A 27-year-old male basketball player presents to his primary care physician for a normal check-up. He has not been seen by a physician in ten years. He reports that he feels well and has no complaints. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 16/min. On examination, the patient's height is 76 in (193 cm) with an arm span of 78 in (198 cm). His BMI is 19 kg/m^2. His fingers and toes are long and tapered and his sternum appears sunken into his chest. The patient also has moderate scoliosis. Upon further questioning, the patient reports that his father had a similar physique but passed away in his 40s. Which of the following complications is this patient at greatest risk for?
Q112
An 18-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to the confusion that started earlier in the day. His parents report that the patient had recovered from vomiting and diarrhea 3 days ago without medical intervention. They mention that although nausea and vomiting have resolved, the patient continued to have diffuse abdominal pain and decreased appetite. Past medical history is unremarkable, except for a recent weight loss and increased thirst. The patient does not use tobacco products or alcohol. He is not sexually active and does not use illicit drugs. He appears lethargic but responds to questions. His mucous membranes appear dry. Temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), blood pressure is 105/60 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respiratory rate is 27/min with deep and rapid respiration. There is diffuse abdominal tenderness without guarding, rebound tenderness or rigidity. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q113
A 34-year-old man comes to the physician because of increasing lower back and neck pain for the past 7 months. The pain is worse in the morning and improves when he plays basketball. He has noticed shortness of breath while playing for the past 2 months. He is sexually active with 2 female partners and uses condoms inconsistently. He appears lethargic. His vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the back shows tenderness over the sacroiliac joints. Range of motion is limited. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Chest expansion is decreased on full inspiration. His leukocyte count is 14,000/mm3 and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 84 mm/h. An x-ray of the spine shows erosion and sclerosis of the sacroiliac joints and loss of spinal lordosis. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following?
Q114
A 31-year-old man presents with a several-month history of foot sensory changes. He has noticed that he has a hard time telling the difference between a hardwood floor and carpet beneath his feet. He's also had a couple of falls lately; these falls were not preceded by any lightheadedness or palpitations. He is adopted, so his family history is unknown. On physical exam, he has leg and foot muscular atrophy and 4/5 strength throughout his bilateral lower extremities. Sensation to light touch and pinprick is decreased up to the mid-calf. Ankle jerk reflex is absent bilaterally. He has a significant pes cavus deformity of both feet. Nerve conduction studies show decreased conduction velocities in his bilateral peroneal nerves. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
Q115
A 16-year-old boy comes to the physician because his parents are concerned about his persistently poor performance at school. He has had increased impulsivity and has difficulty making and keeping friends. On questioning, he reports that he is being bullied by his classmates for his high-pitched voice, thin build, and poor grades. He is at the 94th percentile for height and 50th percentile for weight. Physical examination shows bilateral gynecomastia, sparse pubic hair, and long limbs compared with the trunk. Genital examination shows small, firm testes. Serum studies show increased levels of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone and a slightly decreased serum testosterone. This patient is at increased risk of which of the following complications?
Q116
A 55-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found disoriented. He has limited ability to communicate in English but indicates that he has left flank pain and a fever. Chart review reveals that he has diabetes and sleep apnea but both are well controlled. He also has a 30-pack-year smoking history and has lost about 20 pounds since his last presentation. Physical exam reveals a bulge in his left scrotum and ultrasound reveals bilateral kidney stones. Which of the following findings is also associated with the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q117
A 57-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a chief complaint of feeling tired all the time. She states her symptoms began several months ago, around the time that her husband committed suicide. Since then she has had thoughts of joining her husband. She complains of feeling excessively weak and states that she no longer has enough energy to go to the gym which she attributes to her 15 pound weight gain over the last month. The patient's medical history includes joint pain, a skin rash that recently resolved, obstructive sleep apnea, and metabolic syndrome. The patient takes ibuprofen and omeprazole as needed but otherwise cannot remember any other medications that she takes. On physical exam you note an overweight woman who has an overall depressed affect. The patient's cardiac exam reveals a normal rate and rhythm. The pulmonary exam reveals bilateral clear lung fields with good air movement. The patient's skin is very dry and tight appearing and her hair is coarse. Overall the patient appears somewhat unkempt.
Laboratory work is performed and reveals the following:
Hemoglobin: 13.0 g/dL
Hematocrit: 37%
Leukocyte count: 4,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelets: 250,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
BUN: 15 mg/dL
Glucose: 122 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 5.3 µU/mL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
AST: 11 U/L
ALT: 13 U/L
Which of the following laboratory findings is most likely to be abnormal in this patient?
Q118
A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with crushing substernal chest pain. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, diabetes, and hypertension. He drinks 5 alcoholic drinks every night and has a 40 pack-year smoking history. The patient works as a truck driver and leads a sedentary lifestyle. His initial electrocardiogram (ECG) is notable for ST elevation in V2-V5 with reciprocal changes. The patient is sent for cardiac catheterization, and several stents are placed. The patient is being monitored after the procedure, when he suddenly becomes less responsive. His temperature is 98.5°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 87/48 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Jugular venous distension is absent and pulmonary exam is notable for clear breath sounds bilaterally. The patient states that he is experiencing back and flank pain and is tender to palpation over his lumbar back and flanks. The patient is given 3 liters of Lactated Ringer solution and his blood pressure improves to 110/70 mmHg and his pulse is 95/min. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q119
In a patient with suspected interstitial lung disease, which of the following is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?
Q120
A 74-year-old Hispanic man comes to the physician because of a three-week history of dizziness upon standing and a brief loss of consciousness one hour ago. The patient suddenly collapsed on his way to the bathroom after waking up in the morning. He did not sustain any injuries from his collapse. He has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and gout. The patient's mother died of a grand mal seizure at the age of 53 years. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 55 years. He drinks three beers and two glasses of whiskey daily. Current medications include ranitidine, dutasteride, tamsulosin, and allopurinol. He is 166 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 62 kg (137 lb); BMI is 22.5 kg/m2. He appears pale. Temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F), pulse is 83/min, and blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg supine and 100/70 mm Hg one minute after standing with no change in pulse rate. Physical examination shows conjunctival pallor. A plopping sound is heard on auscultation, immediately followed by a low-pitched, rumbling mid-diastolic murmur heard best at the apex. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. An ECG shows regular sinus rhythm. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 111: A 27-year-old male basketball player presents to his primary care physician for a normal check-up. He has not been seen by a physician in ten years. He reports that he feels well and has no complaints. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 16/min. On examination, the patient's height is 76 in (193 cm) with an arm span of 78 in (198 cm). His BMI is 19 kg/m^2. His fingers and toes are long and tapered and his sternum appears sunken into his chest. The patient also has moderate scoliosis. Upon further questioning, the patient reports that his father had a similar physique but passed away in his 40s. Which of the following complications is this patient at greatest risk for?
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Septic arthritis
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Hearing loss
E. Aortic aneurysm (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Aortic aneurysm***
* The patient's presentation with **tall stature**, **long fingers and toes (arachnodactyly)**, **pectus excavatum (sunken sternum)**, **scoliosis**, and a family history of sudden death in a similarly built father strongly suggests **Marfan syndrome**.
* **Aortic aneurysm and dissection** are the most serious cardiovascular complications of Marfan syndrome, often leading to premature death if untreated, due to the inherent connective tissue weakness in the aorta.
*Hyperparathyroidism*
* **Hyperparathyroidism** is not typically associated with Marfan syndrome. Its primary complications involve **hypercalcemia** and related symptoms such as kidney stones or bone pain.
* There are no clinical features in the patient's presentation or family history to suggest a risk for this endocrine disorder.
*Septic arthritis*
* **Septic arthritis** is an infection of a joint, usually characterized by acute pain, swelling, warmth, and limited range of motion in the affected joint, often with systemic signs of infection.
* The patient has no symptoms or risk factors for infection, and genetic connective tissue disorders like Marfan syndrome do not predispose individuals to septic arthritis.
*Aortic stenosis*
* **Aortic stenosis** involves narrowing of the aortic valve, classically causing symptoms of chest pain, syncope, and dyspnea on exertion. While Marfan syndrome can affect valves, it more commonly causes **aortic root dilation and regurgitation**, not stenosis.
* The primary and most dangerous cardiovascular complication in Marfan syndrome is **aortic root dilation leading to aneurysm and dissection**, not typically primary stenosis of the valve.
*Hearing loss*
* While certain genetic syndromes can be associated with **hearing loss**, it is **not a prominent or direct complication of Marfan syndrome**.
* The patient's symptoms are classic for connective tissue abnormalities affecting the skeletal and cardiovascular systems, not the auditory system.
Question 112: An 18-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to the confusion that started earlier in the day. His parents report that the patient had recovered from vomiting and diarrhea 3 days ago without medical intervention. They mention that although nausea and vomiting have resolved, the patient continued to have diffuse abdominal pain and decreased appetite. Past medical history is unremarkable, except for a recent weight loss and increased thirst. The patient does not use tobacco products or alcohol. He is not sexually active and does not use illicit drugs. He appears lethargic but responds to questions. His mucous membranes appear dry. Temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), blood pressure is 105/60 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respiratory rate is 27/min with deep and rapid respiration. There is diffuse abdominal tenderness without guarding, rebound tenderness or rigidity. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Abdominal ultrasound
B. ECG
C. MRI of the brain
D. Capillary blood glucose measurement (Correct Answer)
E. CT of the abdomen
Explanation: ***Capillary blood glucose measurement***
- The patient's symptoms, including **confusion**, recent **weight loss**, **increased thirst**, **lethargy**, dry mucous membranes, **tachycardia**, and **Kussmaul respirations** (deep and rapid breathing), are highly suggestive of **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)**.
- A rapid assessment of **blood glucose** is crucial for confirming DKA and initiating prompt treatment.
*Abdominal ultrasound*
- While the patient has **diffuse abdominal tenderness**, there are no signs pointing specifically to an intra-abdominal pathology requiring immediate imaging.
- The patient's systemic symptoms and Kussmaul respirations are more indicative of a metabolic derangement than a localized abdominal issue.
*ECG*
- An ECG might be performed later to assess for **cardiac abnormalities** in DKA, especially related to **electrolyte disturbances**, but it's not the immediate diagnostic step.
- The priority is to confirm and begin treatment for the metabolic crisis.
*MRI of the brain*
- Given the patient's acute confusion and other systemic symptoms, an MRI of the brain is not the initial investigation.
- **Cerebral edema** can be a complication of DKA, but it typically develops later in the course or during treatment, and initial management focuses on correcting the metabolic state.
*CT of the abdomen*
- Similar to abdominal ultrasound, a CT scan of the abdomen is not the next best step given the clinical picture.
- The symptoms are more consistent with a **metabolic emergency** like DKA, which requires immediate biochemical assessment rather than imaging for abdominal pain.
Question 113: A 34-year-old man comes to the physician because of increasing lower back and neck pain for the past 7 months. The pain is worse in the morning and improves when he plays basketball. He has noticed shortness of breath while playing for the past 2 months. He is sexually active with 2 female partners and uses condoms inconsistently. He appears lethargic. His vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the back shows tenderness over the sacroiliac joints. Range of motion is limited. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Chest expansion is decreased on full inspiration. His leukocyte count is 14,000/mm3 and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 84 mm/h. An x-ray of the spine shows erosion and sclerosis of the sacroiliac joints and loss of spinal lordosis. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Paresthesia over the anterolateral part of the thigh
B. Nail pitting and separation of the nail from the nailbed
C. Ulnar deviation of the fingers bilaterally
D. Erythema and inflammation of the conjunctiva
E. Tenderness at the Achilles tendon insertion site (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tenderness at the Achilles tendon insertion site***
- This patient's symptoms (morning stiffness, improved with activity, sacroiliac joint tenderness, decreased chest expansion, elevated inflammatory markers, sacroiliac erosions, and loss of spinal lordosis) are highly consistent with **ankylosing spondylitis**.
- **Enthesitis**, the inflammation of the sites where tendons or ligaments insert into bone, particularly at the **Achilles tendon insertion**, is a common extraskeletal manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis and other spondyloarthropathies.
*Paresthesia over the anterolateral part of the thigh*
- This symptom, also known as **meralgia paresthetica**, is caused by compression of the **lateral femoral cutaneous nerve**.
- While it can occur in the general population, it is not a direct or common manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis.
*Nail pitting and separation of the nail from the nailbed*
- These are characteristic features of **psoriatic arthritis** and psoriasis, which are not specifically indicated by the patient's symptoms or findings.
- Although psoriasis can be associated with spondyloarthropathies, the primary presentation points more strongly to ankylosing spondylitis without overt skin or nail manifestations mentioned.
*Ulnar deviation of the fingers bilaterally*
- **Ulnar deviation** of the fingers is a classic finding in advanced **rheumatoid arthritis**, which primarily affects peripheral joints symmetrically.
- The patient's axial skeleton involvement (sacroiliac and spine) and morning stiffness improving with activity are atypical for rheumatoid arthritis.
*Erythema and inflammation of the conjunctiva*
- **Conjunctivitis** (erythema and inflammation of the conjunctiva) can be a feature of **reactive arthritis** or, less commonly, other spondyloarthropathies.
- While reactive arthritis is in the differential for seronegative spondyloarthropathies, the chronicity of symptoms (7 months), classic spinal involvement, and resolution with activity point more definitively to ankylosing spondylitis as the primary diagnosis, with enthesitis being a more direct and common complication.
Question 114: A 31-year-old man presents with a several-month history of foot sensory changes. He has noticed that he has a hard time telling the difference between a hardwood floor and carpet beneath his feet. He's also had a couple of falls lately; these falls were not preceded by any lightheadedness or palpitations. He is adopted, so his family history is unknown. On physical exam, he has leg and foot muscular atrophy and 4/5 strength throughout his bilateral lower extremities. Sensation to light touch and pinprick is decreased up to the mid-calf. Ankle jerk reflex is absent bilaterally. He has a significant pes cavus deformity of both feet. Nerve conduction studies show decreased conduction velocities in his bilateral peroneal nerves. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
A. Referral to physical therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Aspirin
C. Gabapentin
D. Cilostazol
E. Referral to orthopedic surgery
Explanation: ***Referral to physical therapy***
- This patient presents with signs and symptoms highly suggestive of **Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease**, a hereditary neuropathy characterized by **progressive muscle weakness**, **sensory loss**, and **foot deformities** like **pes cavus**.
- **Physical therapy** is crucial for maintaining function, improving balance, preventing contractures, and enhancing quality of life in patients with chronic progressive neuropathies.
*Aspirin*
- **Aspirin** is an **antiplatelet agent** used in the prevention of cardiovascular events or for pain relief.
- It does not address the underlying neurological degeneration or symptomatic progression of hereditary neuropathies.
*Gabapentin*
- **Gabapentin** is primarily used to treat **neuropathic pain** or as an **antiepileptic**.
- While it might address some discomfort, it does not improve motor function, prevent falls, or alter the disease course in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease.
*Cilostazol*
- **Cilostazol** is a **phosphodiesterase inhibitor** used to treat **intermittent claudication** in peripheral artery disease, which is not indicated here.
- Its mechanism of action is unrelated to neurological or musculoskeletal conditions seen in this patient.
*Referral to orthopedic surgery*
- While orthopedic surgery might be considered for severe deformities like pes cavus, it is typically reserved for cases where conservative management fails or when the deformity significantly impairs ambulation.
- In a patient with **progressive neuropathy**, other supportive measures like physical therapy are generally the initial and ongoing management strategies.
Question 115: A 16-year-old boy comes to the physician because his parents are concerned about his persistently poor performance at school. He has had increased impulsivity and has difficulty making and keeping friends. On questioning, he reports that he is being bullied by his classmates for his high-pitched voice, thin build, and poor grades. He is at the 94th percentile for height and 50th percentile for weight. Physical examination shows bilateral gynecomastia, sparse pubic hair, and long limbs compared with the trunk. Genital examination shows small, firm testes. Serum studies show increased levels of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone and a slightly decreased serum testosterone. This patient is at increased risk of which of the following complications?
A. Aortic dissection
B. Acute leukemia
C. Prostate cancer
D. Breast cancer (Correct Answer)
E. Optic glioma
Explanation: ***Breast cancer***
- This patient's presentation is consistent with **Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY)**, characterized by **gynecomastia**, **small testes**, **tall stature**, and **low testosterone with high LH/FSH**.
- Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have a significantly increased risk (approximately 20-50 times) of developing **male breast cancer** due to the estrogen-androgen imbalance and the presence of an extra X chromosome.
*Aortic dissection*
- **Aortic dissection** is a known risk in conditions like **Marfan syndrome** due to connective tissue abnormalities, which can also present with tall stature and long limbs.
- However, Marfan syndrome does not typically involve **gynecomastia**, **small testes**, or the specific hormonal profile (high LH/FSH, low testosterone) seen in Klinefelter syndrome.
*Acute leukemia*
- There is no direct significant association between **Klinefelter syndrome** and an increased risk of **acute leukemia**.
- While chromosomal abnormalities can sometimes be linked to leukemia, the characteristic features described here do not point to a predisposition for leukemia.
*Prostate cancer*
- **Prostate cancer** is typically linked to **androgens**; in Klinefelter syndrome, **low testosterone** levels are observed, which would generally be protective against prostate cancer.
- Therefore, Klinefelter syndrome does not increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, some studies suggest a slightly lower incidence.
*Optic glioma*
- **Optic glioma** is a tumor of the optic nerve and is often associated with neurofibromatosis type 1.
- This condition does not have a direct association with the classic features of **Klinefelter syndrome** described in the patient.
Question 116: A 55-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found disoriented. He has limited ability to communicate in English but indicates that he has left flank pain and a fever. Chart review reveals that he has diabetes and sleep apnea but both are well controlled. He also has a 30-pack-year smoking history and has lost about 20 pounds since his last presentation. Physical exam reveals a bulge in his left scrotum and ultrasound reveals bilateral kidney stones. Which of the following findings is also associated with the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Gynecomastia
B. Cavitary lung lesion
C. Jaundice
D. Increased hematocrit (Correct Answer)
E. Aniridia
Explanation: ***Increased hematocrit***
- This patient's symptoms (disorientation, left flank pain, fever, weight loss, smoking history, and **left scrotal bulge suggesting varicocele**) are highly suggestive of **renal cell carcinoma (RCC)**.
- The **left-sided varicocele** in an adult male is particularly significant, as it may indicate **left renal vein obstruction** by the tumor (the left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein).
- Approximately 3-10% of patients with RCC develop **erythrocytosis** due to **ectopic erythropoietin (EPO) production** by the tumor, leading to **increased hematocrit** as a paraneoplastic syndrome.
- Other paraneoplastic manifestations of RCC include hypercalcemia (PTHrP production), hypertension (renin production), and Stauffer syndrome (hepatic dysfunction).
*Gynecomastia*
- While paraneoplastic syndromes can occur with RCC, **gynecomastia** is not a common associated finding.
- Gynecomastia is more often associated with **testicular tumors** (hCG-secreting), liver disease, or certain medications.
*Cavitary lung lesion*
- While RCC can metastasize to the lungs, presenting as **nodules or masses** (cannonball metastases), a **cavitary lesion** is more characteristic of infections (e.g., tuberculosis, fungal infections) or **squamous cell carcinoma** of the lung.
- The primary presentation here points to renal pathology with paraneoplastic manifestations.
*Jaundice*
- **Jaundice** indicates **hyperbilirubinemia** and is not a direct paraneoplastic syndrome of RCC.
- It may occur with extensive metastatic disease to the liver causing biliary obstruction or in Stauffer syndrome (non-metastatic hepatic dysfunction), but this is less common than erythrocytosis.
*Aniridia*
- **Aniridia** (absence of the iris) is a rare congenital condition strongly associated with **Wilms' tumor** (nephroblastoma), a pediatric kidney cancer, as part of the **WAGR syndrome** (Wilms tumor, Aniridia, Genitourinary abnormalities, intellectual disability/Range of developmental delays).
- It is not associated with adult renal cell carcinoma.
Question 117: A 57-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a chief complaint of feeling tired all the time. She states her symptoms began several months ago, around the time that her husband committed suicide. Since then she has had thoughts of joining her husband. She complains of feeling excessively weak and states that she no longer has enough energy to go to the gym which she attributes to her 15 pound weight gain over the last month. The patient's medical history includes joint pain, a skin rash that recently resolved, obstructive sleep apnea, and metabolic syndrome. The patient takes ibuprofen and omeprazole as needed but otherwise cannot remember any other medications that she takes. On physical exam you note an overweight woman who has an overall depressed affect. The patient's cardiac exam reveals a normal rate and rhythm. The pulmonary exam reveals bilateral clear lung fields with good air movement. The patient's skin is very dry and tight appearing and her hair is coarse. Overall the patient appears somewhat unkempt.
Laboratory work is performed and reveals the following:
Hemoglobin: 13.0 g/dL
Hematocrit: 37%
Leukocyte count: 4,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelets: 250,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
BUN: 15 mg/dL
Glucose: 122 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 5.3 µU/mL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
AST: 11 U/L
ALT: 13 U/L
Which of the following laboratory findings is most likely to be abnormal in this patient?
A. Anti-DNA topoisomerase antibodies
B. Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies (Correct Answer)
C. Anti-nuclear antibodies
D. Anti-histidyl-tRNA synthetase antibodies
E. 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid in CSF
Explanation: ***Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of **hypothyroidism** (fatigue, weight gain, dry skin, coarse hair, depressed affect) and an elevated **TSH of 5.3 µU/mL** (normal: 0.4-4.0 µU/mL), indicating **subclinical or early primary hypothyroidism**.
- **Hashimoto's thyroiditis** (chronic autoimmune thyroiditis) is the most common cause of primary hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient areas, and **anti-thyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO) antibodies** are found in **90-95% of cases**.
- Given the elevated TSH and hypothyroid symptoms, anti-TPO antibodies are the most likely abnormal laboratory finding in this patient.
*Anti-DNA topoisomerase antibodies*
- These antibodies (anti-Scl-70) are characteristic of **systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)**, particularly the diffuse cutaneous form.
- While the patient has "tight appearing" skin, this description more likely represents **myxedema** (non-pitting edema from hypothyroidism) rather than scleroderma, and the **elevated TSH** directly points to thyroid pathology as the primary issue.
*Anti-nuclear antibodies*
- **Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs)** are a non-specific screening test for various autoimmune diseases including SLE, scleroderma, and mixed connective tissue disease.
- While an ANA could be positive given her history of resolved rash and joint pain, it is a **non-specific finding** seen in up to 10-15% of healthy individuals, whereas the **elevated TSH** points directly to a specific thyroid autoimmune process.
*Anti-histidyl-tRNA synthetase antibodies*
- These antibodies (anti-Jo-1) are specific for **polymyositis** and **dermatomyositis**, which present with proximal muscle weakness and often elevated creatine kinase.
- While the patient complains of weakness, this is generalized fatigue from hypothyroidism rather than true muscle weakness, and there are no other signs of inflammatory myopathy (normal muscle enzymes would be expected).
*5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid in CSF*
- **Low levels of 5-HIAA** (a serotonin metabolite) in CSF have been associated with **impulsive behavior, aggression, and suicidal ideation** in psychiatric research.
- While the patient has significant depressive symptoms and suicidal thoughts following her husband's death, the question asks for the most likely abnormal finding given **all presented clinical data**, and the combination of hypothyroid symptoms plus elevated TSH strongly indicates thyroid autoimmunity as the primary pathology to investigate.
Question 118: A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with crushing substernal chest pain. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, diabetes, and hypertension. He drinks 5 alcoholic drinks every night and has a 40 pack-year smoking history. The patient works as a truck driver and leads a sedentary lifestyle. His initial electrocardiogram (ECG) is notable for ST elevation in V2-V5 with reciprocal changes. The patient is sent for cardiac catheterization, and several stents are placed. The patient is being monitored after the procedure, when he suddenly becomes less responsive. His temperature is 98.5°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 87/48 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Jugular venous distension is absent and pulmonary exam is notable for clear breath sounds bilaterally. The patient states that he is experiencing back and flank pain and is tender to palpation over his lumbar back and flanks. The patient is given 3 liters of Lactated Ringer solution and his blood pressure improves to 110/70 mmHg and his pulse is 95/min. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Aspirin and clopidogrel
B. CT scan (Correct Answer)
C. Repeat cardiac catheterization
D. Emergency surgery
E. FAST exam
Explanation: **CT scan**
- The patient's presentation with **back and flank pain**, **hypotension**, and a history of recent **cardiac catheterization** (which often involves arterial access in the groin, increasing the risk of retroperitoneal bleeding) strongly suggests **retroperitoneal hemorrhage**.
- A **CT scan** of the abdomen and pelvis is the gold standard for diagnosing retroperitoneal hematoma, allowing for accurate localization, size assessment, and identification of ongoing bleeding.
*Aspirin and clopidogrel*
- These are **antiplatelet medications** used to prevent stent thrombosis and further cardiac events after PCI.
- While important for post-PCI care, they would **exacerbate the retroperitoneal hemorrhage** if given immediately, as the patient's current instability is more likely due to bleeding than recurrent cardiac ischemia.
*Repeat cardiac catheterization*
- This procedure carries risks and is only indicated if there is strong evidence of **reocclusion of the coronary arteries** or other procedure-related complications directly affecting the heart.
- The patient's new symptoms of back/flank pain and improved hemodynamics after fluid resuscitation are not typical of cardiac reocclusion, instead pointing to a bleeding source.
*Emergency surgery*
- While emergency surgery might be the definitive treatment for a severe retroperitoneal hemorrhage, it is not the *best next step* in management.
- **Diagnostic imaging (CT scan)** is needed first to confirm the diagnosis, assess the extent of bleeding, and determine if surgical intervention is indeed required or if less invasive approaches (e.g., coiling, conservative management) are appropriate.
*FAST exam*
- A **Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) exam** is primarily used to detect **free fluid in the peritoneum, pericardium, and pleural spaces** in trauma patients.
- While useful for rapid assessment of intra-abdominal hemorrhage, it is **less sensitive for retroperitoneal bleeding** which is often contained within the retroperitoneal space and not easily visualized as free fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
Question 119: In a patient with suspected interstitial lung disease, which of the following is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?
A. High-resolution CT scan of the chest (Correct Answer)
B. Bronchoalveolar lavage
C. Mycobacterial sputum culture
D. Sweat chloride test
E. Pulmonary function tests
Explanation: ***High-resolution CT scan of the chest***
- **HRCT of the chest** is the most appropriate imaging modality for diagnosing and characterizing interstitial lung diseases (ILDs) due to its ability to visualize subtle parenchymal abnormalities.
- It can identify specific patterns such as **ground-glass opacities, reticular opacities, honeycombing, and traction bronchiectasis**, which are crucial for differential diagnosis and assessing disease severity.
*Bronchoalveolar lavage*
- **Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)** is a diagnostic procedure used to sample cells and fluids from the airways and alveoli, which can help in diagnosing certain ILDs by analyzing cell counts and differentials.
- While BAL can provide supportive evidence, it is typically not sufficient on its own to confirm an ILD diagnosis and is often used in conjunction with imaging and sometimes biopsy.
*Mycobacterial sputum culture*
- **Mycobacterial sputum culture** is performed to diagnose tuberculosis or other mycobacterial infections, which can sometimes present with symptoms mimicking ILD.
- It is specifically used to identify infectious causes and is not a general diagnostic tool for the broad spectrum of non-infectious interstitial lung diseases.
*Sweat chloride test*
- The **sweat chloride test** is the gold standard for diagnosing **cystic fibrosis**, a genetic disorder that primarily affects the lungs and digestive system.
- While cystic fibrosis can cause lung disease, it is not a direct diagnostic test for the general category of interstitial lung diseases.
*Pulmonary function tests*
- **Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)** measure lung volumes, capacities, and flow rates (e.g., FVC, FEV1, DLCO) and are essential for assessing the physiological impact of ILD and monitoring disease progression.
- PFTs show a **restrictive pattern** in ILDs, but they are not specific enough to confirm a diagnosis; they indicate the presence of lung impairment rather than its specific cause.
Question 120: A 74-year-old Hispanic man comes to the physician because of a three-week history of dizziness upon standing and a brief loss of consciousness one hour ago. The patient suddenly collapsed on his way to the bathroom after waking up in the morning. He did not sustain any injuries from his collapse. He has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and gout. The patient's mother died of a grand mal seizure at the age of 53 years. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 55 years. He drinks three beers and two glasses of whiskey daily. Current medications include ranitidine, dutasteride, tamsulosin, and allopurinol. He is 166 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 62 kg (137 lb); BMI is 22.5 kg/m2. He appears pale. Temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F), pulse is 83/min, and blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg supine and 100/70 mm Hg one minute after standing with no change in pulse rate. Physical examination shows conjunctival pallor. A plopping sound is heard on auscultation, immediately followed by a low-pitched, rumbling mid-diastolic murmur heard best at the apex. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. An ECG shows regular sinus rhythm. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Drug-induced hypotension
B. Grand mal seizure
C. Aortic valve stenosis
D. Cardiac myxoma (Correct Answer)
E. Infective endocarditis
Explanation: ***Cardiac myxoma***
- The patient's syncopal episode with dizziness upon standing, **conjunctival pallor**, and the characteristic **"tumor plop" sound** followed by a mid-diastolic rumbling murmur are highly suggestive of **left atrial myxoma**.
- Myxomas can cause intermittent obstruction of the mitral valve orifice, leading to positional syncope, and can produce **constitutional symptoms** including anemia (from IL-6 production causing anemia of chronic disease), fever, and weight loss.
- The **tumor plop** occurs when the pedunculated mass prolapses through the mitral valve during diastole.
*Drug-induced hypotension*
- While **tamsulosin** can cause orthostatic hypotension, the patient's blood pressure drop is relatively mild (25/10 mm Hg) and not accompanied by a compensatory increase in heart rate.
- The presence of a **cardiac murmur** and "tumor plop" points away from simple drug-induced hypotension as the primary cause.
*Grand mal seizure*
- The patient's mother had a grand mal seizure, and syncope can sometimes be confused with seizures, but the absence of post-ictal confusion, tonic-clonic movements, or sustained loss of consciousness makes a seizure unlikely.
- The **cardiac physical exam findings** (plopping sound, murmur) are not consistent with a seizure.
*Aortic valve stenosis*
- Aortic stenosis typically presents with a **systolic ejection murmur** heard best at the right upper sternal border, often radiating to the carotids.
- The patient's murmur is described as **mid-diastolic** and heard best at the apex, which is inconsistent with aortic stenosis.
*Infective endocarditis*
- Infective endocarditis usually presents with **fever**, new or changing murmurs, and signs of systemic embolization or immune phenomena, none of which are prominently described here.
- While it can cause murmurs, the specific **"tumor plop"** and rumbling mid-diastolic murmur from an obstructing mass are not typical for endocarditis.