A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department due to severe, intractable headaches, and bilateral ocular pain. Her symptoms began approximately 2 weeks prior to presentation and have progressively worsened. She initially had right-sided headaches that were sharp, interfered with sleep, and were unresponsive to pain medications. The headache was around her right eye and cheek, and she noticed diplopia with right lateral gaze. Her symptoms were accompanied by fatigue, fever, and edema around the right eye. Approximately 2 days after these symptoms, she developed swelling around the left eye. Medical history is significant for a recent rhinosinusitis infection. Her temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 133/72 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. On physical exam, there is ptosis, proptosis, chemosis, and periorbital swelling of both eyes. There is hyperesthesia in the bilateral ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve. Fundoscopic exam demonstrates bilateral papilledema. There is mydriasis and eye muscle weakness in all directions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q162
A 68-year-old man is referred to the cardiology department with complaints of shortness of breath on exertion that has been progressive for the last 6 months. He has a history of diabetes mellitus type II which is controlled with diet alone. He has a temperature of 37.1℃ (98.8℉), the pulse is 76/min, and the blood pressure is 132/86 mm Hg. Physical examination is notable for a systolic murmur heard best at the right upper sternal border with radiation to the carotid arteries. ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy and absent Q waves. Transthoracic echocardiogram shows an elevated aortic pressure gradient with severe leaflet calcification and left ventricular diastolic dysfunction. Which of the following has a survival benefit for this patient’s cardiac problem?
Q163
A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of lower extremity numbness, weakness, and urinary incontinence. She has not had any trauma. Neurologic examination shows bilateral lower extremity weakness. Stroking the lateral side of the sole of the foot from the heel to the base of the small toe and medially to the base of the big toe elicits dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of the other toes. Further examination of this patient is most likely to show which of the following additional findings?
Q164
A 25-year-old woman presents to a medical clinic with complaints of right-sided chest pain, which is exacerbated during inspiration. She also reports intermittent fevers for the past 3 months associated with pain in both knee joints. She gives a history of an unintended 3 kg (6 lbs) weight loss in the past 2 months. The blood pressure is 110/84 mm Hg and the pulse is 86/min. On physical examination, a red rash is noted on her face overlying the nose and cheeks. The laboratory findings show that the hemoglobin is 9 g/dL and the total white cell count is 1500/mm3. Which of the following tests would be most specific to help diagnose this patient’s condition?
Q165
A 49-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-hour history of fever, an itchy rash, and generalized body aches. Ten days ago, he received treatment in the emergency department for a snake bite. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 120/84 mm Hg. Physical examination shows multiple well-demarcated, raised, erythematous plaques over the trunk. There is tenderness to palpation and decreased range of motion of the metacarpophalangeal and wrist joints bilaterally. Urine dipstick shows 2+ protein. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
Q166
A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of severe pain (10/10 in severity) between the shoulder blades. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. Medical history is positive for essential hypertension for 11 years. The patient has smoked 10–15 cigarettes daily for the past 30 years. His temperature is 36.6°C (97.8°F), the heart rate is 107/min, and the blood pressure is 179/86 mm Hg in the right arm and 157/72 mm Hg in the left arm. CT scan of the chest shows an intimal flap limited to the descending thoracic aorta. Which of the following best describes the most likely predisposing factor for this condition?
Q167
A 44-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of a headache. He reports that he developed a severe throbbing headache with blurred vision two hours ago. He has never experienced symptoms like these before. His past medical history is notable for hyperlipidemia and poorly controlled hypertension. He currently takes atorvastatin and lisinopril. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 210/110 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 20/min. He is oriented to person, place, and time. No bruits or murmurs are noted. Strength is 2+ bilaterally in the upper and lower extremities. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q168
A 21-year-old man presents to his physician with a cough that has persisted for 4 weeks. His cough is usually nocturnal and awakens him from sleep. He denies having a fever, but was diagnosed with asthma when he was 15 years old and uses inhaled albuterol for relief of his symptoms. He usually needs to use a rescue inhaler once or twice a month. However, over the last 4 weeks, he has had to use inhaled albuterol almost daily. He does not have symptoms such as sneezing, running nose, nasal congestion, nasal discharge, headache, nausea, vomiting, regurgitation of food, or burning in the epigastrium. On physical examination, his temperature is 36.8°C (98.4°F), pulse rate is 96/min, blood pressure is 116/80 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 16/min. On auscultation of the chest, end-expiratory wheezing is present bilaterally. The peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is 74% of that expected for his age, sex, and height. Which of the following is the best next step in the treatment of this patient?
Q169
A 35-year-old man who is a professional baseball player presents with stiffness in his hands. He says he is unable to bat as he would like and feels like he lacks power in his swings. He also has noticed that he sometimes seems to be dragging his feet while walking, and his voice seems to have changed. On physical examination, strength is 3 out of 5 in the extensor and flexor muscle groups in both upper and lower limbs bilaterally. Sensation is intact. Widespread muscle fasciculations are noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q170
A previously healthy 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with fatigue and bilateral leg swelling. Her pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 24/min. Physical examination shows jugular venous distention and pitting edema of the lower extremities. Her abdomen is distended with shifting dullness and tender hepatomegaly is present. Cardiovascular examination shows a holosystolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border that increases in intensity with inspiration. Which of the following is the most likely predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department due to severe, intractable headaches, and bilateral ocular pain. Her symptoms began approximately 2 weeks prior to presentation and have progressively worsened. She initially had right-sided headaches that were sharp, interfered with sleep, and were unresponsive to pain medications. The headache was around her right eye and cheek, and she noticed diplopia with right lateral gaze. Her symptoms were accompanied by fatigue, fever, and edema around the right eye. Approximately 2 days after these symptoms, she developed swelling around the left eye. Medical history is significant for a recent rhinosinusitis infection. Her temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 133/72 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. On physical exam, there is ptosis, proptosis, chemosis, and periorbital swelling of both eyes. There is hyperesthesia in the bilateral ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve. Fundoscopic exam demonstrates bilateral papilledema. There is mydriasis and eye muscle weakness in all directions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
B. Preseptal cellulitis
C. Orbital cellulitis
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis (Correct Answer)
E. Bacterial endophthalmitis
Explanation: **Cavernous sinus thrombosis**
- **Bilateral ophthalmic symptoms** including proptosis, chemosis, periorbital swelling, ptosis, mydriasis, and ophthalmoplegia, developing after a **rhinosinusitis infection**, are highly suggestive of **cavernous sinus thrombosis**. The symptoms began unilaterally and then spread to the other eye, which is a classic presentation due to the **intercavernous connections**.
- Other key findings are **intractable headaches** (sharp, severe, interfering with sleep), **fever**, and **hyperesthesia in the trigeminal nerve divisions** (CN V1 and V2), indicating involvement of the structures within or adjacent to the cavernous sinus. **Papilledema** suggests increased intracranial pressure.
*Acute angle-closure glaucoma*
- Characterized by **sudden onset of unilateral eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights**, often accompanied by nausea and vomiting.
- While it causes severe eye pain and headache, it does **not typically involve bilateral symptoms, proptosis, significant periorbital edema, ophthalmoplegia**, or spread from one eye to the other over days as seen in this case.
*Preseptal cellulitis*
- Involves infection of the **eyelid and periorbital tissues anterior to the orbital septum**, causing swelling, redness, and tenderness of the eyelids.
- It does **not cause proptosis, chemosis, ophthalmoplegia, or papilledema**, as the infection does not extend into the orbit or involve the extraocular muscles and nerves.
*Orbital cellulitis*
- Involves infection **posterior to the orbital septum**, causing **proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, pain with eye movement, and vision changes**, usually unilaterally.
- While it can cause proptosis and ophthalmoplegia, the **bilateral involvement, spreading pattern, trigeminal nerve involvement, and severe intractable headaches** are much more characteristic of cavernous sinus thrombosis.
*Bacterial endophthalmitis*
- An **intraocular infection** causing inflammation of the vitreous and aqueous humor, leading to **severe vision loss, eye pain, and redness**.
- It usually presents with a **red eye, hypopyon, and significantly decreased vision**, but does **not typically involve proptosis, periorbital swelling, ophthalmoplegia, or trigeminal nerve symptoms** as described.
Question 162: A 68-year-old man is referred to the cardiology department with complaints of shortness of breath on exertion that has been progressive for the last 6 months. He has a history of diabetes mellitus type II which is controlled with diet alone. He has a temperature of 37.1℃ (98.8℉), the pulse is 76/min, and the blood pressure is 132/86 mm Hg. Physical examination is notable for a systolic murmur heard best at the right upper sternal border with radiation to the carotid arteries. ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy and absent Q waves. Transthoracic echocardiogram shows an elevated aortic pressure gradient with severe leaflet calcification and left ventricular diastolic dysfunction. Which of the following has a survival benefit for this patient’s cardiac problem?
A. A combination of captopril and hydrochlorothiazide
B. Atorvastatin
C. Sodium nitroprusside
D. Serial clinical and echocardiographic follow-up
E. Transcatheter aortic valve replacement (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Transcatheter aortic valve replacement***
- The patient's presentation with **shortness of breath**, exertional symptoms, a **systolic murmur radiating to the carotid arteries**, **left ventricular hypertrophy**, and echocardiographic findings of **severe aortic valve calcification** and **elevated aortic pressure gradient** are all classic for **severe aortic stenosis**.
- **Transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR)** is the definitive treatment for severe aortic stenosis and provides significant survival benefit, especially in symptomatic patients or those with a high surgical risk.
*A combination of captopril and hydrochlorothiazide*
- This combination of an **ACE inhibitor** and a **diuretic** is typically used for **hypertension** and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, but it does not address the underlying **structural valve defect** in aortic stenosis.
- In severe aortic stenosis, aggressive **vasodilation** can be dangerous as it may lead to hypotension due to the fixed outflow obstruction, thus it does not improve survival.
*Atorvastatin*
- **Statins** like atorvastatin are primarily used for **lipid lowering** and cardiovascular risk reduction in patients with atherosclerotic disease.
- While the patient has diabetes, statins do not have a direct survival benefit for **severe symptomatic aortic stenosis** itself.
*Sodium nitroprusside*
- **Sodium nitroprusside** is a potent **vasodilator** used in hypertensive emergencies or decompensated heart failure to rapidly reduce preload and afterload.
- Its use is generally **contraindicated** or should be approached with extreme caution in severe aortic stenosis due to the risk of precipitous hypotension by reducing preload and afterload in the presence of a **fixed outflow obstruction**.
*Serial clinical and echocardiographic follow-up*
- While important for monitoring disease progression in **mild to moderate aortic stenosis**, this approach is insufficient and delays definitive treatment in **severe symptomatic aortic stenosis**.
- Once symptomatic, the prognosis for severe aortic stenosis without intervention is poor, with a mean survival of approximately **2-3 years**.
Question 163: A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of lower extremity numbness, weakness, and urinary incontinence. She has not had any trauma. Neurologic examination shows bilateral lower extremity weakness. Stroking the lateral side of the sole of the foot from the heel to the base of the small toe and medially to the base of the big toe elicits dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of the other toes. Further examination of this patient is most likely to show which of the following additional findings?
A. Hyporeflexia
B. Atrophy
C. Spasticity (Correct Answer)
D. Palmar grasp reflex
E. Fasciculation
Explanation: ***Spasticity***
- The combination of **lower extremity weakness**, **urinary incontinence**, and a **positive Babinski sign** (dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of other toes) indicates an **upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion**.
- **Spasticity** is a classic sign of UMN lesions, characterized by an increase in muscle tone, hyperreflexia, and clonus.
*Hyporeflexia*
- **Hyporeflexia** (diminished reflexes) is characteristic of a **lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion**, which is inconsistent with the positive Babinski sign observed.
- LMN lesions involve damage to the motor neurons in the spinal cord or their peripheral nerves.
*Atrophy*
- **Atrophy** can occur in both UMN and LMN lesions, but **significant atrophy** typically develops over time in LMN lesions due to denervation.
- In acute UMN lesions, muscle atrophy is usually due to disuse and is less prominent than in LMN lesions.
*Palmar grasp reflex*
- The **palmar grasp reflex** is a primitive reflex that, if present in an adult, may indicate **frontal lobe dysfunction** or diffuse cerebral damage, often seen in neurodegenerative diseases.
- It is not a direct or expected finding for a spinal cord UMN lesion presenting with these symptoms.
*Fasciculation*
- **Fasciculations** are visible, spontaneous contractions of a fascicle of muscle fibers, which are a hallmark sign of **lower motor neuron (LMN) pathology**.
- They are typically not seen in pure upper motor neuron lesions.
Question 164: A 25-year-old woman presents to a medical clinic with complaints of right-sided chest pain, which is exacerbated during inspiration. She also reports intermittent fevers for the past 3 months associated with pain in both knee joints. She gives a history of an unintended 3 kg (6 lbs) weight loss in the past 2 months. The blood pressure is 110/84 mm Hg and the pulse is 86/min. On physical examination, a red rash is noted on her face overlying the nose and cheeks. The laboratory findings show that the hemoglobin is 9 g/dL and the total white cell count is 1500/mm3. Which of the following tests would be most specific to help diagnose this patient’s condition?
A. Antibody to phospholipid of cell membranes
B. Antibody to histone protein
C. Antibody to ribonucleoprotein
D. Antibody to double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (Correct Answer)
E. Antibody to microsomal cellular organelles
Explanation: ***Antibody to double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid***
- The patient's symptoms (pleuritic chest pain, joint pain, fever, weight loss, malar rash, anemia, leukopenia) are highly suggestive of **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)**.
- **Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies** are highly specific (95-98%) for SLE and correlate with disease activity, particularly lupus nephritis.
- Anti-dsDNA is included in the **ACR/EULAR diagnostic criteria** for SLE and is the most commonly used specific serologic marker.
- While anti-Smith (anti-Sm) antibodies have slightly higher specificity, anti-dsDNA has better sensitivity and clinical utility for diagnosis and monitoring.
*Antibody to phospholipid of cell membranes*
- **Antiphospholipid antibodies** (anticardiolipin, anti-β2 glycoprotein I, lupus anticoagulant) are associated with antiphospholipid syndrome.
- These can occur in SLE patients but are not specific for diagnosing SLE itself.
- They indicate thrombotic risk rather than serving as a primary diagnostic marker for lupus.
*Antibody to histone protein*
- **Anti-histone antibodies** are the hallmark of **drug-induced lupus** (seen in >95% of cases).
- Common culprit drugs include hydralazine, procainamide, isoniazid, and quinidine.
- This patient has no mention of drug exposure and presents with classic idiopathic SLE.
*Antibody to ribonucleoprotein*
- This typically refers to **anti-U1 RNP antibodies**, which are found in SLE but are more characteristic of **mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)**.
- **Anti-Sm (Smith) antibodies** (also a ribonucleoprotein) are highly specific for SLE (>99%) but have low sensitivity (20-30%).
- Anti-U1 RNP is less specific for SLE as it occurs in multiple connective tissue diseases.
*Antibody to microsomal cellular organelles*
- **Anti-microsomal antibodies** (anti-thyroid peroxidase) are associated with autoimmune thyroid diseases like **Hashimoto's thyroiditis** and Graves' disease.
- These antibodies are not relevant to the diagnosis of SLE.
Question 165: A 49-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-hour history of fever, an itchy rash, and generalized body aches. Ten days ago, he received treatment in the emergency department for a snake bite. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 120/84 mm Hg. Physical examination shows multiple well-demarcated, raised, erythematous plaques over the trunk. There is tenderness to palpation and decreased range of motion of the metacarpophalangeal and wrist joints bilaterally. Urine dipstick shows 2+ protein. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Keratinocyte necrosis on skin biopsy
B. Increased serum tryptase concentration
C. Increased antistreptolysin O titers
D. Positive ELISA for anti-hemidesmosome antibodies
E. Decreased serum complement concentration (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Decreased serum complement concentration***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, itchy rash, body aches, joint pain, proteinuria) developing 10 days after a snake bite treated with antivenom are highly suggestive of **serum sickness**.
- **Serum sickness** is a type III hypersensitivity reaction characterized by the formation of **immune complexes** that deposit in tissues, activating the complement system and leading to its consumption, hence **decreased serum complement levels**.
*Keratinocyte necrosis on skin biopsy*
- This finding is characteristic of conditions like **erythema multiforme** or **toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)**, which typically present with target lesions or widespread epidermal detachment, not the raised erythematous plaques described.
- While an allergic reaction can cause skin involvement, necrosis of keratinocytes is not the primary dermatological feature of serum sickness.
*Increased serum tryptase concentration*
- **Elevated serum tryptase** is a marker of **mast cell degranulation**, commonly seen in anaphylaxis.
- Although serum sickness is an immune reaction, it is a type III hypersensitivity involving immune complexes, not primarily mast cell-mediated immediate hypersensitivity (Type I).
*Increased antistreptolysin O titers*
- **Increased antistreptolysin O (ASO) titers** indicate a recent **Streptococcus pyogenes infection**, typically associated with rheumatic fever or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
- This patient's symptoms and history of snake bite and antivenom administration do not point towards a streptococcal infection.
*Positive ELISA for anti-hemidesmosome antibodies*
- This finding is characteristic of **bullous pemphigoid**, an autoimmune blistering skin disease.
- The patient's rash of raised, erythematous plaques and systemic symptoms are inconsistent with bullous pemphigoid, which primarily involves subepidermal blistering.
Question 166: A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of severe pain (10/10 in severity) between the shoulder blades. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. Medical history is positive for essential hypertension for 11 years. The patient has smoked 10–15 cigarettes daily for the past 30 years. His temperature is 36.6°C (97.8°F), the heart rate is 107/min, and the blood pressure is 179/86 mm Hg in the right arm and 157/72 mm Hg in the left arm. CT scan of the chest shows an intimal flap limited to the descending thoracic aorta. Which of the following best describes the most likely predisposing factor for this condition?
A. Coronary atherosclerosis
B. Aortic coarctation
C. Hypertensive urgency
D. Aortic atherosclerosis
E. Abnormal elastic properties of the aorta (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Abnormal elastic properties of the aorta***
- Chronic **hypertension** (11 years) is the #1 risk factor for aortic dissection, causing **cystic medial degeneration** (breakdown of elastic fibers and smooth muscle in the tunica media).
- This degenerative process results in **abnormal elastic properties** and weakening of the aortic wall, predisposing to dissection.
- The tearing pain, blood pressure differential between arms, and CT findings of intimal flap are classic for **Type B aortic dissection**.
- While often associated with connective tissue disorders in younger patients, cystic medial degeneration is also the pathophysiologic result of chronic hypertension in older patients.
*Aortic atherosclerosis*
- Atherosclerosis primarily affects the **intima** layer, while aortic dissection occurs in the **media** layer.
- Though hypertension and smoking contribute to atherosclerosis, this is not the primary predisposing mechanism for dissection.
- The underlying pathology is medial degeneration with abnormal elastic properties, not atherosclerotic plaque.
*Coronary atherosclerosis*
- This affects the coronary arteries supplying the heart, not the aortic wall structure.
- Does not explain the anatomical location of dissection or the tearing interscapular pain.
- Not a predisposing factor for aortic dissection.
*Hypertensive urgency*
- This refers to elevated blood pressure without acute end-organ damage.
- The patient has **aortic dissection**, which represents acute end-organ damage (hypertensive emergency, not urgency).
- While hypertension can precipitate dissection, the underlying **predisposing factor** is the chronic medial wall changes (abnormal elastic properties), not the acute blood pressure elevation itself.
*Aortic coarctation*
- This is a **congenital** narrowing of the aorta, typically diagnosed in childhood or young adulthood.
- Classic finding is upper extremity hypertension with **lower extremity hypotension** (opposite pattern from arm-to-arm differential seen in dissection).
- The patient's age, presentation, and 11-year history of essential hypertension make this unlikely.
Question 167: A 44-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of a headache. He reports that he developed a severe throbbing headache with blurred vision two hours ago. He has never experienced symptoms like these before. His past medical history is notable for hyperlipidemia and poorly controlled hypertension. He currently takes atorvastatin and lisinopril. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 210/110 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 20/min. He is oriented to person, place, and time. No bruits or murmurs are noted. Strength is 2+ bilaterally in the upper and lower extremities. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Funduscopic exam
B. Head CT
C. Administer IV labetalol (Correct Answer)
D. Administer oral hydralazine
E. Renal ultrasound
Explanation: ***Administer IV labetalol***
- This patient presents with **hypertensive emergency**, characterized by **severe hypertension** (BP 210/110 mmHg) with new-onset or worsening **end-organ damage** (severe headache, blurred vision possibly indicating retinal changes).
- Rapid but controlled reduction of blood pressure using **intravenous antihypertensives** like labetalol is crucial to prevent further organ damage.
*Funduscopic exam*
- While a **funduscopic exam** is important to assess for **hypertensive retinopathy** (e.g., papilledema, hemorrhages, exudates) in a patient with a hypertensive emergency, it is not the *immediate next step* in management.
- The priority is to stabilize the patient by lowering blood pressure before a full diagnostic workup.
*Head CT*
- A **head CT** would be considered to rule out conditions like **intracranial hemorrhage** or **ischemic stroke**, especially given the severe headache and blurred vision.
- However, in the setting of a clear **hypertensive emergency**, the initial priority is to commence pharmacological blood pressure reduction while preparing for imaging.
*Administer oral hydralazine*
- **Oral medications** are generally not indicated for the *initial management* of a **hypertensive emergency** because their onset of action is slower and their effects are less predictable and controllable compared to intravenous agents.
- Furthermore, **hydralazine** can cause reflex tachycardia and is not a first-line agent for hypertensive emergencies due to its potential for unpredictable blood pressure drops.
*Renal ultrasound*
- A **renal ultrasound** could be part of a complete workup for the *causes* of secondary hypertension or to assess for **hypertensive nephrosclerosis** in the long term.
- However, in the acute setting of a **hypertensive emergency**, it is not an immediate diagnostic or therapeutic priority.
Question 168: A 21-year-old man presents to his physician with a cough that has persisted for 4 weeks. His cough is usually nocturnal and awakens him from sleep. He denies having a fever, but was diagnosed with asthma when he was 15 years old and uses inhaled albuterol for relief of his symptoms. He usually needs to use a rescue inhaler once or twice a month. However, over the last 4 weeks, he has had to use inhaled albuterol almost daily. He does not have symptoms such as sneezing, running nose, nasal congestion, nasal discharge, headache, nausea, vomiting, regurgitation of food, or burning in the epigastrium. On physical examination, his temperature is 36.8°C (98.4°F), pulse rate is 96/min, blood pressure is 116/80 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 16/min. On auscultation of the chest, end-expiratory wheezing is present bilaterally. The peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is 74% of that expected for his age, sex, and height. Which of the following is the best next step in the treatment of this patient?
A. Add daily inhaled ipratropium bromide to the current regimen.
B. Use inhaled albuterol 4 times daily and follow up after 4 weeks.
C. Add daily oral levocetirizine to the current regimen.
D. Add daily inhaled formoterol to the current regimen.
E. Add daily inhaled corticosteroids to the current regimen. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Add daily inhaled corticosteroids to the current regimen.***
* The patient's increased frequency of albuterol use (from monthly to daily) and nocturnal symptoms indicate **poorly controlled asthma**, necessitating an escalation in therapy.
* **Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)** are the most effective long-term control medications for persistent asthma, reducing airway inflammation and hyperresponsiveness.
*Add daily inhaled ipratropium bromide to the current regimen.*
* **Ipratropium bromide** is a short-acting anticholinergic that primarily targets muscarinic receptors in the airways, leading to bronchodilation.
* It is less effective than beta-2 agonists for acute exacerbations and is generally not recommended as a first-line daily maintenance therapy for asthma control, especially when ICS are not optimized.
*Use inhaled albuterol 4 times daily and follow up after 4 weeks.*
* Increasing the use of **short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs)** like albuterol for daily maintenance is not recommended as it does not address the underlying inflammation and can mask worsening asthma control.
* Overuse of SABAs is associated with increased risk of severe exacerbations and adverse outcomes.
*Add daily oral levocetirizine to the current regimen.*
* **Levocetirizine** is an antihistamine used primarily for allergic rhinitis and chronic urticaria.
* While allergies can trigger asthma, an antihistamine would not be the primary next step for controlling persistent asthma symptoms, especially given the clear indication for anti-inflammatory therapy.
*Add daily inhaled formoterol to the current regimen.*
* **Formoterol** is a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) and should **never be used as monotherapy** for asthma due to an increased risk of severe asthma exacerbations and asthma-related death.
* LABAs are indicated as add-on therapy **only in conjunction with inhaled corticosteroids** in patients whose asthma is not adequately controlled on ICS alone.
Question 169: A 35-year-old man who is a professional baseball player presents with stiffness in his hands. He says he is unable to bat as he would like and feels like he lacks power in his swings. He also has noticed that he sometimes seems to be dragging his feet while walking, and his voice seems to have changed. On physical examination, strength is 3 out of 5 in the extensor and flexor muscle groups in both upper and lower limbs bilaterally. Sensation is intact. Widespread muscle fasciculations are noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Correct Answer)
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Primary lateral sclerosis
E. Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
Explanation: **Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis**
- The patient's presentation with **progressive weakness** (lack of power, dragging feet, dysphonia), widespread **fasciculations**, and both **upper** (stiffness) and **lower motor neuron signs** (fasciculations, weakness) is highly characteristic of **Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)**.
- **ALS** typically involves the degeneration of motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, leading to a combination of **spasticity** (upper motor neuron sign) and **flaccid weakness** with atrophy and fasciculations (lower motor neuron signs).
*Multiple sclerosis*
- **Multiple sclerosis (MS)** is characterized by demyelination in the central nervous system, leading to a variety of neurological symptoms.
- While it can cause weakness and gait disturbances, it typically presents with **sensory deficits**, **optic neuritis**, and exacerbations/remissions, and **fasciculations are not a common feature**.
*Myasthenia gravis*
- **Myasthenia gravis** is an autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction, causing **fluctuating muscle weakness** that worsens with activity and improves with rest.
- Classic symptoms include **ptosis**, **diplopia**, and **difficulty swallowing or speaking**, but **fasciculations** are not typical, and weakness patterns differ from ALS.
*Primary lateral sclerosis*
- **Primary lateral sclerosis (PLS)** predominantly affects **upper motor neurons**, leading to progressive stiffness and spasticity.
- Unlike ALS, **PLS** does not typically involve **lower motor neuron signs** like **fasciculations** or significant muscle atrophy.
*Lambert-Eaton Syndrome*
- **Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS)** is a rare autoimmune disorder of the neuromuscular junction, often associated with small cell lung cancer.
- It causes **proximal muscle weakness** that paradoxically **improves with activity** (Lambert's sign), and may include autonomic dysfunction, but **fasciculations are not a primary feature**.
Question 170: A previously healthy 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with fatigue and bilateral leg swelling. Her pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 24/min. Physical examination shows jugular venous distention and pitting edema of the lower extremities. Her abdomen is distended with shifting dullness and tender hepatomegaly is present. Cardiovascular examination shows a holosystolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border that increases in intensity with inspiration. Which of the following is the most likely predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
A. Streptococcal pharyngitis
B. 45,XO genotype
C. Intravenous drug use (Correct Answer)
D. Vitamin B1 deficiency
E. Fibrillin gene defect
Explanation: ***Intravenous drug use***
- The patient presents with symptoms of **right-sided heart failure**, including **jugular venous distention**, pitting edema, ascites, and tender hepatomegaly.
- The **holosystolic murmur** at the left lower sternal border increasing with inspiration is characteristic of **tricuspid regurgitation**, a common complication of infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users due to contaminated needles introducing bacteria (especially *Staphylococcus aureus*) to the right side of the heart.
*Streptococcal pharyngitis*
- While **rheumatic fever** following streptococcal pharyngitis can cause valvular heart disease, it typically affects the **mitral valve** and less commonly the aortic valve, leading primarily to left-sided heart failure symptoms.
- It is unlikely to cause isolated tricuspid regurgitation and right-sided heart failure in a 32-year-old presenting without a history of carditis.
*45,XO genotype*
- A **45,XO genotype** (Turner syndrome) is associated with congenital heart defects such as **bicuspid aortic valve** and **coarctation of the aorta**, which lead to left-sided heart problems, not typically isolated right-sided heart failure and tricuspid regurgitation.
- The patient's presentation does not describe any other features commonly seen in Turner syndrome.
*Vitamin B1 deficiency*
- Severe **thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency** can cause **wet beriberi**, leading to **high-output heart failure** with symptoms like edema and tachycardia.
- However, it typically causes a dilated cardiomyopathy affecting both ventricles and does not commonly present with a specific holosystolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation as the primary valvular lesion.
*Fibrillin gene defect*
- A **fibrillin gene defect** is associated with **Marfan syndrome**, which can cause cardiovascular complications like **aortic root dilation** and **mitral valve prolapse**, often leading to aortic or mitral regurgitation and left-sided heart failure.
- It is not typically associated with tricuspid regurgitation and isolated right-sided heart failure as described.