A 54-year-old man comes to the physician for an annual health maintenance examination. He reports that he feels well. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 22 years and drinks three 12-oz bottles of beer each night. He works as an accountant and says he does not have time to exercise regularly. He is 178 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 98 kg (216 lb); BMI is 31 kg/m2. His blood pressure is 146/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. His serum cholesterol concentration is 232 mg/dL and hemoglobin A1C is 6.9%. Which of the following preventative measures is likely to have the greatest impact on this patient's all-cause mortality risk?
Q132
A 76-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increasing muscle pain and stiffness, weakness of her shoulders and legs, and generalized fatigue for the past 4 months. She has been having great difficulty getting out of bed in the morning. On two occasions her son had to come over and help her stand up. She has had a 4-kg (9-lb) weight loss and has not been sleeping well during this period. She has had multiple episodes of left-sided headaches and pain in her jaw while chewing over the past 2 months. She had a fall and hit her head on the staircase banister 3 months ago. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is 101/min, and blood pressure is 128/88 mm Hg. Examination shows conjunctival pallor. Range of motion of the shoulder and hip is mildly limited by pain. Muscle strength in bilateral upper and lower extremities is normal. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. On mental status examination, she admits her mood 'is not that great'. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 59 mm/h and serum creatine kinase is 38 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's headache?
Q133
A 14-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of fever, malaise, and severe right knee joint pain and swelling for 3 days. He had also had episodes of abdominal pain and epistaxis during this period. Five days ago, he had swelling and pain in his left ankle joint which has since resolved. He reports having a sore throat 3 weeks ago while he was camping in the woods, for which he received symptomatic treatment. His immunizations are up-to-date. His temperature is 38.7°C (101.6°F), pulse is 119/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Examination shows a swollen, tender right knee; range of motion is limited. There are painless 3- to 4-mm nodules over the elbow. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. His hemoglobin concentration is 12.3 g/dL, leukocyte count is 11,800/mm3, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 58 mm/h. Arthrocentesis of the right knee joint yields clear, straw-colored fluid; no organisms are identified on Gram stain. Analysis of the synovial fluid shows a leukocyte count of 1,350/mm3 with 17% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q134
A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician in June for a routine check-up. She has chronic back pain and underwent an appendectomy at the age of 27. She is married and has two kids. The patient recently got back from a cruise to Mexico where she celebrated her 40th wedding anniversary. Her last mammogram was 6 months ago and showed no abnormalities. Her last Pap smear was 2 years ago and unremarkable. A colonoscopy 5 years ago was normal. Her mother died of breast cancer last year and her father has arterial hypertension. Her immunization records show that she has never received a pneumococcal or a shingles vaccine, her last tetanus booster was 6 years ago, and her last influenza vaccine was 2 years ago. She drinks 1– 2 alcoholic beverages every weekend. She takes a multivitamin daily and uses topical steroids. She regularly attends water aerobic classes and physical therapy for her back pain. She is 168 cm (5 ft 6 in) tall and weighs 72 kg (160 lb); BMI is 26 kg/m2. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 124/70 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation at this time?
Q135
A 68-year-old woman in a wheelchair presents with her husband. She has a 12-month history of progressive difficulty in walking and maintaining balance. Her husband reports that she walks slowly, has difficulty turning, and her feet seem ‘glued to the ground’. She also has problems recalling names and details of recent events. She has no tremors, delusions, hallucinations, sleep disturbances, or head trauma. Past medical history is significant for essential hypertension treated with losartan and urinary incontinence, for which she takes oxybutynin. On physical examination, her vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 130/70 mm Hg, and pulse 80/min. On neurologic examination, her gait is slow, with short steps and poor foot clearance. A head CT is shown. The patient undergoes a lumbar puncture to remove 50 ml of cerebrospinal fluid, which transiently improves her gait for the next 3 days. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
Q136
An 83-year-old woman with a past medical history of poorly controlled diabetes, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, obesity, and recurrent urinary tract infections is brought to the emergency room by her husband due to confusion, generalized malaise and weakness, nausea, and mild lower abdominal pain. Her medications include metformin and glyburide, atorvastatin, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide. At presentation, her oral temperature is 38.9°C (102.2°F), the pulse is 122/min, blood pressure is 93/40 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. On physical examination, she is breathing rapid shallow breaths but does not have any rales or crackles on pulmonary auscultation. No murmurs are heard on cardiac auscultation and femoral pulses are bounding. Her skin is warm, flushed, and dry to touch. There is trace bilateral pedal edema present. Her abdomen is soft and non-distended, but she has some involuntary guarding on palpation of the suprapubic region. ECG shows normal amplitude sinus tachycardia without evidence of ST-segment changes or T-wave inversions. Which of the following would most likely be the relative pulmonary artery catheterization measurements of pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP), mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2), calculated cardiac output (CO), and systemic vascular resistance (SVR) in this patient?
Q137
A 59-year-old patient with COPD is admitted with difficulty breathing and increased sputum production. Approx. a week ago, he developed an upper respiratory tract infection. On admission, his blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, the heart rate 92/min, the respiratory rate 24/min, the temperature 37.6°C (99.7°F), and SaO2 on room air 87%. Chest radiograph shows consolidation in the lower lobe of the right lung. Arterial blood gases (ABG) are taken and antibiotics are started. A nasal cannula provides 2L of oxygen to the patient. When the ABG results arrive, the patient’s SaO2 is 93%. The results are as follows:
pH 7.32
PaO2 63 mm Hg
PaCO2 57 mm Hg
HCO3- 24 mEq/L
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q138
A 72-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine physical examination. He says that he has felt well except for occasional headaches. He has no history of major medical illness. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg. An ultrasound of the kidneys shows a normal right kidney and a left kidney that is 2 cm smaller in length. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
Q139
A 61-year-old man presents to the office with a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus type II, hypercholesterolemia, and asthma. Recently, he describes increasing difficulty with breathing, particularly when performing manual labor. He also endorses a new cough, which occurs both indoors and out. He denies any recent tobacco use, despite a 40-pack-year history. He mentions that his symptoms are particularly stressful for him since he has been working in the construction industry for the past 30 years. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 74/min, and respiratory rate 14/min. On physical examination you notice clubbing of his digits, wheezing on auscultation, and normal heart sounds. A chest radiograph demonstrates linear opacities at the bilateral lung bases and multiple calcified pleural plaques. What is his most likely diagnosis?
Q140
A 56-year-old man presents to his family physician for a routine check-up but also states he has been feeling less energetic than usual. He mentions that he has recently been promoted to a nurse manager position at a regional medical center. His medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which he takes enalapril and atorvastatin. The patient has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the last 30 years. His vital signs include the following: the heart rate is 80/min, the respiratory rate is 18/min, the temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), and the blood pressure is 140/84 mm Hg. He appears well-nourished, alert, and interactive. Coarse breath sounds are auscultated in the lung bases bilaterally. A low-dose computerized tomography (CT) scan is scheduled. A tuberculin skin injection is administered and read 2 days later; the induration has a diameter of 12 mm. A Ziehl-Neelsen stain of the sputum sample is negative. The chest radiograph is pictured. Which of the following is recommended at this time?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: A 54-year-old man comes to the physician for an annual health maintenance examination. He reports that he feels well. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 22 years and drinks three 12-oz bottles of beer each night. He works as an accountant and says he does not have time to exercise regularly. He is 178 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 98 kg (216 lb); BMI is 31 kg/m2. His blood pressure is 146/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. His serum cholesterol concentration is 232 mg/dL and hemoglobin A1C is 6.9%. Which of the following preventative measures is likely to have the greatest impact on this patient's all-cause mortality risk?
A. Antidiabetic medication
B. Smoking cessation (Correct Answer)
C. Blood pressure reduction
D. Reduced alcohol intake
E. Increased physical activity
Explanation: **Smoking cessation**
- **Smoking** is a leading cause of preventable death and significantly increases the risk of **cardiovascular disease**, **cancer**, and **pulmonary disease**, making its cessation the most impactful intervention for all-cause mortality.
- The patient's history of smoking one pack per day for 22 years represents a substantial modifiable risk factor.
*Antidiabetic medication*
- While the patient's HbA1c of 6.9% indicates **pre-diabetes** or early **Type 2 Diabetes**, suggesting a need for intervention, smoking cessation typically yields a greater and more immediate impact on overall mortality risk.
- Lifestyle modifications, including diet and exercise, are usually the first line of treatment for this HbA1c level.
*Blood pressure reduction*
- The patient's blood pressure of **146/90 mmHg** indicates **hypertension**, which is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular events.
- However, the immediate and widespread benefits of **stopping smoking** generally outweigh the benefits of isolated blood pressure control in terms of all-cause mortality, especially with this patient's heavy smoking history.
*Reduced alcohol intake*
- The patient's daily consumption of three 12-oz bottles of beer contributes to his overall health risks, particularly for **liver disease** and **hypertension**.
- While reducing alcohol intake is beneficial, it typically does not have as profound an impact on **all-cause mortality** as quitting smoking, especially given the duration and intensity of the patient's smoking habit.
*Increased physical activity*
- The patient's **sedentary lifestyle** and **obesity (BMI 31 kg/m2)** are significant health concerns and increasing physical activity would offer numerous health benefits.
- However, compared to quitting smoking, the cumulative impact of increased physical activity alone on **all-cause mortality** is generally less dramatic, particularly in a patient with a heavy smoking history.
Question 132: A 76-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increasing muscle pain and stiffness, weakness of her shoulders and legs, and generalized fatigue for the past 4 months. She has been having great difficulty getting out of bed in the morning. On two occasions her son had to come over and help her stand up. She has had a 4-kg (9-lb) weight loss and has not been sleeping well during this period. She has had multiple episodes of left-sided headaches and pain in her jaw while chewing over the past 2 months. She had a fall and hit her head on the staircase banister 3 months ago. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is 101/min, and blood pressure is 128/88 mm Hg. Examination shows conjunctival pallor. Range of motion of the shoulder and hip is mildly limited by pain. Muscle strength in bilateral upper and lower extremities is normal. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. On mental status examination, she admits her mood 'is not that great'. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 59 mm/h and serum creatine kinase is 38 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's headache?
A. Chronic subdural hematoma
B. Migraine
C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction
D. Tension headache
E. Giant cell arteritis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Giant cell arteritis***
- This patient's symptoms of new-onset headaches, **jaw claudication** (pain while chewing), and constitutional symptoms (fatigue, weight loss, difficulty sleeping, low-grade fever) in an elderly woman are highly suggestive of **giant cell arteritis (GCA)**
- The elevated **ESR (59 mm/h)** supports this diagnosis
- GCA is frequently associated with **polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)** - characterized by proximal muscle pain and stiffness with morning stiffness in shoulders and hips, which is also present in this patient
- **Jaw claudication** is highly specific for GCA and helps distinguish it from other causes of headache
*Incorrect: Chronic subdural hematoma*
- While a fall three months prior raises suspicion, the headache in chronic subdural hematoma is typically **non-specific** and constant, without features like **jaw claudication**
- This condition would not explain the prominent systemic symptoms (fever, elevated ESR) or the specific **jaw pain with chewing**
- **Normal mental status** and lack of focal neurological deficits make this unlikely
*Incorrect: Migraine*
- Migraine headaches are typically **pulsatile**, often unilateral, and associated with **photophobia, phonophobia**, or nausea, which are not described here
- The patient's **age of onset (76 years)** and systemic symptoms (fever, elevated ESR, weight loss) are atypical for new-onset migraine
- **Jaw claudication** does not occur with migraine
*Incorrect: Temporomandibular joint dysfunction*
- TMJ dysfunction causes jaw pain aggravated by chewing, but it is typically associated with **TMJ clicking** or locking
- It does not explain the widespread muscle pain and stiffness, **elevated ESR**, constitutional symptoms (fever, weight loss), or new-onset headaches
- This is a **localized mechanical problem**, not a systemic inflammatory condition
*Incorrect: Tension headache*
- Tension headaches are usually described as a **tight band-like pressure** around the head, typically bilateral, and generally not associated with systemic symptoms like fever, weight loss, or **elevated ESR**
- They do not typically cause **jaw pain on chewing** or proximal muscle stiffness
- The prominent inflammatory markers and constitutional symptoms argue against this diagnosis
Question 133: A 14-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of fever, malaise, and severe right knee joint pain and swelling for 3 days. He had also had episodes of abdominal pain and epistaxis during this period. Five days ago, he had swelling and pain in his left ankle joint which has since resolved. He reports having a sore throat 3 weeks ago while he was camping in the woods, for which he received symptomatic treatment. His immunizations are up-to-date. His temperature is 38.7°C (101.6°F), pulse is 119/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Examination shows a swollen, tender right knee; range of motion is limited. There are painless 3- to 4-mm nodules over the elbow. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. His hemoglobin concentration is 12.3 g/dL, leukocyte count is 11,800/mm3, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 58 mm/h. Arthrocentesis of the right knee joint yields clear, straw-colored fluid; no organisms are identified on Gram stain. Analysis of the synovial fluid shows a leukocyte count of 1,350/mm3 with 17% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Lyme disease
B. Kawasaki disease
C. Acute rheumatic fever (Correct Answer)
D. Infective endocarditis
E. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation: ***Acute rheumatic fever***
- The migrating polyarthritis, prior history of **sore throat (Streptococcal pharyngitis)**, fever, and subcutaneous nodules are classic manifestations of **acute rheumatic fever (ARF)**, fulfilling several **Jones criteria**.
- The **elevated ESR** and **leukocytosis** support an inflammatory process, and the non-septic synovial fluid helps rule out septic arthritis.
*Lyme disease*
- While Lyme disease can cause **migratory arthritis** and fever, the presence of **subcutaneous nodules** and a preceding sore throat strongly point away from Lyme disease.
- Patients with Lyme disease typically have **erythema migrans** (a bull's-eye rash), which is not mentioned here.
*Kawasaki disease*
- Kawasaki disease primarily affects **young children** (typically <5 years old) and presents with **fever, rash, conjunctivitis, lymphadenopathy**, and mucositis; arthritis is less common.
- The patient's age (14 years) and specific rheumatological findings like migratory polyarthritis and subcutaneous nodules do not align with Kawasaki disease.
*Infective endocarditis*
- While infective endocarditis can cause fever, malaise, and arthralgia due to immune complex deposition, the prominent **migratory polyarthritis** and **subcutaneous nodules** are not typical primary manifestations.
- There is no mention of a **heart murmur** or other signs of cardiac involvement, which would be expected with endocarditis.
*Juvenile idiopathic arthritis*
- JIA is a chronic arthritic condition lasting at least 6 weeks; this patient presents with an acute, migrating pattern of joint involvement that resolves in some joints.
- While JIA can cause joint pain and swelling, the preceding sore throat and resolving arthritic pattern are not characteristic features of JIA, which typically shows persistent joint inflammation.
Question 134: A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician in June for a routine check-up. She has chronic back pain and underwent an appendectomy at the age of 27. She is married and has two kids. The patient recently got back from a cruise to Mexico where she celebrated her 40th wedding anniversary. Her last mammogram was 6 months ago and showed no abnormalities. Her last Pap smear was 2 years ago and unremarkable. A colonoscopy 5 years ago was normal. Her mother died of breast cancer last year and her father has arterial hypertension. Her immunization records show that she has never received a pneumococcal or a shingles vaccine, her last tetanus booster was 6 years ago, and her last influenza vaccine was 2 years ago. She drinks 1– 2 alcoholic beverages every weekend. She takes a multivitamin daily and uses topical steroids. She regularly attends water aerobic classes and physical therapy for her back pain. She is 168 cm (5 ft 6 in) tall and weighs 72 kg (160 lb); BMI is 26 kg/m2. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 124/70 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation at this time?
A. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry screening
B. Influenza vaccine
C. Shingles vaccine (Correct Answer)
D. Tetanus vaccine
E. Colonoscopy
Explanation: ***Shingles vaccine***
- The patient is 62 years old, and the **Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP)** recommends **shingles vaccine (recombinant zoster vaccine)** for immunocompetent adults aged **50 years and older**.
- The patient has never received a shingles vaccine and is within the recommended age group, making this an appropriate and high-priority recommendation.
*Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry screening*
- **DEXA screening** is recommended for women aged 65 years and older, or younger postmenopausal women with risk factors.
- While she is postmenopausal, she is currently 62 years old, and there are no specific risk factors mentioned (e.g., low body weight, medication use) that would necessitate screening before age 65.
*Influenza vaccine*
- The patient's last influenza vaccine was 2 years ago, meaning she is due for an influenza vaccine. However, the question states it is June, and influenza vaccines are typically recommended annually in the fall (September-October) before influenza season.
- While important, it is not the most appropriate recommendation *at this time* (June) compared to a vaccine that can be given year-round to an eligible patient.
*Tetanus vaccine*
- The patient's last tetanus booster was 6 years ago. A **Td (tetanus and diphtheria) booster** is recommended every 10 years.
- She is not currently due for a tetanus vaccine booster, as 6 years is within the 10-year interval.
*Colonoscopy*
- The patient's last colonoscopy was 5 years ago and was normal. **Routine colonoscopy screening** for average-risk individuals is recommended every 10 years.
- Given her last normal colonoscopy was 5 years ago, she is not due for another one at this time.
Question 135: A 68-year-old woman in a wheelchair presents with her husband. She has a 12-month history of progressive difficulty in walking and maintaining balance. Her husband reports that she walks slowly, has difficulty turning, and her feet seem ‘glued to the ground’. She also has problems recalling names and details of recent events. She has no tremors, delusions, hallucinations, sleep disturbances, or head trauma. Past medical history is significant for essential hypertension treated with losartan and urinary incontinence, for which she takes oxybutynin. On physical examination, her vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 130/70 mm Hg, and pulse 80/min. On neurologic examination, her gait is slow, with short steps and poor foot clearance. A head CT is shown. The patient undergoes a lumbar puncture to remove 50 ml of cerebrospinal fluid, which transiently improves her gait for the next 3 days. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
A. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt (Correct Answer)
B. Epidural blood patch
C. Endoscopic third ventriculostomy
D. Extended lumbar drainage
E. Acetazolamide
Explanation: ***Ventriculoperitoneal shunt***
- The patient's presentation with **gait disturbance**, **urinary incontinence**, and **cognitive decline** (the classic triad of **ataxia**, **urinary incontinence**, and **dementia**) suggests **normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)**. The transient improvement in gait after large volume CSF drainage via lumbar puncture (a positive **tap test**) is highly indicative of NPH and predicts a good response to shunting.
- A **ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt** is the definitive treatment for NPH, redirecting excess CSF from the ventricles to the peritoneal cavity, thereby relieving pressure and improving symptoms.
*Epidural blood patch*
- This procedure is used to treat **spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH)** or **post-dural puncture headache**, conditions characterized by CSF leakage and low CSF pressure, which are opposite to the elevated CSF volume in NPH.
- The patient's symptoms and positive tap test are inconsistent with CSF leakage and respond to CSF removal, not increased CSF volume.
*Endoscopic third ventriculostomy*
- This procedure creates a bypass for CSF flow within the ventricular system to treat **obstructive hydrocephalus** (e.g., aqueductal stenosis).
- While NPH can have some obstructive component, the primary issue is often impaired CSF absorption, making a shunting procedure that diverts CSF out of the cranial vault more effective than an internal bypass.
*Extended lumbar drainage*
- While extended lumbar drainage can be used as a **diagnostic tool** or a temporary measure for NPH, it is not a long-term definitive treatment. It can also lead to complications such as **infection** and **epidural hematoma** with prolonged use.
- The positive tap test indicates that a more permanent solution, like a VP shunt, is warranted rather than ongoing, temporary drainage.
*Acetazolamide*
- **Acetazolamide** is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that **reduces CSF production** and is sometimes used in certain forms of hydrocephalus (e.g., idiopathic intracranial hypertension or benign intracranial hypertension).
- It is generally *not effective* in treating NPH, which primarily involves impaired CSF absorption, rather than overproduction. It also has significant systemic side effects.
Question 136: An 83-year-old woman with a past medical history of poorly controlled diabetes, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, obesity, and recurrent urinary tract infections is brought to the emergency room by her husband due to confusion, generalized malaise and weakness, nausea, and mild lower abdominal pain. Her medications include metformin and glyburide, atorvastatin, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide. At presentation, her oral temperature is 38.9°C (102.2°F), the pulse is 122/min, blood pressure is 93/40 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. On physical examination, she is breathing rapid shallow breaths but does not have any rales or crackles on pulmonary auscultation. No murmurs are heard on cardiac auscultation and femoral pulses are bounding. Her skin is warm, flushed, and dry to touch. There is trace bilateral pedal edema present. Her abdomen is soft and non-distended, but she has some involuntary guarding on palpation of the suprapubic region. ECG shows normal amplitude sinus tachycardia without evidence of ST-segment changes or T-wave inversions. Which of the following would most likely be the relative pulmonary artery catheterization measurements of pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP), mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2), calculated cardiac output (CO), and systemic vascular resistance (SVR) in this patient?
A. Normal PCWP; normal SvO2; increased CO; decreased SVR
B. Decreased PCWP; decreased SvO2; decreased CO; increased SVR
C. Increased PCWP; decreased SvO2; decreased CO; increased SVR
E. Decreased PCWP; normal SvO2; decreased CO; decreased SVR
Explanation: ***Decreased PCWP; slightly increased SvO2; increased CO; decreased SVR***
- The patient's presentation with **fever**, **hypotension**, **tachycardia**, and signs of infection (recurrent UTIs, abdominal pain, involuntary guarding) in conjunction with **warm, flushed skin** and **bounding pulses** points strongly to **septic shock**.
- In **septic shock**, systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is typically **decreased** due to widespread vasodilation, leading to a compensatory **increase in cardiac output (CO)** to maintain perfusion. The pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) is usually **decreased** or normal due to volume redistribution or relative hypovolemia, and mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) is often **slightly increased** due to impaired tissue oxygen extraction.
*Increased PCWP; decreased SvO2; decreased CO; increased SVR*
- This profile is characteristic of **cardiogenic shock**, where there is primary pump failure, leading to **increased PCWP** (due to left ventricular failure), **decreased CO**, and compensatory **increased SVR**. SvO2 would be decreased due to poor tissue perfusion.
- The patient's bounding pulses and warm skin contradict cardiogenic shock; she shows no signs of pulmonary congestion (e.g., rales or crackles), and ECG is normal.
*Decreased PCWP; normal SvO2; decreased CO; decreased SVR*
- This combination is not typical for any specific shock state. While decreased PCWP and SVR can be seen in some forms of shock, a **decreased CO** in the presence of **decreased SVR** would lead to profound hypotension and would not align with the compensatory mechanisms observed in most shock types.
- A **normal SvO2** would be unusual in a severe shock state where tissue oxygen delivery or extraction is significantly impaired.
*Normal PCWP; normal SvO2; increased CO; decreased SVR*
- While **increased CO** and **decreased SVR** are consistent with **septic shock**, a **normal PCWP** and **normal SvO2** are less typical. PCWP can be normal or low, but an increased SvO2 due to peripheral oxygen extraction abnormalities is a more characteristic finding.
- The severe hypotension (93/40 mm Hg) with increased CO often implies a low PCWP as the primary cause of poor filling pressures and decreased venous return.
*Decreased PCWP; decreased SvO2; decreased CO; increased SVR*
- This profile suggests **hypovolemic shock** or late-stage, decompensated septic shock with severe hypovolemia. In hypovolemic shock, there is **decreased preload (PCWP)**, leading to **decreased CO**, and a compensatory **increased SVR**.
- However, the patient's **warm, flushed skin** and **bounding pulses** are inconsistent with the vasoconstriction and cool extremities typically seen in hypovolemic shock. Additionally, early septic shock presents with increased CO and decreased SVR.
Question 137: A 59-year-old patient with COPD is admitted with difficulty breathing and increased sputum production. Approx. a week ago, he developed an upper respiratory tract infection. On admission, his blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, the heart rate 92/min, the respiratory rate 24/min, the temperature 37.6°C (99.7°F), and SaO2 on room air 87%. Chest radiograph shows consolidation in the lower lobe of the right lung. Arterial blood gases (ABG) are taken and antibiotics are started. A nasal cannula provides 2L of oxygen to the patient. When the ABG results arrive, the patient’s SaO2 is 93%. The results are as follows:
pH 7.32
PaO2 63 mm Hg
PaCO2 57 mm Hg
HCO3- 24 mEq/L
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Increase oxygen to SaO2 > 95%
B. Intubate and start invasive ventilation
C. Re-take the ABG and observe the patient until the results are available
D. Administer oral corticosteroids
E. Start non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Start non-invasive positive pressure ventilation***
- The patient has severe **acute exacerbation of COPD (AE-COPD)** with **respiratory acidosis** (pH 7.32, PaCO2 57 mmHg) and **hypoxemia** (PaO2 63 mmHg, SaO2 93% on O2). **Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)** is the most appropriate next step for hypoxemic and hypercapnic respiratory failure in COPD exacerbation, as it improves gas exchange and reduces work of breathing while avoiding the risks of intubation.
- NIPPV can help to reduce **PaCO2** and improve **pH** and oxygenation by providing ventilatory support without requiring an artificial airway.
*Increase oxygen to SaO2 > 95%*
- Increasing oxygen further could worsen **hypercapnia** in a patient with COPD by blunting the **hypoxic drive** and increasing ventilation-perfusion mismatch, especially given the already elevated **PaCO2**.
- The target SaO2 for COPD patients is typically 88-92%; aiming for >95% is usually unnecessary and potentially harmful.
*Intubate and start invasive ventilation*
- While the patient is in respiratory acidosis, NIPPV is generally preferred as the first-line intervention for AE-COPD with respiratory failure, as it is associated with fewer complications than **invasive ventilation**.
- Intubation is reserved for patients who fail NIPPV, have contraindications to NIPPV, or present with immediate life-threatening conditions such as altered mental status or aspiration.
*Re-take the ABG and observe the patient until the results are available*
- The current ABG results clearly indicate **acute respiratory acidosis** which requires immediate intervention, not just re-evaluation.
- Delaying treatment while awaiting new ABG results or observing the patient could lead to further clinical deterioration and worsening acidosis.
*Administer oral corticosteroids*
- Corticosteroids (systemic) are an important part of AE-COPD management for reducing inflammation and improving lung function. However, they do not address the acute **hypercapnic respiratory failure** directly.
- While corticosteroids should be administered, they are not the immediate next step to manage the acute ventilatory failure, which requires respiratory support.
Question 138: A 72-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine physical examination. He says that he has felt well except for occasional headaches. He has no history of major medical illness. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg. An ultrasound of the kidneys shows a normal right kidney and a left kidney that is 2 cm smaller in length. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Hematuria
B. Abdominal bruit (Correct Answer)
C. Varicocele
D. Elevated urine metanephrines
E. Polycythemia
Explanation: **Abdominal bruit**
- A persistent **abdominal bruit** can be heard in cases of **renal artery stenosis**, which explains the **unilateral kidney atrophy** and **hypertension**.
- **Atherosclerosis** is a common cause of renal artery stenosis in elderly patients, leading to reduced blood flow to one kidney and subsequent size reduction.
*Hematuria*
- While hematuria can indicate renal pathology, it is not a direct consequence of **renal artery stenosis** leading to unilateral kidney atrophy.
- It might be seen in conditions like **renal calculi** or **glomerulonephritis**, which are not suggested by the patient's presentation.
*Varicocele*
- A varicocele is a swelling of the veins in the **scrotum**, which is unrelated to **kidney size discrepancy** or **hypertension**.
- Its presence would be an incidental finding and not explained by the current clinical picture.
*Elevated urine metanephrines*
- Elevated urine metanephrines are indicative of a **pheochromocytoma**, a tumor that causes **secondary hypertension** but does not typically lead to **unilateral kidney atrophy**.
- The type of hypertension and kidney findings do not align with pheochromocytoma.
*Polycythemia*
- **Polycythemia** (an increase in red blood cell mass) can be caused by increased **erythropoietin** production, sometimes seen in renal cell carcinoma or renal cysts.
- However, it is not a characteristic finding associated with **renal artery stenosis** and resultant unilateral kidney size reduction.
Question 139: A 61-year-old man presents to the office with a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus type II, hypercholesterolemia, and asthma. Recently, he describes increasing difficulty with breathing, particularly when performing manual labor. He also endorses a new cough, which occurs both indoors and out. He denies any recent tobacco use, despite a 40-pack-year history. He mentions that his symptoms are particularly stressful for him since he has been working in the construction industry for the past 30 years. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 74/min, and respiratory rate 14/min. On physical examination you notice clubbing of his digits, wheezing on auscultation, and normal heart sounds. A chest radiograph demonstrates linear opacities at the bilateral lung bases and multiple calcified pleural plaques. What is his most likely diagnosis?
A. Berylliosis
B. Silicosis
C. Asbestosis (Correct Answer)
D. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
E. Coal miner’s disease
Explanation: ***Asbestosis***
- The patient's 30-year history in the **construction industry** strongly suggests exposure to **asbestos** (commonly found in insulation, roofing materials, and cement).
- Clinical findings such as **digital clubbing**, **bilateral basilar linear opacities** on chest X-ray, and **calcified pleural plaques** are pathognomonic for asbestosis.
- The combination of lower lobe fibrosis with pleural plaques is the hallmark of asbestos-related lung disease.
*Berylliosis*
- Berylliosis is associated with exposure to **beryllium** in industries such as aerospace, ceramics, and nuclear power, which is not indicated in this patient's occupational history.
- While it can manifest with granulomas and diffuse lung disease similar to sarcoidosis, it does not typically cause **calcified pleural plaques**.
*Silicosis*
- Silicosis results from exposure to **silica dust**, which can occur in construction (sandblasting, concrete cutting), but typically presents with **upper lobe predominant nodular opacities** and **"eggshell" calcifications** of hilar lymph nodes, not pleural plaques.
- The basilar linear pattern and pleural plaques point away from silicosis.
*Hypersensitivity pneumonitis*
- Hypersensitivity pneumonitis involves an immune response to inhaled organic antigens (bird droppings, mold, hay), often presenting with **recurrent flu-like symptoms** and diffuse infiltrates.
- It typically does not cause **pleural plaques** or the chronic fibrotic pattern seen with pneumoconioses.
*Coal miner's disease*
- Coal worker's pneumoconiosis is caused by inhaling **coal dust** and is characteristic of coal mining occupations, not construction work.
- It classically presents with **small nodular opacities** throughout the lungs, particularly in the upper lobes, and is not associated with **pleural plaques**.
Question 140: A 56-year-old man presents to his family physician for a routine check-up but also states he has been feeling less energetic than usual. He mentions that he has recently been promoted to a nurse manager position at a regional medical center. His medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which he takes enalapril and atorvastatin. The patient has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the last 30 years. His vital signs include the following: the heart rate is 80/min, the respiratory rate is 18/min, the temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), and the blood pressure is 140/84 mm Hg. He appears well-nourished, alert, and interactive. Coarse breath sounds are auscultated in the lung bases bilaterally. A low-dose computerized tomography (CT) scan is scheduled. A tuberculin skin injection is administered and read 2 days later; the induration has a diameter of 12 mm. A Ziehl-Neelsen stain of the sputum sample is negative. The chest radiograph is pictured. Which of the following is recommended at this time?
A. Isoniazid and rifampin (Correct Answer)
B. Isoniazid and ethambutol
C. Repeat sputum culture and smear
D. Isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide
E. Levofloxacin and ethambutol
Explanation: ***Isoniazid and rifampin***
- This patient has **latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI)**, indicated by a **positive tuberculin skin test (12 mm induration)** in a high-risk individual (healthcare worker with significant smoking history) with **no clinical or microbiological evidence of active disease**.
- The **negative Ziehl-Neelsen stain**, absence of respiratory symptoms (no cough, no fever, temperature 37.1°C), and nonspecific fatigue support LTBI rather than active TB.
- **Standard treatment for LTBI** includes several options: **isoniazid and rifampin for 3 months**, isoniazid alone for 9 months, or rifampin alone for 4 months. The 3-month rifampin/isoniazid regimen offers improved compliance with shorter duration.
- Treatment of LTBI prevents progression to active tuberculosis disease, which occurs in approximately 5-10% of untreated individuals with LTBI.
*Isoniazid and ethambutol*
- This is not a standard regimen for either latent or active TB infection.
- Ethambutol is reserved for active TB treatment and has no role in LTBI management.
*Repeat sputum culture and smear*
- While additional diagnostic workup may be reasonable if clinical suspicion for active TB is high, the **negative initial smear** and **absence of symptoms suggestive of active disease** make LTBI more likely.
- Delaying treatment unnecessarily increases the risk of progression to active disease, particularly given his healthcare worker status with potential exposure risk.
*Isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide*
- This four-drug regimen is indicated for **active pulmonary tuberculosis**, not latent infection.
- There is **no evidence of active TB** in this case: negative sputum smear, no respiratory symptoms, no fever, and no clinical findings suggesting active disease.
- Unnecessary use of four-drug therapy exposes the patient to increased adverse effects (hepatotoxicity, optic neuritis from ethambutol, hyperuricemia from pyrazinamide) without clinical benefit.
*Levofloxacin and ethambutol*
- Fluoroquinolones like levofloxacin are reserved for **multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB)** or when first-line agents are contraindicated.
- There is no indication for second-line therapy in this patient with presumed LTBI and no evidence of drug resistance.