treatment** for IIH due to its ability to decrease CSF production.
- However, before initiating specific treatment, the diagnosis of IIH must be confirmed by measuring the **elevated CSF opening pressure via lumbar puncture**.
Question 192: A 51-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fatigue and progressive pain and stiffness in her hands for 3 months. She used to play tennis but stopped 1 month ago because of difficulties holding the racket and her skin becoming “very sensitive to sunlight.” Her last menstrual period was 1 year ago. She has diabetes mellitus controlled with insulin. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Vital signs are within normal limits. The patient appears tanned. The second and third metacarpophalangeal joints of both hands are tender to palpation and range of motion is limited. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
A. Synovial fluid analysis
B. Testing for parvovirus B19 antibodies
C. Testing for rheumatoid factors
D. Testing for anti-nuclear antibodies
E. Iron studies (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Iron studies***
- The patient's presentation with **"tanned" appearance**, **diabetes mellitus**, and **arthropathy specifically involving the 2nd and 3rd metacarpophalangeal joints** is the **classic triad of hemochromatosis** (hereditary iron overload).
- The bronze/tan skin pigmentation results from **iron deposition in the skin**, while diabetes occurs from **iron deposition in the pancreas** ("bronze diabetes").
- **MCP 2 and 3 joint involvement** is pathognomonic for hemochromatosis arthropathy, distinguishing it from other arthritides.
- **Iron studies** (serum ferritin and transferrin saturation) are the most appropriate initial diagnostic tests, typically showing **elevated ferritin (>200 ng/mL in women) and transferrin saturation >45%**.
- Early diagnosis is crucial as hemochromatosis is treatable with phlebotomy, preventing progression to cirrhosis and cardiac complications.
*Testing for anti-nuclear antibodies*
- While **photosensitivity** could suggest **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**, the patient lacks other characteristic SLE features (malar rash, oral ulcers, serositis).
- The **"tanned" appearance** is not typical of photosensitivity, which usually manifests as a **rash or erythema with sun exposure**, not generalized hyperpigmentation.
- The **specific involvement of MCP 2 and 3 joints** is more characteristic of hemochromatosis than SLE, which typically has a more diffuse polyarticular pattern.
- ANA testing would be appropriate if other SLE features were present, but the constellation of findings here points to iron overload.
*Synovial fluid analysis*
- This test is performed to evaluate for **septic arthritis**, **crystal arthropathy (gout, pseudogout)**, or other inflammatory conditions when there is **acute monoarticular** or **oligoarticular** involvement.
- The patient's **chronic, symmetrical polyarticular** presentation and systemic features make a systemic metabolic disorder (hemochromatosis) more likely than conditions requiring synovial fluid analysis as the initial diagnostic step.
*Testing for parvovirus B19 antibodies*
- **Parvovirus B19** can cause acute arthropathy mimicking rheumatoid arthritis, typically following a viral prodrome.
- However, the **3-month chronicity**, **diabetes**, and **bronze pigmentation** are not explained by parvovirus infection, making this an unlikely diagnosis.
*Testing for rheumatoid factors*
- While **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)** can present with symmetrical small joint arthritis, it typically involves **PIP and MCP joints more diffusely**, not specifically MCP 2 and 3.
- RA does not explain the **tanned appearance** or the specific association with **diabetes mellitus** seen in this patient.
- The MCP 2 and 3 predilection is a distinguishing feature of hemochromatosis arthropathy.
Question 193: A 55-year-old man presents to his physician complaining of pain. He states that in the morning he feels rather stiff and has general discomfort and pain in his muscles. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes and is not currently taking any medications. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 147/98 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam demonstrates mild tenderness of the patient's musculature diffusely. The patient has 2+ reflexes and 5/5 strength in his upper and lower extremities. Laboratory values are notable for an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Temporal artery biopsy
B. Thyroxine
C. Glucocorticoids (Correct Answer)
D. Muscle biopsy
E. Aldolase levels
Explanation: ***Glucocorticoids***
- The patient's symptoms (morning stiffness, muscle discomfort, elevated **ESR**) are highly suggestive of **polymyalgia rheumatica** (PMR), which responds dramatically to glucocorticoids.
- While other conditions might be considered, the immediate priority in PMR and to prevent progression to **giant cell arteritis** (GCA) is prompt steroid therapy.
*Temporal artery biopsy*
- This is the gold standard for diagnosing **giant cell arteritis** (GCA), which can coexist with or develop from polymyalgia rheumatica.
- However, it's not the initial treatment for PMR symptoms and would be considered if there were signs of GCA (e.g., headache, jaw claudication, vision changes).
*Thyroxine*
- **Hypothyroidism** can cause muscle pain and fatigue, but the patient's presentation with prominent morning stiffness and elevated ESR without other clear signs of thyroid dysfunction makes PMR a more likely diagnosis.
- Thyroid hormone replacement would be appropriate if **hypothyroidism** were confirmed through thyroid function tests.
*Muscle biopsy*
- A muscle biopsy is typically performed to diagnose inflammatory myopathies such as **polymyositis** or **dermatomyositis**.
- These conditions usually present with **muscle weakness** (not just pain and stiffness) and elevated muscle enzymes (CK, aldolase), which are not mentioned here.
*Aldolase levels*
- **Aldolase** is a muscle enzyme that can be elevated in conditions causing muscle damage, such as **inflammatory myopathies** (e.g., polymyositis, dermatomyositis).
- While it could be part of a workup for muscle pain, the classic presentation points more strongly towards PMR, where imaging and symptom response to steroids are more diagnostic than muscle enzymes.
Question 194: A 26-year-old African-American woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of a nonproductive cough and chest pain. The pain is sharp and worse when she breathes deeply. During this time, she has also had two episodes of hematuria. Over the past 6 months, she has had intermittent pain, stiffness, and swelling in her fingers and left knee. She had two miscarriages at age 22 and 24. Her only medication is minocycline for acne vulgaris. Her temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure is 138/85 mm Hg. Physical examination shows an erythematous rash on her face. There is mild tenderness over the metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally with no warmth or erythema. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Anti-histone antibodies
B. Bilateral enlargement of the hilar lymph nodes
C. Low serum levels of C3 and C4 (Correct Answer)
D. Erosions of the metacarpophalangeal joints
E. Cytotoxic glomerular antibodies
Explanation: ***Low serum levels of C3 and C4***
- The patient's symptoms (malar rash, arthritis, serositis, hematuria, miscarriages) are highly suggestive of **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)**.
- In active SLE, particularly with **lupus nephritis** (evidenced by hematuria), complement components **C3 and C4 are consumed**, leading to low serum levels.
- This is a characteristic laboratory finding that helps confirm the diagnosis and assess disease activity.
*Anti-histone antibodies*
- While minocycline can cause **drug-induced lupus** (DIL), and anti-histone antibodies are highly positive in DIL, this patient's presentation is **not consistent with drug-induced lupus**.
- DIL typically presents with **mild constitutional symptoms, arthralgia, and serositis** but rarely causes **renal involvement (hematuria)**, recurrent miscarriages, or severe multi-organ disease.
- The constellation of symptoms—**hematuria, recurrent miscarriages, significant arthritis, malar rash, and pleurisy**—in a young African-American woman points strongly toward **idiopathic SLE** rather than drug-induced lupus.
- Therefore, testing for anti-histone antibodies would not be the most useful next step; complement levels are more diagnostic.
*Bilateral enlargement of the hilar lymph nodes*
- **Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL)** is a classic finding in **sarcoidosis**.
- While sarcoidosis can cause arthritis and skin manifestations, it typically does not cause **hematuria**, recurrent miscarriages, or the complement consumption characteristic of SLE.
- The malar rash is not typical of sarcoidosis, which more commonly presents with lupus pernio or erythema nodosum.
*Erosions of the metacarpophalangeal joints*
- **Erosive arthritis** affecting the MCP joints is characteristic of **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**.
- SLE typically causes **non-erosive arthritis** (Jaccoud arthropathy in chronic cases).
- The patient's presentation with malar rash, hematuria, serositis, and recurrent miscarriages is not typical for RA, which primarily causes symmetrical, destructive arthritis without these systemic features.
*Cytotoxic glomerular antibodies*
- **Anti-glomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) antibodies** are a hallmark of **Goodpasture syndrome**.
- Goodpasture's syndrome presents with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemorrhage, but does not cause the widespread systemic features like arthritis, malar rash, serositis, and recurrent miscarriages seen in this patient.
- The recurrent miscarriages suggest antiphospholipid antibodies (associated with SLE), not anti-GBM antibodies.
Question 195: A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of fever and lethargy for the past 2 days. He reports that during this time he has had occasional palpitations and shortness of breath. He has asthma and sickle cell disease. Current medications include inhaled albuterol, hydroxyurea, and folic acid. He appears fatigued. His temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F), pulse is 122/min, respirations are 25/min, and blood pressure is 110/72 mm Hg. Examination shows pale conjunctivae. Cardiac examination shows a midsystolic ejection murmur. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 6.5 g/dl
Leukocyte count 5,000/mm3
Platelet count 165,000/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 82 μm3
Reticulocyte count 0.2%
Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
A. Adverse effect of medication
B. Hyperhemolysis
C. Dysfunctional erythrocyte membrane proteins
D. Splenic sequestration crisis
E. Viral infection (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Viral infection***
- The patient's **rapidly declining hemoglobin** (6.5 g/dL) and **markedly low reticulocyte count (0.2%)** in the context of sickle cell disease strongly suggest an **aplastic crisis**, commonly triggered by **Parvovirus B19** infection.
- **Parvovirus B19** specifically targets and destroys **erythroid progenitor cells** in the bone marrow, leading to a temporary cessation of red blood cell production, especially detrimental in patients with accelerated red blood cell turnover like those with sickle cell disease.
*Adverse effect of medication*
- While medications can cause anemia, the sudden and severe drop in hemoglobin with such a low reticulocyte count is not typically associated with **hydroxyurea** or **folic acid** as an acute, isolated event.
- **Hydroxyurea** can cause myelosuppression, but it usually presents as a more gradual reduction in cell lines, and an isolated aplastic crisis of this severity is less typical as a primary adverse effect.
*Hyperhemolysis*
- **Hyperhemolysis** involves an increased rate of red blood cell destruction, which would typically lead to an **elevated reticulocyte count** as the bone marrow tries to compensate.
- The patient's **low reticulocyte count** rules out increased destruction as the primary cause of his anemia in this scenario.
*Dysfunctional erythrocyte membrane proteins*
- **Dysfunctional erythrocyte membrane proteins** (e.g., in hereditary spherocytosis) cause chronic hemolytic anemia, but they do not explain the **acute onset** of symptoms, the **fever**, and especially the **low reticulocyte count**, which points to impaired production rather than increased destruction.
- Sickle cell disease itself involves **abnormal hemoglobin (HbS)**, not membrane protein defects, and the acute aplastic picture here is a superimposed event triggered by infection, not an intrinsic feature of the chronic hemolysis.
*Splenic sequestration crisis*
- A **splenic sequestration crisis** involves the sudden pooling of a large number of red blood cells in the spleen, leading to a rapid drop in hemoglobin and often **thrombocytopenia**, both of which are absent here (platelet count is normal).
- Also, a sequestration crisis would typically present with a **tender, enlarged spleen**, and would not necessarily lead to such a profoundly low reticulocyte count without an associated bone marrow insult.
Question 196: A 51-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of occasional discoloration and tingling in her fingers. She has no history of major medical illness and takes no medications. Examination of the hands and fingers shows thickened, waxy skin and several firm white nodules on the fingertips. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Interstitial lung disease
B. Upper eyelid rash
C. Serositis
D. Telangiectasia (Correct Answer)
E. Endocardial immune complex deposition
Explanation: ***Telangiectasia***
- This patient's symptoms (Raynaud phenomenon, thickened waxy skin, firm white nodules suggesting **calcinosis cutis**) are indicative of **CREST syndrome**, a limited form of systemic sclerosis.
- **Telangiectasias** (spider veins) are a common component of CREST syndrome, along with **Calcinosis**, **Raynaud phenomenon**, Esophageal dysmotility, and Sclerodactyly.
*Interstitial lung disease*
- While **interstitial lung disease** can occur in systemic sclerosis, it is more commonly associated with the **diffuse cutaneous form**, which typically presents with wider skin involvement and more severe internal organ disease.
- The patient's presentation with localized skin changes and classic CREST features makes telangiectasia a more direct and expected finding.
*Upper eyelid rash*
- An **upper eyelid rash**, specifically a **heliotrope rash**, is characteristic of **dermatomyositis**, a different connective tissue disease.
- The other symptoms described (Raynaud's, calcinosis, sclerodactyly) do not align with dermatomyositis.
*Serositis*
- **Serositis**, inflammation of the serous membranes (e.g., pleuritis, pericarditis), is a common manifestation of **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**.
- The clinical picture of Raynaud's phenomenon, waxy skin, and calcinosis is not typical for SLE and points more strongly to systemic sclerosis.
*Endocardial immune complex deposition*
- **Endocardial immune complex deposition** is a hallmark of **Libman-Sacks endocarditis**, a non-infectious endocarditis primarily associated with **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**.
- The patient's symptoms are inconsistent with SLE and more characteristic of systemic sclerosis.
Question 197: A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department 4 hours after the sudden onset of a diffuse, dull, throbbing headache. During this time, she also reports blurred vision, nausea, and one episode of vomiting. She has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, atorvastatin, and metformin. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 30 years and drinks 1–2 glasses of wine per day. Her temperature is 36.6 °C (97.9 °F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 185/110 mm Hg. Fundoscopic examination shows bilateral blurring of the optic disc margins. Physical and neurologic examinations show no other abnormalities. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, urea nitrogen, and creatinine are within the reference range. Urinalysis shows 2+ protein but no WBCs or RBCs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ischemic stroke
B. Hypertensive emergency (Correct Answer)
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
E. Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation: ***Hypertensive emergency***
- The patient presents with **sudden onset of severe headache**, blurred vision, nausea, and vomiting, along with **markedly elevated blood pressure (185/110 mm Hg)** which are classic symptoms of hypertensive emergency.
- **Bilateral blurring of the optic disc margins (papilledema)** indicates end-organ damage to the central nervous system due to severe hypertension, further supporting this diagnosis.
*Ischemic stroke*
- While a cerebral infarct can cause sudden-onset headache, it typically presents with **focal neurological deficits**, which are absent in this patient.
- The symptoms described are more consistent with generalized intracranial pressure elevation rather than a localized ischemic event.
*Transient ischemic attack*
- A TIA involves **transient neurological deficits** that resolve completely, typically within an hour, and would not usually be associated with persistent symptoms like blurred vision and papilledema.
- The significant and sustained elevation in blood pressure with end-organ damage points away from a TIA.
*Subarachnoid hemorrhage*
- Often causes a **"thunderclap" headache** described as the worst headache of one's life, which is more severe and abrupt than the "dull, throbbing" headache mentioned.
- While it can cause nausea and vomiting, the absence of meningeal signs or focal neurological deficits, and the presence of severe uncontrolled hypertension with papilledema, make subarachnoid hemorrhage less likely.
*Idiopathic intracranial hypertension*
- This condition typically affects young, obese women and is characterized by symptoms of **increased intracranial pressure (headache, vision changes, papilledema)**, but without an identifiable cause.
- The patient's age (72 years), history of uncontrolled hypertension, and very high blood pressure suggest a secondary cause for her intracranial hypertension, specifically a hypertensive emergency.
Question 198: A 56-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Physical examination shows hyperpigmented plaques on the posterior neck and in the axillae. His hemoglobin A1c concentration is 7.4% and fasting serum glucose concentration is 174 mg/dL. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's laboratory findings?
A. High waist circumference (Correct Answer)
B. Elevated systolic blood pressure
C. Increased serum testosterone level
D. Increased BMI during childhood
E. History of smoking
Explanation: ***High waist circumference***
- The presence of **hyperpigmented plaques** (**acanthosis nigricans**) in the axillae and posterior neck, along with elevated **HbA1c** (7.4%) and **fasting glucose** (174 mg/dL), indicates **insulin resistance** and **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus**.
- **High waist circumference** is a primary indicator of **visceral obesity**, which is strongly correlated with **insulin resistance** and significantly increases the risk of developing **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus**.
*Elevated systolic blood pressure*
- While **hypertension** is a common comorbidity with **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus** and **insulin resistance**, it is typically a consequence or a co-occurring symptom of metabolic syndrome, rather than the strongest predisposing factor.
- **High blood pressure** alone does not directly cause the **insulin resistance** and hyperglycemia seen in this patient, though it shares common underlying risk factors.
*Increased serum testosterone level*
- **Increased serum testosterone** levels are more commonly associated with conditions like **polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)** in women, which can involve **insulin resistance**.
- In men, high testosterone is **not** a predisposing factor for **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus**; in fact, **low testosterone** levels are associated with insulin resistance and metabolic syndrome in men, not high levels.
*Increased BMI during childhood*
- While **childhood obesity** does increase the risk of developing **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus** in adulthood, the question asks for the strongest **predisposing factor** for the *current* laboratory findings in a 56-year-old man.
- **Current visceral adiposity**, indicated by a **high waist circumference**, is a more immediate and direct driver of the present metabolic derangements than a historical BMI status.
*History of smoking*
- **Smoking** is a significant risk factor for many chronic diseases, including **cardiovascular disease** and certain cancers, and it can exacerbate **insulin resistance**.
- However, **smoking** is not considered the primary or strongest predisposing factor for the development of **insulin resistance** and **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus** when compared to central obesity.
Question 199: A 44-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter for a 1-week history of right leg weakness, unsteady gait, and multiple falls. During the past 6 months, he has become more forgetful and has sometimes lost his way along familiar routes. He has been having difficulties operating simple kitchen appliances such as the dishwasher and coffee maker. He has recently become increasingly paranoid, agitated, and restless. He has HIV, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His last visit to a physician was more than 2 years ago, and he has been noncompliant with his medications. His temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 152/68 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. He is somnolent and slightly confused. He is oriented to person, but not place or time. There is mild lymphadenopathy in the cervical, axillary, and inguinal areas. Neurological examination shows right lower extremity weakness with normal tone and no other focal deficits. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 3,600/mm3
Platelet count 140,000/mm3
CD4+ count 56/µL
HIV viral load > 100,000 copies/mL
Serum
Cryptococcal antigen Negative
Toxplasma gondii IgG Positive
An MRI of the brain is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis
B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (Correct Answer)
C. HIV encephalopathy
D. Primary CNS lymphoma
E. Cerebral toxoplasmosis
Explanation: **Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy**
- The patient's **HIV-positive status**, **low CD4+ count (56/µL)**, and **high viral load** indicate severe immunosuppression, making him highly susceptible to opportunistic infections.
- The MRI findings (not provided but inferred from typical PML presentation) would show **asymmetric, non-enhancing white matter lesions** without mass effect, consistent with demyelination caused by the **JC virus**.
*Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis*
- This is unlikely given a **negative cryptococcal antigen** in the serum.
- Symptoms would typically include **fever, severe headache, and nuchal rigidity**, which are not prominent here.
*HIV encephalopathy*
- While HIV encephalopathy causes **cognitive decline, motor dysfunction, and behavioral changes**, its onset is typically more insidious, and the rapid progression of focal neurological deficits (right leg weakness) points away from sole HIV encephalopathy.
- Also characterized by **cerebral atrophy** and **diffuse white matter changes**, but generally without the clearly demarcated and rapidly progressing focal deficits seen with PML.
*Primary CNS lymphoma*
- Although common in immunocompromised HIV patients, **primary CNS lymphoma** typically presents with **ring-enhancing lesions** on MRI with significant **mass effect** and often uniform enhancement, which are not characteristic of PML.
- Biopsy is required for definitive diagnosis, but the given clinical picture and lack of specific imaging features makes it less likely than PML.
*Cerebral toxoplasmosis*
- While **Toxoplasma gondii IgG is positive**, indicating prior exposure, cerebral toxoplasmosis usually presents with **multiple ring-enhancing lesions** with associated **mass effect** and **edema** on MRI, which would typically be absent in PML.
- Treatment with **anti-Toxoplasma therapy** would normally lead to clinical improvement, and the absence of such response (if not treated) would further differentiate it.
Question 200: A previously healthy 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 1 hour after he was involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is conscious. He smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 16 years but quit 8 years ago. Physical examination shows several ecchymoses over the trunk and abdomen. The abdomen is soft, and there is tenderness to palpation of the right upper quadrant without guarding or rebound. Vital signs are within normal limits. An x-ray of the chest shows no fractures; a 10-mm solid pulmonary nodule is present in the central portion of the right upper lung field. No previous x-rays of the patient are available. A CT scan of the chest is performed, which shows that the nodule has irregular, scalloped borders. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's pulmonary nodule?
A. Reassurance
B. Follow-up CT scan in 12 months
C. Positron emission tomography (Correct Answer)
D. Antituberculous therapy
E. Follow-up chest x-ray in 12 months
Explanation: ***Positron emission tomography***
- A 10-mm solid pulmonary nodule with **irregular, scalloped borders** in a patient with a significant **smoking history** (even if quit 8 years ago) and age (42 years) has an intermediate to high probability of malignancy, warranting further investigation.
- **PET scan** is highly sensitive for detecting metabolically active malignant cells and can help differentiate benign from malignant nodules, guiding the need for biopsy or surgical resection.
*Reassurance*
- Reassurance is inappropriate given the **suspicious features** of the nodule (size, irregular borders) and the patient's **smoking history**, which increase the risk of malignancy.
- Ignoring these findings would be a significant oversight in patient care.
*Follow-up CT scan in 12 months*
- A 12-month follow-up is too long for a nodule with **suspicious characteristics** and no prior imaging, especially given the patient's risk factors for malignancy.
- This approach is typically reserved for **smaller, less suspicious nodules** or those with known stability over time.
*Antituberculous therapy*
- There is **no clinical evidence** presented (e.g., fever, night sweats, weight loss, contact history, or endemic region exposure) to suggest tuberculosis as the cause of this pulmonary nodule.
- Empiric treatment for tuberculosis without diagnostic confirmation is not indicated.
*Follow-up chest x-ray in 12 months*
- A chest x-ray has **limited sensitivity** for characterizing pulmonary nodules compared to a CT scan, and waiting 12 months is too long given the nodule's features.
- A CT scan has already been performed, and another x-ray would not provide additional diagnostic detail for this suspicious nodule.