A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fatigue and a 9-kg (20-lb) weight gain over the past 12 months. She also has irregular menstrual cycles and difficulty sleeping. Menses occur at irregular 35- to 50-day intervals and last 3–7 days. Menarche was at age of 13 years and her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago. She has 1-year history of hypertension treated with hydrochlorothiazide. She drinks a glass of wine daily. She is 163 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 85 kg (187 lb); BMI is 32 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 82/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 125/86 mm Hg. Examination shows acne on the face and hair on the chin and around the umbilicus. The face has a rounded shape and is reddened. There are several smaller bruises on both forearms. This patient is most likely to have which of the following findings?
Q182
A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of anxiety and weight loss. She also reports an inability to tolerate heat and intermittent heart racing for 2 months. She appears anxious. Her pulse is 108/min and blood pressure is 145/87 mm Hg. Examination shows a fine tremor of her outstretched hands. After confirmation of the diagnosis, the patient is scheduled for radioactive iodine ablation. At a follow-up visit 2 months after the procedure, she reports improved symptoms but new-onset double vision. Examination shows conjunctival injections, proptosis, and a lid lag. Slit-lamp examination shows mild corneal ulcerations. The patient is given an additional medication that improves her diplopia and proptosis. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for the improvement in this patient's ocular symptoms?
Q183
A 49-year-old man comes to the physician because of increasing difficulty achieving an erection for 6 months. During this period, he has had to reduce his hours as a construction worker because of pain in his lower back and thighs and a progressive lower limb weakness when walking for longer distances. His pain resolves after resting for a few minutes, but it recurs when he returns to work. He also reports that his pain is improved by standing still. He is sexually active with 4 female partners and uses condoms irregularly. His father has coronary artery disease and his mother died of a ruptured intracranial aneurysm at the age of 53 years. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. He has recently taken sildenafil, given to him by a friend, with no improvement in his symptoms. His only other medication is ibuprofen as needed for back pain. His last visit to a physician was 25 years ago. He is 172.5 cm (5 ft 8 in) tall and weighs 102 kg (225 lb); BMI is 34.2 kg/m2. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), pulse is 76/min, and blood pressure is 169/98 mm Hg. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, urea nitrogen, and creatinine are within the reference ranges. His hemoglobin A1c is 6.2%. Which of the following is the most likely finding on physical examination?
Q184
A 68-year-old man comes to the physician in July for a routine health maintenance examination. He is a retired teacher and lives in a retirement community. He has hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, and osteoarthritis of the left knee. Last year, he was diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukemia. A colonoscopy 8 years ago was normal. The patient had a normal digital examination and a normal prostate specific antigen level 8 months ago. The patient has never smoked and does not drink alcohol. Current medications include aspirin, lisinopril, simvastatin, chlorambucil, rituximab, and a multivitamin. His last immunizations were at a health maintenance examination 7 years ago. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 82/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 133/85 mm Hg. Examination shows a grade 2/6 systolic ejection murmur along the upper right sternal border and painless cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following health maintenance recommendations is most appropriate at this visit?
Q185
A 16-year-old boy comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He feels well. He has no history of serious illness. He is at the 60th percentile for height and weight. Vital signs are within normal limits. The lungs are clear to auscultation. A grade 3/6 ejection systolic murmur is heard along the lower left sternal border. The murmur decreases in intensity on rapid squatting and increases in intensity when he performs the Valsalva maneuver. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
Q186
A 62-year-old man comes to the physician for a 1-month history of fever, malaise, and skin rash. He has had a 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss during this period. He does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. He appears pale. His temperature is 39.1°C (102.3°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 140/85 mm Hg. Physical examination shows nontender, erythematous macules on the palms and soles. A photograph of one of his fingernails is shown. Microscopic examination of the nail lesion is most likely to show which of the following?
Q187
A 73-year-old man presents to your clinic for a routine checkup. His medical history is notable for a previous myocardial infarction. He states that he has not seen a doctor in "many years". He has no complaints. When you auscultate over the cardiac apex with the bell of your stethoscope, you notice an additional sound immediately preceding S1. This extra heart sound is most likely indicative of which of the following processes?
Q188
A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of recurrent headaches and nausea. The headaches occur a few times a month and alternately affect the right or left side. The headaches are exacerbated by loud sounds or bright light. She is in graduate school and has been under a lot of stress recently. She does not smoke or drink alcohol but does drink 2–3 cups of coffee daily. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive. Physical examination shows no abnormalities; visual acuity is 20/20. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q189
A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of dull pain in his scrotum and lower back pain over the last 3 months. He is a computer engineer working in a private IT company. He had an uncomplicated appendectomy at the age of 22 years, but is otherwise without a significant past medical history. He smokes 2–3 cigarettes on weekends and drinks alcohol occasionally. He is sexually active with his wife. Today his heart rate is 90/min and blood pressure is 132/76 mm Hg. Scrotal examination reveals a firm, small and painless nodule on the left testicle. Scrotal ultrasound reveals a 0.9 x 0.5 cm irregular, non-cystic mass. He undergoes a left radical orchiectomy and histopathological examination reveals uniform tumor cells with abundant clear cytoplasm and distinct cell borders, consistent with a seminoma. Subsequent PET/CT scans show supraclavicular and para-aortic lymph node involvement. Which is the next and most appropriate step in the management of this patient?
Q190
A 72-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of progressive fatigue and shortness of breath. Physical examination shows generalized pallor. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 5.8 g/dL
Hematocrit 17%
Mean corpuscular volume 86 μm3
Leukocyte count 6,200/mm3 with a normal differential
Platelet count 240,000/mm3
A bone marrow aspirate shows an absence of erythroid precursor cells. This patient’s condition is most likely associated with which of the following?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 181: A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fatigue and a 9-kg (20-lb) weight gain over the past 12 months. She also has irregular menstrual cycles and difficulty sleeping. Menses occur at irregular 35- to 50-day intervals and last 3–7 days. Menarche was at age of 13 years and her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago. She has 1-year history of hypertension treated with hydrochlorothiazide. She drinks a glass of wine daily. She is 163 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 85 kg (187 lb); BMI is 32 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 82/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 125/86 mm Hg. Examination shows acne on the face and hair on the chin and around the umbilicus. The face has a rounded shape and is reddened. There are several smaller bruises on both forearms. This patient is most likely to have which of the following findings?
A. Decreased bone mineral density (Correct Answer)
B. Discoloration of the corneal margin
C. Decreased serum sodium
D. Increased serum erythropoietin
E. Enlarged ovaries with multiple follicles
Explanation: ***Decreased bone mineral density***
- The patient's symptoms, including **weight gain, irregular menses, acne, hirsutism, rounded/reddened face** (**moon facies/plethora**), and **easy bruising**, are highly suggestive of **Cushing's syndrome**.
- **Excess glucocorticoids** in Cushing's syndrome lead to increased bone resorption and decreased bone formation, resulting in **osteoporosis** and **decreased bone mineral density**.
*Discoloration of the corneal margin*
- **Corneal arcus** (discoloration of the corneal margin) is associated with **hyperlipidemia** in younger individuals or can be a benign age-related finding. It is not a characteristic feature of Cushing's syndrome.
- While patients with Cushing's can have dyslipidemia, corneal arcus is a less direct or common finding compared to bone density changes.
*Decreased serum sodium*
- **Cushing's syndrome** typically causes **fluid retention** and can lead to **mild hypernatremia** or normal sodium levels due to the **mineralocorticoid effects of excess cortisol**.
- **Hyponatremia** is not a characteristic electrolyte abnormality associated with Cushing's syndrome.
*Increased serum erythropoietin*
- **Increased erythropoietin** is seen in conditions associated with **hypoxemia** (e.g., chronic lung disease, high altitude) or in some **renal cell carcinomas**.
- While patients with Cushing's can have **polycythemia** (increased red blood cell mass), it is due to direct effects of glucocorticoids on erythropoiesis, not primarily an increase in erythropoietin production.
*Enlarged ovaries with multiple follicles*
- **Enlarged ovaries with multiple follicles** are characteristic of **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)**, which also presents with **oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and obesity**.
- However, the presence of **moon facies, plethora, easy bruising, and uncontrolled hypertension despite medication** are more specific to Cushing's syndrome and less typical for PCOS alone.
Question 182: A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of anxiety and weight loss. She also reports an inability to tolerate heat and intermittent heart racing for 2 months. She appears anxious. Her pulse is 108/min and blood pressure is 145/87 mm Hg. Examination shows a fine tremor of her outstretched hands. After confirmation of the diagnosis, the patient is scheduled for radioactive iodine ablation. At a follow-up visit 2 months after the procedure, she reports improved symptoms but new-onset double vision. Examination shows conjunctival injections, proptosis, and a lid lag. Slit-lamp examination shows mild corneal ulcerations. The patient is given an additional medication that improves her diplopia and proptosis. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for the improvement in this patient's ocular symptoms?
A. Replacement of thyroid hormones
B. Decreased production of proinflammatory cytokines (Correct Answer)
C. Decreased uptake of iodine
D. Elimination of excess fluid
E. Inhibition of iodide oxidation
Explanation: ***Decreased production of proinflammatory cytokines***
- The patient's initial symptoms are consistent with **hyperthyroidism due to Graves' disease**, which is an autoimmune condition. The new-onset double vision, conjunctival injection, proptosis, and lid lag suggest **Graves' ophthalmopathy**.
- **Graves' ophthalmopathy** is an autoimmune process characterized by **inflammation, fibrosis, and edema of the extraocular muscles and orbital soft tissues**. Medications like glucocorticoids, which reduce proinflammatory cytokines, are used to manage the inflammatory component of Graves' ophthalmopathy and improve symptoms like diplopia and proptosis.
*Replacement of thyroid hormones*
- While thyroid hormone replacement is necessary after radioactive iodine ablation to treat the induced hypothyroidism, it does not directly treat or improve the underlying inflammatory process of **Graves' ophthalmopathy**.
- Replacing thyroid hormones would address systemic symptoms of hypothyroidism but would not resolve the orbital inflammation and its ophthalmic manifestations.
*Decreased uptake of iodine*
- Radioactive iodine ablation works by destroying thyroid cells, thereby **decreasing the uptake of iodine** by the thyroid gland and reducing thyroid hormone production.
- While this addresses the hyperthyroidism, it does not directly manage the autoimmune inflammatory process of **Graves' ophthalmopathy**, which can even worsen after radioactive iodine ablation in some cases.
*Elimination of excess fluid*
- Although edema is a component of orbital involvement in Graves' ophthalmopathy, the primary treatment for improving diplopia and proptosis focuses on **reducing inflammation and fibrosis**, not merely eliminating excess fluid.
- Diuretics are not the primary treatment for the ocular symptoms of Graves' ophthalmopathy, which are driven by an autoimmune inflammatory response.
*Inhibition of iodide oxidation*
- Inhibition of iodide oxidation is the mechanism of **antithyroid drugs** like methimazole and propylthiouracil, which are used to treat hyperthyroidism by reducing thyroid hormone synthesis.
- This mechanism treats hyperthyroidism but does not address the autoimmune inflammation responsible for **Graves' ophthalmopathy** once it has developed, especially post-ablation.
Question 183: A 49-year-old man comes to the physician because of increasing difficulty achieving an erection for 6 months. During this period, he has had to reduce his hours as a construction worker because of pain in his lower back and thighs and a progressive lower limb weakness when walking for longer distances. His pain resolves after resting for a few minutes, but it recurs when he returns to work. He also reports that his pain is improved by standing still. He is sexually active with 4 female partners and uses condoms irregularly. His father has coronary artery disease and his mother died of a ruptured intracranial aneurysm at the age of 53 years. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. He has recently taken sildenafil, given to him by a friend, with no improvement in his symptoms. His only other medication is ibuprofen as needed for back pain. His last visit to a physician was 25 years ago. He is 172.5 cm (5 ft 8 in) tall and weighs 102 kg (225 lb); BMI is 34.2 kg/m2. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), pulse is 76/min, and blood pressure is 169/98 mm Hg. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, urea nitrogen, and creatinine are within the reference ranges. His hemoglobin A1c is 6.2%. Which of the following is the most likely finding on physical examination?
A. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
B. Decreased bilateral femoral pulses (Correct Answer)
C. Decreased anal tone
D. Jugular venous distention
E. Papular rash over the palms and soles
Explanation: ***Decreased bilateral femoral pulses***
- This patient's symptoms of **erectile dysfunction**, **claudication**-like leg pain (worsens with activity, improves with rest), and **lower limb weakness** are highly suggestive of **peripheral artery disease (PAD)**, specifically **aortoiliac occlusion** (Leriche syndrome). The absence of femoral pulses would be a key physical sign reflecting the reduced blood flow.
- Risk factors like **smoking**, **obesity**, **hypertension**, and **elevated HbA1c** (prediabetes) further support a vascular etiology.
*Internuclear ophthalmoplegia*
- This condition is characterized by impaired adduction of one eye during conjugate gaze with nystagmus of the abducting eye, typically caused by a lesion in the **medial longitudinal fasciculus**.
- It is often associated with **multiple sclerosis** or brainstem stroke and does not align with the patient's presenting symptoms of claudication and erectile dysfunction.
*Decreased anal tone*
- **Decreased anal tone** usually indicates a lesion affecting the **sacral spinal cord** or cauda equina, potentially leading to bowel/bladder dysfunction, saddle anesthesia, and lower limb weakness.
- While the patient has lower limb weakness and back pain, the episodic nature of the leg pain related to exertion and resolution with rest, along with erectile dysfunction, points more strongly to a vascular issue rather than a neurological one causing decreased anal tone.
*Jugular venous distention*
- **Jugular venous distention (JVD)** is a sign of **elevated central venous pressure**, primarily associated with **right-sided heart failure**, fluid overload, or other conditions impairing venous return to the heart.
- The patient's symptoms are localized to lower limb ischemia and erectile dysfunction, not systemic fluid retention or heart failure.
*Papular rash over the palms and soles*
- A **papular rash over the palms and soles** is a classic sign of **secondary syphilis**.
- While the patient reports irregular condom use and multiple partners, this rash is a dermatological finding not directly related to or explaining his primary symptoms of erectile dysfunction and exertional leg pain/weakness, which are indicative of vascular insufficiency.
Question 184: A 68-year-old man comes to the physician in July for a routine health maintenance examination. He is a retired teacher and lives in a retirement community. He has hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, and osteoarthritis of the left knee. Last year, he was diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukemia. A colonoscopy 8 years ago was normal. The patient had a normal digital examination and a normal prostate specific antigen level 8 months ago. The patient has never smoked and does not drink alcohol. Current medications include aspirin, lisinopril, simvastatin, chlorambucil, rituximab, and a multivitamin. His last immunizations were at a health maintenance examination 7 years ago. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 82/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 133/85 mm Hg. Examination shows a grade 2/6 systolic ejection murmur along the upper right sternal border and painless cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following health maintenance recommendations is most appropriate at this visit?
A. Varicella vaccine
B. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine 13
C. Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
D. Abdominal ultrasound
E. Influenza vaccine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Influenza vaccine***
- **Annual influenza vaccination is critical** for immunocompromised patients with conditions like CLL, as they are at high risk for severe influenza complications
- **July timing is ideal** - The CDC recommends vaccination as soon as vaccine becomes available (typically July-August), especially for high-risk patients, to ensure protection before flu season peaks
- This patient **hasn't received immunizations in 7 years**, making him significantly overdue for annual influenza vaccination
- The **inactivated influenza vaccine** (not live) is safe and recommended for immunocompromised individuals
*Incorrect: Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine 13*
- While pneumococcal vaccination is important for CLL patients, **PCV13 is no longer routinely recommended** as of 2022 ACIP guidelines
- Current recommendations favor **PCV20 or PCV15 followed by PPSV23**, not PCV13
- Even with updated vaccines, pneumococcal vaccination timing is less urgent than annual influenza vaccination for an immunocompromised patient entering flu season
*Incorrect: Meningococcal conjugate vaccine*
- Meningococcal vaccine is primarily recommended for immunocompromised individuals with **specific conditions** like asplenia, complement deficiencies, or HIV
- CLL alone does not constitute a routine indication for meningococcal vaccination
- This is not a standard health maintenance recommendation for CLL patients
*Incorrect: Varicella vaccine*
- The varicella vaccine is a **live attenuated vaccine**, which is **absolutely contraindicated** in immunocompromised patients receiving chemotherapy like chlorambucil and rituximab
- Live vaccines pose a risk of disseminated vaccine-strain infection in immunosuppressed individuals
- This would be dangerous for this patient with CLL on active treatment
*Incorrect: Abdominal ultrasound*
- There are no clinical findings, symptoms, or risk factors presented that would warrant routine abdominal ultrasound screening
- His colonoscopy 8 years ago was normal, and he has no abdominal complaints
- This is not a standard health maintenance recommendation for this clinical scenario
Question 185: A 16-year-old boy comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He feels well. He has no history of serious illness. He is at the 60th percentile for height and weight. Vital signs are within normal limits. The lungs are clear to auscultation. A grade 3/6 ejection systolic murmur is heard along the lower left sternal border. The murmur decreases in intensity on rapid squatting and increases in intensity when he performs the Valsalva maneuver. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
A. Sudden cardiac death (Correct Answer)
B. Pulmonary apoplexy
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Cerebral aneurysm
E. Angiodysplasia
Explanation: ***Sudden cardiac death***
- The murmur characteristics (decreases with squatting, increases with Valsalva) are classic for **hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)**, which is a leading cause of **sudden cardiac death** in young athletes.
- HOCM causes **left ventricular outflow tract obstruction** due to asymmetric septal hypertrophy and systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve, predisposing to fatal arrhythmias.
*Pulmonary apoplexy*
- This refers to severe **pulmonary hemorrhage**, which is not associated with the cardiac murmur described.
- It is typically seen in conditions like **Goodpasture's syndrome** or severe vasculitis.
*Infective endocarditis*
- While structural heart disease can increase the risk, the primary concern with HOCM is **sudden cardiac death** due to arrhythmia, not infective endocarditis, which generally requires specific predisposing factors like prosthetic valves or prolonged IV access.
- The murmur itself is due to obstruction, not typically indicative of an infection risk without other signs.
*Cerebral aneurysm*
- There is no direct association between the murmur characteristics described and an increased risk of **cerebral aneurysms**.
- Cerebral aneurysms are often linked to conditions like **polycystic kidney disease** or specific connective tissue disorders.
*Angiodysplasia*
- **Angiodysplasia** involves vascular malformations in the GI tract leading to bleeding, which is unrelated to the cardiovascular findings in this patient.
- It is often seen in older individuals or those with **aortic stenosis**, but not typically HOCM.
Question 186: A 62-year-old man comes to the physician for a 1-month history of fever, malaise, and skin rash. He has had a 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss during this period. He does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. He appears pale. His temperature is 39.1°C (102.3°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 140/85 mm Hg. Physical examination shows nontender, erythematous macules on the palms and soles. A photograph of one of his fingernails is shown. Microscopic examination of the nail lesion is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Arteriovenous malformations
B. Aschoff granulomas
C. Microemboli (Correct Answer)
D. IgE immune complexes
E. Non-caseating granulomas
Explanation: ***Microemboli***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, malaise, weight loss, rash on palms and soles) and physical findings (pale, high pulse, *erythematous macules*) are highly suggestive of **infective endocarditis**.
- **Splinter hemorrhages** shown in the fingernail are a classic sign caused by **microemboli** from vegetations on heart valves lodging in the nail bed capillaries.
*Arteriovenous malformations*
- These are abnormal connections between arteries and veins that can cause bleeding or organ dysfunction but do not explain the systemic symptoms or specific nail findings in this context.
- While they can be associated with certain syndromes, they are not a typical finding in the context of infective endocarditis.
*Aschoff granulomas*
- These are characteristic lesions of **rheumatic fever**, a sequela of untreated streptococcal infection, typically found in the heart muscle.
- They are not associated with the skin or nail lesions described in infective endocarditis.
*IgE immune complexes*
- These are involved in **Type I hypersensitivity reactions** (e.g., allergies, anaphylaxis), causing symptoms like urticaria or angioedema.
- They do not explain the embolic phenomena or systemic features of infective endocarditis.
*Non-caseating granulomas*
- These are typical pathological findings in conditions like **sarcoidosis** or **Crohn's disease**.
- They are not related to the pathophysiology of emboli or skin manifestations seen in infective endocarditis.
Question 187: A 73-year-old man presents to your clinic for a routine checkup. His medical history is notable for a previous myocardial infarction. He states that he has not seen a doctor in "many years". He has no complaints. When you auscultate over the cardiac apex with the bell of your stethoscope, you notice an additional sound immediately preceding S1. This extra heart sound is most likely indicative of which of the following processes?
A. Decreased left ventricular compliance (Correct Answer)
B. Increased left ventricular compliance
C. Increased pulmonary compliance
D. Decreased left ventricular filling volume
E. Increased left ventricular filling volume
Explanation: ***Decreased left ventricular compliance***
- An additional sound immediately preceding S1 suggests a **fourth heart sound (S4)**, which occurs during **atrial contraction** against a stiff, non-compliant ventricle.
- A myocardial infarction can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy and **fibrosis**, causing **decreased left ventricular compliance**.
*Increased left ventricular compliance*
- **Increased ventricular compliance** would allow for easier filling and would not generate an audible S4.
- This condition is typically seen in dilated ventricles, which accommodate larger volumes **without significant pressure increases**.
*Increased pulmonary compliance*
- **Pulmonary compliance** refers to the lungs' ability to stretch and expand, and it is unrelated to an additional heart sound preceding S1.
- This concept describes the **elastic properties of lung tissue** and has no direct bearing on cardiac auscultation in this context.
*Decreased left ventricular filling volume*
- A **decreased left ventricular filling volume** might reduce the intensity of heart sounds but would not, in itself, cause an S4 before S1.
- S4 is related to the **atrial kick** into a resistant ventricle, not the overall volume available for filling.
*Increased left ventricular filling volume*
- While increased filling volume can occur in conditions like **valvular regurgitation**, it does not directly lead to an S4.
- An S4 is specifically due to a forceful atrial contraction against a **non-compliant ventricle**, regardless of the absolute filling volume.
Question 188: A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of recurrent headaches and nausea. The headaches occur a few times a month and alternately affect the right or left side. The headaches are exacerbated by loud sounds or bright light. She is in graduate school and has been under a lot of stress recently. She does not smoke or drink alcohol but does drink 2–3 cups of coffee daily. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive. Physical examination shows no abnormalities; visual acuity is 20/20. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pseudotumor cerebri
B. Tension headache
C. Migraine headache (Correct Answer)
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
E. Cluster headache
Explanation: ***Migraine headache***
- The patient's symptoms of **recurrent, unilateral headaches** with associated **nausea, photophobia, and phonophobia** are classic features of migraine.
- Migraines are often triggered by **stress** and can be exacerbated by **oral contraceptives** due to hormonal influences.
*Pseudotumor cerebri*
- While it can cause headaches and nausea, it is typically associated with **papilledema** and visual disturbances, which are absent in this case.
- The headaches in pseudotumor cerebri are usually **constant and diffuse**, not unilateral and episodic.
*Tension headache*
- Characterized by a **band-like pressure** or tightness around the head and is not usually associated with nausea, photophobia, or phonophobia.
- They are typically **bilateral** and do not have the pulsating quality often seen in migraines.
*Trigeminal neuralgia*
- Presents as **severe, sudden, shock-like pain** in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by touching the face, chewing, or speaking.
- It does not involve recurrent generalized headaches, nausea, or light sensitivity.
*Cluster headache*
- Although very severe and unilateral, cluster headaches have distinct features such as **lacrimation, conjunctival injection, nasal congestion**, or ptosis on the affected side.
- They tend to occur in **clusters** with periods of remission and pain is typically localized around the eye or temple.
Question 189: A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of dull pain in his scrotum and lower back pain over the last 3 months. He is a computer engineer working in a private IT company. He had an uncomplicated appendectomy at the age of 22 years, but is otherwise without a significant past medical history. He smokes 2–3 cigarettes on weekends and drinks alcohol occasionally. He is sexually active with his wife. Today his heart rate is 90/min and blood pressure is 132/76 mm Hg. Scrotal examination reveals a firm, small and painless nodule on the left testicle. Scrotal ultrasound reveals a 0.9 x 0.5 cm irregular, non-cystic mass. He undergoes a left radical orchiectomy and histopathological examination reveals uniform tumor cells with abundant clear cytoplasm and distinct cell borders, consistent with a seminoma. Subsequent PET/CT scans show supraclavicular and para-aortic lymph node involvement. Which is the next and most appropriate step in the management of this patient?
A. Immunotherapy
B. Radiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy (Correct Answer)
D. Observation
E. Surgery
Explanation: ***Chemotherapy***
- The patient has **metastatic seminoma** (supraclavicular and para-aortic lymph node involvement) following orchiectomy, which requires **systemic treatment**.
- **Chemotherapy** is the primary treatment for metastatic seminoma due to its high cure rates, especially with regimens like BEP (bleomycin, etoposide, cisplatin).
*Immunotherapy*
- **Immunotherapy** is generally not a first-line treatment for seminoma and is primarily used in refractory or metastatic cases of other solid tumors, not typically germ cell tumors.
- While research is ongoing, current guidelines do not recommend immunotherapy as the initial treatment for this stage of seminoma.
*Radiotherapy*
- **Radiotherapy** can be effective for localized seminoma involving lymph nodes, but it is typically reserved for local control and not for widespread metastatic disease involving both supraclavicular and para-aortic nodes.
- Systemic disease with involvement of distant lymph nodes (like supraclavicular) necessitates a systemic approach like chemotherapy rather than localized radiation.
*Observation*
- **Observation** is only appropriate for Stage I seminoma following orchiectomy, where there is no evidence of metastatic spread.
- In this case, the patient has clear evidence of **metastasis** to supraclavicular and para-aortic lymph nodes, making observation an inappropriate and dangerous choice.
*Surgery*
- **Surgery** (radical orchiectomy) has already been performed to remove the primary tumor.
- While surgical resection of residual masses after chemotherapy may be considered in some cases, it is not the primary next step for initial management of widespread lymph node metastases.
Question 190: A 72-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of progressive fatigue and shortness of breath. Physical examination shows generalized pallor. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 5.8 g/dL
Hematocrit 17%
Mean corpuscular volume 86 μm3
Leukocyte count 6,200/mm3 with a normal differential
Platelet count 240,000/mm3
A bone marrow aspirate shows an absence of erythroid precursor cells. This patient’s condition is most likely associated with which of the following?
A. Cold agglutinins
B. Thymic tumor (Correct Answer)
C. HbF persistence
D. Parvovirus B19 infection
E. Lead poisoning
Explanation: ***Thymic tumor***
- The patient's **normocytic anemia** (Hb 5.8 g/dL, Hct 17%, MCV 86 μm3) and the **absence of erythroid precursor cells** in the bone marrow aspirate are characteristic findings of **pure red cell aplasia (PRCA)**.
- **Pure red cell aplasia (PRCA)** in adults is frequently associated with an underlying **thymoma**, with up to 50% of adult PRCA cases linked to this condition.
*Cold agglutinins*
- Cold agglutinins are characteristic of **cold agglutinin disease**, an **autoimmune hemolytic anemia**.
- This condition typically presents with signs of **hemolysis** (e.g., elevated reticulocytes, bilirubin, LDH) and would not show an **absence of erythroid precursor cells** in the bone marrow.
*HbF persistence*
- **Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin (HPFH)** is a benign condition where **HbF** production continues into adulthood.
- It is not associated with anemia or bone marrow aplasia and usually results in normal hematological parameters, except for elevated HbF.
*Parvovirus B19 infection*
- **Parvovirus B19** can cause transient **aplastic crisis** by infecting and destroying erythroid precursors.
- While it causes PRCA-like features, it is typically an acute self-limiting condition, particularly in immunocompetent individuals, and is less likely to be an ongoing chronic cause in a 72-year-old without other risk factors for chronic infection or immunodeficiency.
*Lead poisoning*
- **Lead poisoning** typically causes a **microcytic hypochromic anemia** with **basophilic stippling** on peripheral blood smear.
- It primarily interferes with **heme synthesis** and would not cause a complete absence of erythroid precursor cells in the bone marrow.