A 45-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for complaints of dizziness. The patient reports he experiences room-spinning dizziness lasting several hours at a time, approximately 2-3 times a month, starting 3 months ago. Upon questioning, the patient also reports right sided diminished hearing, tinnitus, and a sensation of ear fullness. His temperature is 99 deg F (37.2 deg C), pulse 70/min, respirations 12, blood pressure 130 mmHg/85 mmHg, SpO2 99%. You decide to order an audiometric evaluation. What is the most likely finding of the audiogram?
Q1082
A 32-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination 1 week after being admitted to the hospital for oral candidiasis and esophagitis. His CD4+ T lymphocyte count is 180 cells/μL. An HIV antibody test is positive. Genotypic resistance assay shows the virus to be susceptible to all antiretroviral therapy regimens and therapy with dolutegravir, tenofovir, and emtricitabine is initiated. Which of the following sets of laboratory findings would be most likely on follow-up evaluation 3 months later?
$$$ CD4 +/CD8 ratio %%% HIV RNA %%% HIV antibody test $$$
Q1083
A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of involuntary, rhythmic movements of her hands for the past 5 months. Her symptoms initially affected her left hand only, but now both hands are affected. She also reports that her symptoms are worse at rest and that performing tasks such as tying her shoelaces and writing have become more difficult. Her husband thinks that she has been more withdrawn lately. She used to drink a half a bottle of sherry every day for the past 18 years but has not consumed alcohol in the past year. She has chronic liver disease, hypertension, and peripheral artery disease. Current medications include aspirin and propanolol. She appears anxious. She is oriented to time, place, and person. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 144/82 mm Hg. Examination shows a rhythmic, low-frequency tremor that is more prominent in the left hand. Range of motion in the arms and legs is normal. Increased resistance to passive flexion and extension is present in the left upper limb. Muscle strength is 4/5 in all limbs. Sensations to pinprick and light touch are preserved. The finger-to-nose test is normal bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q1084
A 68-year-old Caucasian male complains of severe headache and pain while chewing. Upon examination, he is found to have a left visual field deficit. Laboratory results show elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Which of the following drugs would be the best choice for treatment of this patient?
Q1085
A 76-year-old male with a history of chronic uncontrolled hypertension presents to the emergency room following an episode of syncope. He reports that he felt lightheaded and experienced chest pain while walking his dog earlier in the morning. He notes that he has experienced multiple similar episodes over the past year. A trans-esophageal echocardiogram demonstrates a thickened, calcified aortic valve with left ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the following heart sounds would likely be heard on auscultation of this patient?
Q1086
A 21-year-old Cambodian patient with a history of rheumatic heart disease presents to his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He reports being compliant with monthly penicillin G injections since being diagnosed with rheumatic fever at age 15. He denies any major side effects from the treatment, except for the inconvenience of organizing transportation to a physician's office every month. On exam, the patient is found to have a loud first heart sound and a mid-diastolic rumble that is best heard at the apex. Which of the following is the next best step?
Q1087
A 30-year-old patient comes to the emergency room with a chief complaint of left chest pain and a productive cough with purulent sputum for 1 week. He also complains of shortness of breath. He said he had been previously diagnosed with influenza but did not follow the doctor’s instructions. His vitals include: heart rate 70/min, respiratory rate 22/min, temperature 38.7°C (101.7°F), blood pressure 120/60 mm Hg, and SO2 80%. His hemogram and chest X-ray findings are as follows:
Hemoglobin 14 mg/dL
Hematocrit 45%
Leukocyte count 12,000/mm3
Neutrophils 82%
Lymphocytes 15%
Monocytes 3%
Platelet count 270,000/mm3
Chest X-ray alveolar infiltrates in the left base with air bronchograms
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q1088
A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of worsening fatigue and shortness of breath. Her symptoms began 8 months ago and have progressively worsened since then. She had recurrent episodes of joint pain and fever during childhood. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She emigrated from the Congo with her parents when she was 12 years old. Her temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 90/min and regular, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. There is an opening snap followed by a diastolic murmur at the fifth left intercostal space in the midclavicular line. If left untreated, this patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
Q1089
A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with confusion. The patient’s wife states that her husband has become more somnolent over the past several days and now is very confused. The patient has no complaints himself, but is answering questions inappropriately. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes and hypertension. His temperature is 98.3°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 127/85 mmHg, pulse is 138/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a confused man with dry mucous membranes. Initial laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 3.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
BUN: 30 mg/dL
Glucose: 1,299 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Q1090
A 55-year-old man presents for physical and preventive health screening, specifically for prostate cancer. He has not been to the doctor in a long time. Past medical history is significant for hypertension that is well-managed. Current medication is hydrochlorothiazide. He has one uncle who died of prostate cancer. He drinks one or two alcoholic drinks on the weekends and does not smoke. Today his temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 125/75 mm Hg, pulse is 82/min, respiratory rate is 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. There are no significant findings on physical examination. Which of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation for prostate cancer screening in this patient?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: A 45-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for complaints of dizziness. The patient reports he experiences room-spinning dizziness lasting several hours at a time, approximately 2-3 times a month, starting 3 months ago. Upon questioning, the patient also reports right sided diminished hearing, tinnitus, and a sensation of ear fullness. His temperature is 99 deg F (37.2 deg C), pulse 70/min, respirations 12, blood pressure 130 mmHg/85 mmHg, SpO2 99%. You decide to order an audiometric evaluation. What is the most likely finding of the audiogram?
A. Low frequency sensorineural hearing loss (Correct Answer)
B. Normal audiogram
C. High frequency conductive hearing loss
D. High frequency sensorineural hearing loss
E. Low frequency conductive hearing loss
Explanation: ***Low frequency sensorineural hearing loss***
- The constellation of **episodic vertigo**, **tinnitus**, **aural fullness**, and **fluctuating hearing loss** is classic for **Ménière's disease**.
- In Ménière's disease, the characteristic audiogram finding is a **sensorineural hearing loss** that predominantly affects the **low frequencies**.
*Normal audiogram*
- A normal audiogram would not explain the patient's reported symptoms of **diminished hearing** and **tinnitus**.
- These symptoms indicate an underlying auditory dysfunction, which a normal audiogram would rule out.
*High frequency conductive hearing loss*
- **Conductive hearing loss** indicates an issue with sound transmission through the outer or middle ear (e.g., **otosclerosis**, **cerumen impaction**).
- The reported symptoms and the characteristic low-frequency involvement in Ménière's disease do not align with high-frequency conductive hearing loss.
*High frequency sensorineural hearing loss*
- While sensorineural hearing loss is correct, **high-frequency loss** is more typical of **presbycusis** (age-related hearing loss) or **noise-induced hearing loss**.
- Ménière's disease characteristically affects the **low frequencies** initially.
*Low frequency conductive hearing loss*
- **Conductive hearing loss** implies a problem in the outer or middle ear, which is not consistent with the pathology of **Ménière's disease** (endolymphatic hydrops affecting the inner ear).
- While the frequency range is correct, the type of hearing loss (conductive vs. sensorineural) is incorrect for Ménière's disease.
Question 1082: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination 1 week after being admitted to the hospital for oral candidiasis and esophagitis. His CD4+ T lymphocyte count is 180 cells/μL. An HIV antibody test is positive. Genotypic resistance assay shows the virus to be susceptible to all antiretroviral therapy regimens and therapy with dolutegravir, tenofovir, and emtricitabine is initiated. Which of the following sets of laboratory findings would be most likely on follow-up evaluation 3 months later?
$$$ CD4 +/CD8 ratio %%% HIV RNA %%% HIV antibody test $$$
A. ↓ ↓ negative
B. ↑ ↑ negative
C. ↓ ↑ negative
D. ↑ ↓ positive (Correct Answer)
E. ↓ ↑ positive
Explanation: ***↑ ↓ positive***
- With effective **antiretroviral therapy (ART)**, the **CD4+/CD8 ratio** would increase as **CD4+ T cell counts rise** and **CD8+ T cell counts decrease**.
- **HIV RNA (viral load)** would significantly decrease (ideally to undetectable levels) due to the suppression of viral replication, but HIV antibodies would remain positive indefinitely.
*↓ ↓ negative*
- A decrease in the **CD4+/CD8 ratio** and **HIV RNA** (viral load) along with a negative **HIV antibody test** is inconsistent with successful ART.
- A negative HIV antibody test would mean the patient was never infected, which contradicts the initial positive result and symptoms.
*↑ ↑ negative*
- An increase in the **CD4+/CD8 ratio** is expected with ART, but an increase in **HIV RNA** (viral load) indicates treatment failure.
- A negative **HIV antibody test** is impossible after a confirmed positive result, regardless of treatment success.
*↓ ↑ negative*
- A decrease in the **CD4+/CD8 ratio** would suggest worsening immune function, while an increase in **HIV RNA** indicates treatment failure.
- A negative **HIV antibody test** is not possible once a patient has developed antibodies to HIV.
*↓ ↑ positive*
- A decrease in the **CD4+/CD8 ratio** would indicate immune decline, contrary to the expected improvement with effective ART.
- An increase in **HIV RNA (viral load)** would signify treatment failure, even if HIV antibodies remain positive.
Question 1083: A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of involuntary, rhythmic movements of her hands for the past 5 months. Her symptoms initially affected her left hand only, but now both hands are affected. She also reports that her symptoms are worse at rest and that performing tasks such as tying her shoelaces and writing have become more difficult. Her husband thinks that she has been more withdrawn lately. She used to drink a half a bottle of sherry every day for the past 18 years but has not consumed alcohol in the past year. She has chronic liver disease, hypertension, and peripheral artery disease. Current medications include aspirin and propanolol. She appears anxious. She is oriented to time, place, and person. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 144/82 mm Hg. Examination shows a rhythmic, low-frequency tremor that is more prominent in the left hand. Range of motion in the arms and legs is normal. Increased resistance to passive flexion and extension is present in the left upper limb. Muscle strength is 4/5 in all limbs. Sensations to pinprick and light touch are preserved. The finger-to-nose test is normal bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Cerebellar infarction
B. Copper accumulation in the basal ganglia
C. Increased serum free T4 levels
D. Infarction of the red nucleus
E. Degeneration of the substantia nigra (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Degeneration of the substantia nigra***
- The patient's symptoms, including a **rhythmic, low-frequency tremor** at rest, worsening with activity, and increased resistance to passive movement (**rigidity**) in the left upper limb, are highly characteristic of **Parkinson's disease**, which is caused by the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the **substantia nigra**.
- The asymmetric onset (left hand initially), progression to both hands, and difficulties with fine motor tasks like tying shoelaces and writing further support this diagnosis.
*Cerebellar infarction*
- A cerebellar infarction would typically cause **ataxia**, intention tremor (tremor worse with movement), dysmetria, and nystagmus, which are not described as the primary symptoms here.
- The patient's **finger-to-nose test is normal**, which argues against significant cerebellar dysfunction.
*Copper accumulation in the basal ganglia*
- This condition, known as **Wilson's disease**, typically presents at a younger age and involves hepatic, neurologic, and psychiatric symptoms, including tremor, dystonia, and neuropsychiatric changes. However, the tremor in Wilson's disease is often a **wing-beating tremor** or postural/action tremor, distinct from the rest tremor seen here.
- While the patient has chronic liver disease, there's no mention of Kayser-Fleischer rings or other specific findings of Wilson's disease, and the described tremor strongly points to Parkinsonism.
*Increased serum free T4 levels*
- Increased serum free T4 levels (hyperthyroidism) can cause a **fine, rapid postural tremor** and other symptoms like weight loss, palpitations, and anxiety.
- Her tremor is described as low-frequency and prominent at rest, which is not typical for hyperthyroidism.
*Infarction of the red nucleus*
- Infarction of the red nucleus, or damage to its pathways, can cause a **rubral tremor** (also known as midbrain tremor or Holmes tremor), which is a combination of rest, postural, and kinetic tremor, often large amplitude and irregular.
- While a possibility for tremor, a rubral tremor typically doesn't present with the classic rigidity and bradykinesia (implied by difficulty with fine tasks) seen in Parkinson's disease, and the other features strongly point to substantia nigra degeneration.
Question 1084: A 68-year-old Caucasian male complains of severe headache and pain while chewing. Upon examination, he is found to have a left visual field deficit. Laboratory results show elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Which of the following drugs would be the best choice for treatment of this patient?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Prednisone (Correct Answer)
C. Propranolol
D. Sumatriptan
E. Clopidogrel
Explanation: ***Prednisone***
- This patient's symptoms (severe headache, jaw claudication, visual deficit, elevated ESR) are highly suggestive of **giant cell arteritis (GCA)**, a medical emergency.
- **High-dose systemic corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone)** are the cornerstone of treatment for GCA to prevent irreversible vision loss.
*Pilocarpine*
- **Pilocarpine** is a parasympathomimetic used primarily for glaucoma and dry mouth.
- It has no role in the treatment of giant cell arteritis or its associated symptoms.
*Propranolol*
- **Propranolol** is a non-selective beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension, angina, and migraine prophylaxis.
- It would not address the underlying inflammatory process of giant cell arteritis or prevent its major complications.
*Sumatriptan*
- **Sumatriptan** is a triptan medication used specifically for acute migraine and cluster headache relief.
- It is ineffective for headaches caused by inflammatory vasculitis like giant cell arteritis.
*Clopidogrel*
- **Clopidogrel** is an antiplatelet agent used to prevent thrombotic events in cardiovascular disease.
- While GCA can lead to thrombotic complications, antiplatelet therapy is secondary to corticosteroids and does not treat the acute inflammation or vision loss directly.
Question 1085: A 76-year-old male with a history of chronic uncontrolled hypertension presents to the emergency room following an episode of syncope. He reports that he felt lightheaded and experienced chest pain while walking his dog earlier in the morning. He notes that he has experienced multiple similar episodes over the past year. A trans-esophageal echocardiogram demonstrates a thickened, calcified aortic valve with left ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the following heart sounds would likely be heard on auscultation of this patient?
A. Crescendo-decrescendo murmur radiating to the carotids that is loudest at the right upper sternal border (Correct Answer)
B. Diastolic rumble following an opening snap with an accentuated S1
C. Early diastolic high-pitched blowing decrescendo murmur that is loudest at the left sternal border
D. Holosystolic murmur radiating to the axilla that is loudest at the apex
E. Midsystolic click that is loudest at the apex
Explanation: ***Crescendo-decrescendo murmur radiating to the carotids that is loudest at the right upper sternal border***
- The patient's symptoms of **syncope**, **chest pain**, and findings of a **thickened, calcified aortic valve** with **left ventricular hypertrophy** are classic for **aortic stenosis**.
- Aortic stenosis classically presents with a **systolic ejecting crescendo-decrescendo murmur** which is loudest at the **right upper sternal border**, and often **radiates to the carotids**.
*Diastolic rumble following an opening snap with an accentuated S1*
- This description is characteristic of **mitral stenosis**, which is typically caused by **rheumatic fever**.
- Mitral stenosis would present with dyspnea and fatigue, unlike the syncope and chest pain seen in this patient.
*Early diastolic high-pitched blowing decrescendo murmur that is loudest at the left sternal border*
- This murmur describes **aortic regurgitation**, where blood flows back into the left ventricle during diastole.
- While aortic regurgitation can cause heart failure symptoms, the echocardiogram shows a thickened, calcified valve more consistent with stenosis.
*Midsystolic click that is most prominent that is loudest at the apex*
- A **midsystolic click** followed by a **late systolic murmur** is characteristic of **mitral valve prolapse**.
- Symptoms of mitral valve prolapse can include atypical chest pain and palpitations, but not generally exertional syncope or the severe structural changes seen in the aortic valve.
*Holosystolic murmur radiating to the axilla that is loudest at the apex*
- This is the classic description of **mitral regurgitation**, indicating blood flow back into the left atrium during systole.
- Mitral regurgitation is associated with symptoms of heart failure and fatigue, but not usually the anginal chest pain and syncope in a patient with a calcified aortic valve.
Question 1086: A 21-year-old Cambodian patient with a history of rheumatic heart disease presents to his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He reports being compliant with monthly penicillin G injections since being diagnosed with rheumatic fever at age 15. He denies any major side effects from the treatment, except for the inconvenience of organizing transportation to a physician's office every month. On exam, the patient is found to have a loud first heart sound and a mid-diastolic rumble that is best heard at the apex. Which of the following is the next best step?
A. Switch to intramuscular cefotaxime, which has fewer side effects
B. Continue intramuscular penicillin therapy (Correct Answer)
C. Stop penicillin therapy
D. Stop penicillin therapy in 4 years
E. Decrease frequency of injections to bimonthly
Explanation: ***Continue intramuscular penicillin therapy***
- This patient has a history of **rheumatic heart disease** and is showing signs of **mitral stenosis** (loud S1, mid-diastolic rumble at the apex), indicating previous rheumatic fever and the effectiveness of current prophylaxis.
- Continuing prophylaxis is crucial to prevent further episodes of **rheumatic fever** and progression of cardiac damage, especially in regions with endemic rheumatic fever.
*Switch to intramuscular cefotaxime, which has fewer side effects*
- **Cefotaxime** is a third-generation cephalosporin and is not typically used for rheumatic fever prophylaxis, nor is it proven to have significantly fewer side effects in this context.
- **Penicillin G** is the gold standard for preventing recurrent rheumatic fever due to its proven efficacy and low cost.
*Stop penicillin therapy*
- Stopping prophylaxis would put the patient at high risk for **recurrent rheumatic fever** and worsening of their established **rheumatic heart disease**, which can lead to severe cardiac complications.
- The patient's current heart sounds suggest ongoing valvular disease, making continued prevention of exacerbations critical.
*Stop penicillin therapy in 4 years*
- The duration of **rheumatic fever prophylaxis** is determined by the patient's age and the presence of **rheumatic heart disease**. For patients with documented rheumatic heart disease, prophylaxis often continues for much longer periods, often until age 40 or even lifelong.
- Stopping at "4 years" from age 21 (i.e., at age 25) is too early for a patient with established rheumatic heart disease.
*Decrease frequency of injections to bimonthly*
- Monthly intramuscular **penicillin G** is the standard and most effective regimen for secondary prophylaxis of rheumatic fever.
- Decreasing the frequency would reduce the drug's therapeutic levels and significantly increase the risk of breakthrough streptococcal infections and subsequent episodes of **rheumatic fever**.
Question 1087: A 30-year-old patient comes to the emergency room with a chief complaint of left chest pain and a productive cough with purulent sputum for 1 week. He also complains of shortness of breath. He said he had been previously diagnosed with influenza but did not follow the doctor’s instructions. His vitals include: heart rate 70/min, respiratory rate 22/min, temperature 38.7°C (101.7°F), blood pressure 120/60 mm Hg, and SO2 80%. His hemogram and chest X-ray findings are as follows:
Hemoglobin 14 mg/dL
Hematocrit 45%
Leukocyte count 12,000/mm3
Neutrophils 82%
Lymphocytes 15%
Monocytes 3%
Platelet count 270,000/mm3
Chest X-ray alveolar infiltrates in the left base with air bronchograms
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Pneumonia (Correct Answer)
C. Tuberculosis
D. Lung cancer
E. Sarcoidosis
Explanation: ***Pneumonia***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of **pneumonia**, including **chest pain**, **productive cough** with purulent sputum, and **shortness of breath**, along with **fever** and **hypoxia (SO2 80%)**.
- The elevated **leukocyte count** with **neutrophil predominance** and the chest X-ray showing **alveolar infiltrates** with **air bronchograms** are highly consistent with bacterial pneumonia.
*Histoplasmosis*
- This is a **fungal infection** typically seen in immunocompromised individuals or those with exposure to **bird/bat droppings**.
- While it can cause pulmonary symptoms, the acute presentation with purulent sputum and marked neutrophilic leukocytosis points away from a primary fungal infection in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old.
*Tuberculosis*
- While TB can cause cough and chest pain, it usually presents with a **chronic cough**, **night sweats**, and **weight loss**, and the sputum may be bloody rather than purulent.
- The chest X-ray findings of alveolar infiltrates with air bronchograms are more characteristic of acute bacterial pneumonia than the typical cavitary lesions or miliary pattern of TB.
*Lung cancer*
- Lung cancer typically presents with a more **chronic cough**, **hemoptysis**, weight loss, and fatigue, rather than an acute febrile illness with purulent sputum.
- While it can cause lung infiltrates, the acute inflammatory markers and clinical picture do not fit lung cancer as the primary diagnosis.
*Sarcoidosis*
- Sarcoidosis is a systemic **granulomatous disease** that often affects the lungs and lymph nodes, presenting with **non-caseating granulomas**.
- It usually presents with **insidious onset** of cough, dyspnea, and fatigue, and chest X-rays often show **hilar lymphadenopathy** or interstitial infiltrates, not the acute alveolar infiltrates seen here.
Question 1088: A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of worsening fatigue and shortness of breath. Her symptoms began 8 months ago and have progressively worsened since then. She had recurrent episodes of joint pain and fever during childhood. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She emigrated from the Congo with her parents when she was 12 years old. Her temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 90/min and regular, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. There is an opening snap followed by a diastolic murmur at the fifth left intercostal space in the midclavicular line. If left untreated, this patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Systemic thromboembolism
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Right heart failure
E. Atrial fibrillation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Atrial fibrillation***
- The patient's history of **recurrent joint pain and fever in childhood**, originating from the Congo, points towards a diagnosis of **rheumatic heart disease** causing **mitral stenosis**.
- **Mitral stenosis** leads to increased left atrial pressure and dilation, which are significant risk factors for developing **atrial fibrillation**. The presence of an **opening snap and diastolic murmur** further supports mitral stenosis.
*Pulmonary edema*
- While **pulmonary edema** can be a complication of severe **mitral stenosis** due to increased left atrial pressure and elevated pulmonary venous pressures, it is often precipitated by an acute event or occurs later in the disease course.
- **Atrial fibrillation** significantly exacerbates intra-atrial pressures and worsens symptoms, often preceding or coexisting with pulmonary edema, making it a more immediate and common long-term risk.
*Systemic thromboembolism*
- **Systemic thromboembolism** is a serious complication of untreated **mitral stenosis**, particularly when complicated by **atrial fibrillation**, due to stasis of blood in the dilated left atrium.
- However, the primary mechanism leading to an increased risk of thromboembolism in this context is the development of **atrial fibrillation**, which sets the stage for clot formation.
*Pulmonary hypertension*
- **Pulmonary hypertension** is a common consequence of chronic **mitral stenosis** as elevated left atrial pressures are transmitted to the pulmonary vasculature.
- While a severe complication that contributes to symptoms like shortness of breath, **atrial fibrillation** is a critical arrhythmia that can both worsen pulmonary hypertension and lead to other life-threatening complications.
*Right heart failure*
- **Right heart failure** eventually develops in severe, long-standing **mitral stenosis** due to sustained **pulmonary hypertension**, which increases the afterload on the right ventricle.
- While it represents an advanced stage of the disease, **atrial fibrillation** is a more immediate and common rhythm disturbance that contributes to the hemodynamic compromise and often predates overt right heart failure.
Question 1089: A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with confusion. The patient’s wife states that her husband has become more somnolent over the past several days and now is very confused. The patient has no complaints himself, but is answering questions inappropriately. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes and hypertension. His temperature is 98.3°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 127/85 mmHg, pulse is 138/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a confused man with dry mucous membranes. Initial laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 3.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
BUN: 30 mg/dL
Glucose: 1,299 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
A. Insulin, normal saline, and potassium (Correct Answer)
B. Normal saline and potassium
C. Insulin and potassium
D. Insulin
E. Insulin and normal saline
Explanation: ***Insulin, normal saline, and potassium***
- This patient is presenting with **hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)**, characterized by severe hyperglycemia (glucose 1299 mg/dL), dehydration (dry mucous membranes, high BUN and creatinine), and altered mental status. The initial treatment involves intravenous fluids to correct dehydration, insulin to lower blood glucose, and potassium supplementation due to potential shifts as insulin is administered.
- **Normal saline** addresses the severe dehydration, **insulin** corrects hyperglycemia, and **potassium supplementation** prevents hypokalemia, which is common during HHS treatment as glucose and potassium shift intracellularly.
*Normal saline and potassium*
- While **normal saline** and **potassium** are crucial for rehydration and electrolyte balance, omitting **insulin** would fail to address the core problem of severe hyperglycemia in HHS.
- Without insulin, blood glucose levels will remain dangerously high, leading to persistent osmotic diuresis and worsening dehydration.
*Insulin and potassium*
- Administering **insulin** without addressing the profound **dehydration** with intravenous fluids can lead to **hypovolemic shock** as insulin further drives glucose and water into cells.
- Rehydration is the priority in HHS management before or concurrent with insulin administration.
*Insulin*
- Giving only **insulin** would be detrimental, as the patient is severely dehydrated and hypokalemic (K+ 3.0 mEq/L, and will drop further with insulin).
- This approach would exacerbate dehydration and could cause life-threatening arrhythmias due to severe hypokalemia.
*Insulin and normal saline*
- While addressing hyperglycemia and dehydration, omitting **potassium supplementation** is dangerous because insulin drives potassium into cells, potentially causing severe **hypokalemia** and cardiac arrhythmias.
- The patient already has a low-normal potassium level, which will likely drop further with insulin treatment.
Question 1090: A 55-year-old man presents for physical and preventive health screening, specifically for prostate cancer. He has not been to the doctor in a long time. Past medical history is significant for hypertension that is well-managed. Current medication is hydrochlorothiazide. He has one uncle who died of prostate cancer. He drinks one or two alcoholic drinks on the weekends and does not smoke. Today his temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 125/75 mm Hg, pulse is 82/min, respiratory rate is 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. There are no significant findings on physical examination. Which of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation for prostate cancer screening in this patient?
A. Contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis
B. Serum PSA level (Correct Answer)
C. Digital rectal examination
D. No screening indicated at this time
E. Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)
Explanation: ***Serum PSA level***
- This patient is 55 years old and has a family history of prostate cancer (uncle), placing him at **average to increased risk** for prostate cancer.
- **Serum PSA (prostate-specific antigen) testing** is the primary screening tool for prostate cancer, often combined with shared decision-making with the patient.
*Contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis*
- A CT scan is not a primary screening tool for prostate cancer but is used for **staging** once cancer is diagnosed or to investigate specific symptoms.
- It involves **radiation exposure** and **contrast dye risks** which are not justified for routine screening in an asymptomatic patient.
*Digital rectal examination*
- While DRE can detect prostate abnormalities, it has a **lower sensitivity and specificity** as a stand-alone screening test compared to PSA.
- Current guidelines often recommend DRE in conjunction with PSA, but **PSA remains the initial and most important screening test**.
*No screening indicated at this time*
- The patient's age (55) and family history (uncle with prostate cancer) warrant discussion about prostate cancer screening.
- The **American Cancer Society (ACS)** recommends starting discussions about screening at age 50 for average-risk men, and earlier for those with risk factors.
*Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)*
- TRUS is not a screening test but is typically used to **guide prostate biopsies** if PSA levels are elevated or a DRE is abnormal.
- It is an **invasive procedure** and not appropriate for initial prostate cancer screening in asymptomatic individuals.