Five days after admission into the ICU for drug-induced acute kidney injury, a 27-year-old woman develops fever. She is currently on a ventilator and sedatives. Hemodialysis is performed via a catheter placed in the right internal jugular vein. Feeding is via a nasogastric tube. An indwelling urinary catheter shows minimum output. Her blood pressure is 85/45 mm Hg, the pulse is 112/min, the respirations are 32/min, and the temperature is 39.6°C (103.3°F). The examination of the central catheter shows erythema around the insertion site with no discharge. Lung auscultation shows rhonchi. Cardiac examination shows no new findings. A chest CT scan shows bilateral pleural effusions with no lung infiltration. Empirical antibiotic therapy is initiated. Blood cultures obtained from peripheral blood and the catheter tip show S. aureus with a similar antibiogram. Urinary culture obtained from the indwelling catheter shows polymicrobial growth. Which of the following best explains this patient’s recent findings?
Q1072
Six days after undergoing a left hemicolectomy for colorectal carcinoma, a 59-year-old man collapses in the hospital hallway and is unconscious for 30 seconds. Afterwards, he complains of shortness of breath and chest pain with deep inhalation. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years but quit prior to admission to the hospital. He does not drink alcohol. He is in distress and appears ill. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, and pulse is 135/min and weak. Oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Physical examination shows elevated jugular venous distention. Cardiac examination shows a regular, rapid heart rate and a holosystolic murmur that increases during inspiration. His abdomen is soft and mildly tender to palpation around the surgical site. Examination of his extremities shows pitting edema of the left leg. His skin is cold and clammy. Further examination is most likely to reveal which of the following findings?
Q1073
A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of excessive daytime sleepiness. He explains that this problem has worsened slowly over the past few years but is now interfering with his ability to play with his grandchildren. He worked previously as an overnight train conductor, but he has been retired for the past 3 years. He sleeps approximately 8-9 hours per night and believes his sleep quality is good; however, his wife notes that he often snores loudly during sleep. He has never experienced muscle weakness or hallucinations. He has also been experiencing headaches in the morning and endorses a depressed mood. His physical exam is most notable for his large body habitus, with a BMI of 34. What is the best description of the underlying mechanism for this patient's excessive daytime sleepiness?
Q1074
A 48-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with complaints of persistent fatigue, dizziness, and weight loss for the past 3 months. She has a history of hypothyroidism and takes thyroxine replacement. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg in a supine position and 65/40 mm Hg while sitting, temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), and pulse is 75/min. On physical examination, there is a mild increase in thyroid size, with a rubbery consistency. Her skin shows diffuse hyperpigmentation, more pronounced in the oral mucosa and palmar creases. Which of the following best represent the etiology of this patient’s condition?
Q1075
A 71-year-old African American man is brought to the emergency department with a worsening productive cough and dyspnea for 2 days. He has had generalized bone pain for 2 months. He was admitted for pyelonephritis last month. He also received outpatient treatment for pneumonia almost 2 months ago. Over the past 2 months, he has been taking over-the-counter ibuprofen for pain as needed. He appears anxious. The vital signs include: temperature 38.8°C (101.8°F), pulse 95/min, respiratory rate 20/min, and blood pressure 155/90 mm Hg. The conjunctivae are pale. Crackles are heard in the right lower lobe. The cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. The laboratory studies show the following:
Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 95 μm3
Leukocyte count 13,500/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 75%
Lymphocytes 25%
Platelet count 240,000/mm3
ESR 85 mm/hr
Serum
Na+ 135 mEq/L
K+ 4.2 mEq/L
Cl− 113 mEq/L
HCO3− 20 mEq/L
Ca+ 12.4 mg/dL
Albumin 4 g/dL
Urea nitrogen 38 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.2 mg/dL
A chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe opacity and blurring of the ipsilateral diaphragmatic dome. Skull and pelvic X-rays are performed (see image). Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient’s recent infections?
Q1076
A 23-year-old woman presents with ongoing diplopia for 1 week. She has noticed that her diplopia is more prominent when she looks at objects in her periphery. It does not present when looking straight ahead. She does not have a fever, headache, ocular pain, lacrimation, blurring of vision, or changes in her color vision. She is a college student and is otherwise healthy. The neurological examination reveals that when she looks to the left, her right eye does not adduct while her left eye abducts with nystagmus. Furthermore, when she looks to the right, her left eye does not adduct while her right eye abducts with prominent nystagmus. Her pupils are bilateral, equal and reactive to light and accommodation. The convergence is normal. The rest of the cranial nerve examination is unremarkable. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q1077
A 65-year-old man with hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department 20 minutes after the onset of severe anterior chest pain and shortness of breath. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 30 years. He appears distressed. His pulse is 116/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 156/88 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 98%. A grade 3/6, high-pitched, blowing, diastolic murmur is heard over the right upper sternal border. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q1078
A 39-year-old woman presents with progressive weakness, exercise intolerance, and occasional dizziness for the past 3 months. Past medical history is unremarkable. She reports an 18-pack-year smoking history and drinks alcohol rarely. Her vital signs include: temperature 36.6°C (97.8°F), blood pressure 139/82 mm Hg, pulse 98/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Her laboratory results are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Erythrocyte count 2.1 million/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 88 μm3
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) 32 pg/cell
Leukocyte count 7,500/mm3
Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient’s condition?
Q1079
A 45-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fatigue, irregular menses, and recurrent respiratory infections for the past 6 months. Her blood pressure is 151/82 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a round face, thinning of the skin, and multiple bruises on her arms. Further studies confirm the diagnosis of an ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following?
Q1080
A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 3-week history of intermittent swelling of his left arm and feeling of fullness in his head that is exacerbated by lying down and bending over to tie his shoes. Physical examination shows left-sided facial edema and distention of superficial veins in the neck and left chest wall. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1071: Five days after admission into the ICU for drug-induced acute kidney injury, a 27-year-old woman develops fever. She is currently on a ventilator and sedatives. Hemodialysis is performed via a catheter placed in the right internal jugular vein. Feeding is via a nasogastric tube. An indwelling urinary catheter shows minimum output. Her blood pressure is 85/45 mm Hg, the pulse is 112/min, the respirations are 32/min, and the temperature is 39.6°C (103.3°F). The examination of the central catheter shows erythema around the insertion site with no discharge. Lung auscultation shows rhonchi. Cardiac examination shows no new findings. A chest CT scan shows bilateral pleural effusions with no lung infiltration. Empirical antibiotic therapy is initiated. Blood cultures obtained from peripheral blood and the catheter tip show S. aureus with a similar antibiogram. Urinary culture obtained from the indwelling catheter shows polymicrobial growth. Which of the following best explains this patient’s recent findings?
A. Catheter-associated urinary tract infection
B. Central catheter-related bacteremia (Correct Answer)
C. Endocarditis
D. Ventilator-associated pneumonia
E. Naso-gastric tube sinusitis
Explanation: ***Central catheter-related bacteremia***
- The presence of **erythema at the catheter insertion site** and the isolation of **_S. aureus_ with a similar antibiogram from both peripheral blood and the catheter tip** are highly indicative of a catheter-related bloodstream infection.
- This type of infection is common in critically ill patients with central venous catheters due to the direct access provided for bacteria to enter the bloodstream.
*Catheter-associated urinary tract infection*
- While a **polymicrobial growth** in the urinary culture suggests a urinary tract infection, the isolation of **_S. aureus_ in blood cultures** with signs of local catheter infection points away from the urinary tract as the primary source of bacteremia.
- The patient has an **indwelling urinary catheter**, which is a risk factor for UTIs, but the systemic infection with _S. aureus_ is better explained by the central line.
*Endocarditis*
- Although **_S. aureus_ bacteremia** can lead to endocarditis, the case states that the **cardiac examination shows no new findings**, making endocarditis less likely as the primary explanation for the acute deterioration without other supporting evidence like a new murmur or imaging findings.
- Endocarditis is a potential complication of bacteremia, not typically the initial source, especially with a clear source like a central line.
*Ventilator-associated pneumonia*
- Pulmonary symptoms like **rhonchi** and **bilateral pleural effusions** are present, but the **lack of lung infiltration on CT** and the **isolation of _S. aureus_ from blood and catheter tip** (not respiratory samples) make VAP unlikely to be the primary cause of this systemic infection.
- The patient is also on a ventilator, which is a risk factor for VAP, but the microbiologic and imaging evidence does not fully support it as the main diagnosis.
*Naso-gastric tube sinusitis*
- While nasogastric tubes can cause sinusitis, which could manifest with fever, it is less likely to result in **_S. aureus_ bacteremia with a positive catheter tip culture**.
- Sinusitis would explain fever, but not the specific microbiological findings of _S. aureus_ in blood and catheter tip, nor the local erythema at the catheter site.
Question 1072: Six days after undergoing a left hemicolectomy for colorectal carcinoma, a 59-year-old man collapses in the hospital hallway and is unconscious for 30 seconds. Afterwards, he complains of shortness of breath and chest pain with deep inhalation. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years but quit prior to admission to the hospital. He does not drink alcohol. He is in distress and appears ill. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, and pulse is 135/min and weak. Oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Physical examination shows elevated jugular venous distention. Cardiac examination shows a regular, rapid heart rate and a holosystolic murmur that increases during inspiration. His abdomen is soft and mildly tender to palpation around the surgical site. Examination of his extremities shows pitting edema of the left leg. His skin is cold and clammy. Further examination is most likely to reveal which of the following findings?
A. Reduced regional ventricular wall motion
B. Rapid, aberrant contractions of the atria
C. Stenosis of the carotid arteries
D. Dilated right ventricular cavity (Correct Answer)
E. Anechoic space between pericardium and epicardium
Explanation: ***Dilated right ventricular cavity***
- The patient's symptoms (shortness of breath, chest pain with deep inspiration, hypotension, tachycardia, hypoxemia, elevated JVD, holosystolic murmur increasing with inspiration, and leg edema) are highly suggestive of **acute pulmonary embolism (PE)**.
- An acute PE can lead to increased pulmonary vascular resistance and **acute right ventricular (RV) overload**, causing RV dilation and dysfunction, which is often visible on echocardiography.
*Reduced regional ventricular wall motion*
- This finding is characteristic of **myocardial ischemia or infarction**, which typically presents with anginal chest pain and ECG changes; in this case, the chest pain is pleuritic and the overall picture points away from ischemia.
- While PE can cause RV dysfunction, the primary finding is RV overload and dilation, not necessarily isolated regional wall motion abnormalities often seen in left ventricular ischemia.
*Rapid, aberrant contractions of the atria*
- This describes **atrial fibrillation** or **atrial flutter**, which can occur in critically ill patients but is not the most direct consequence or expected finding from an acute pulmonary embolism in a previously stable patient.
- While atrial arrhythmias can be precipitated by acute stress, they are not the primary direct consequence of massive PE explaining these specific cardiovascular findings.
*Stenosis of the carotid arteries*
- **Carotid artery stenosis** is a risk factor for stroke but does not explain the acute cardiopulmonary collapse, hypoxemia, chest pain, and signs of right heart strain presented in the clinical scenario.
- This finding is unrelated to the acute presentation of shortness of breath, chest pain, and hemodynamic instability following surgery.
*Anechoic space between pericardium and epicardium*
- This finding represents a **pericardial effusion**, which can lead to cardiac tamponade if large and rapid in onset, but the associated holosystolic murmur increasing with inspiration and left leg edema are not typical for cardiac tamponade.
- While pericardial effusion can cause hypotension and shock, the specific constellation of symptoms, including pleuritic chest pain and signs of right heart strain, makes acute PE with RV dilation a more fitting diagnosis.
Question 1073: A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of excessive daytime sleepiness. He explains that this problem has worsened slowly over the past few years but is now interfering with his ability to play with his grandchildren. He worked previously as an overnight train conductor, but he has been retired for the past 3 years. He sleeps approximately 8-9 hours per night and believes his sleep quality is good; however, his wife notes that he often snores loudly during sleep. He has never experienced muscle weakness or hallucinations. He has also been experiencing headaches in the morning and endorses a depressed mood. His physical exam is most notable for his large body habitus, with a BMI of 34. What is the best description of the underlying mechanism for this patient's excessive daytime sleepiness?
A. Poor oropharyngeal tone (Correct Answer)
B. Circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder
C. Deficiency of the neuropeptides, orexin-A and orexin-B
D. Insufficient sleep duration
E. Psychiatric disorder
Explanation: ***Poor oropharyngeal tone***
- This patient's symptoms, including **excessive daytime sleepiness**, loud **snoring**, **morning headaches**, **obesity (BMI 34)**, and depressed mood, are all highly suggestive of **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)**.
- In OSA, poor oropharyngeal tone, often exacerbated by obesity, leads to the collapse of the upper airway during sleep, causing interrupted breathing and subsequent sleep fragmentation, which manifests as daytime sleepiness.
*Circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder*
- This disorder typically involves a **misalignment between endogenous sleep-wake rhythms** and external environmental cues, often seen in shift workers or with jet lag.
- While the patient previously worked as an overnight conductor, he has been retired for 3 years, and his symptoms are more aligned with chronic airway obstruction rather than a desynchronized internal clock.
*Deficiency of the neuropeptides, orexin-A and orexin-B*
- A deficiency in **orexin (hypocretin)** is the underlying mechanism for **narcolepsy type 1**, characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy (sudden loss of muscle tone triggered by strong emotions), and sleep paralysis/hypnagogic hallucinations.
- This patient specifically denies muscle weakness or hallucinations, which makes narcolepsy less likely.
*Insufficient sleep duration*
- While insufficient sleep duration can cause excessive daytime sleepiness, the patient reports sleeping approximately **8-9 hours per night**, which is generally considered an adequate duration for adults.
- The loud snoring and other symptoms point towards a **qualitative problem with sleep**, despite seemingly adequate hours.
*Psychiatric disorder*
- While **depressed mood** is present, it is often a **consequence or comorbidity of chronic sleep deprivation** and fragmented sleep rather than the primary cause of the patient's excessive daytime sleepiness and loud snoring.
- Depression alone does not explain the physical signs like snoring and morning headaches without an underlying sleep disorder.
Question 1074: A 48-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with complaints of persistent fatigue, dizziness, and weight loss for the past 3 months. She has a history of hypothyroidism and takes thyroxine replacement. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg in a supine position and 65/40 mm Hg while sitting, temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), and pulse is 75/min. On physical examination, there is a mild increase in thyroid size, with a rubbery consistency. Her skin shows diffuse hyperpigmentation, more pronounced in the oral mucosa and palmar creases. Which of the following best represent the etiology of this patient’s condition?
A. Prolonged corticosteroid therapy
B. ↓ corticotropin-releasing hormone secretion from the hypothalamus
C. Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal gland (Correct Answer)
D. ↓ adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion from the pituitary gland
E. ↑ iron absorption and deposition in the body
Explanation: ***Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal gland***
- The patient's symptoms, including **fatigue**, **dizziness**, **weight loss**, **hypotension**, and especially **diffuse hyperpigmentation of the skin and oral mucosa**, are classic signs of **primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease)**.
- Given the history of **hypothyroidism** (another autoimmune disorder), **autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands** is the most likely underlying cause.
*Prolonged corticosteroid therapy*
- **Prolonged corticosteroid therapy** can lead to **secondary adrenal insufficiency** by suppressing the **hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis**.
- However, this would typically cause **ACTH deficiency**, leading to **pale skin** rather than hyperpigmentation, as the melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) levels would also be low.
*↓ corticotropin-releasing hormone secretion from the hypothalamus*
- Decreased **CRH secretion** would result in **secondary adrenal insufficiency**, characterized by **low ACTH** and subsequently low cortisol.
- This condition does not cause **hyperpigmentation** because MSH levels, which are co-secreted with ACTH from a common precursor (POMC), would also be low.
*↓ adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion from the pituitary gland*
- A reduction in **ACTH secretion** (secondary adrenal insufficiency) causes symptoms of **cortisol deficiency** but typically leads to **pallor** due to the lack of MSH stimulation.
- It does not cause the **hyperpigmentation** seen in this patient, which is a hallmark of primary adrenal insufficiency where high ACTH (and MSH) levels stimulate melanocytes.
*↑ iron absorption and deposition in the body*
- Increased **iron absorption and deposition** is characteristic of **hemochromatosis**, which can cause fatigue and skin bronzing, but not the specific hyperpigmentation patterns (oral mucosa, palmar creases) or the significant hypotension and weight loss seen here.
- Hemochromatosis primarily affects the liver, heart, and pancreas, and does not involve adrenal gland dysfunction in this manner.
Question 1075: A 71-year-old African American man is brought to the emergency department with a worsening productive cough and dyspnea for 2 days. He has had generalized bone pain for 2 months. He was admitted for pyelonephritis last month. He also received outpatient treatment for pneumonia almost 2 months ago. Over the past 2 months, he has been taking over-the-counter ibuprofen for pain as needed. He appears anxious. The vital signs include: temperature 38.8°C (101.8°F), pulse 95/min, respiratory rate 20/min, and blood pressure 155/90 mm Hg. The conjunctivae are pale. Crackles are heard in the right lower lobe. The cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. The laboratory studies show the following:
Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 95 μm3
Leukocyte count 13,500/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 75%
Lymphocytes 25%
Platelet count 240,000/mm3
ESR 85 mm/hr
Serum
Na+ 135 mEq/L
K+ 4.2 mEq/L
Cl− 113 mEq/L
HCO3− 20 mEq/L
Ca+ 12.4 mg/dL
Albumin 4 g/dL
Urea nitrogen 38 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.2 mg/dL
A chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe opacity and blurring of the ipsilateral diaphragmatic dome. Skull and pelvic X-rays are performed (see image). Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient’s recent infections?
A. T cell dysfunction
B. Unresolved pneumonia
C. Advanced age
D. Hypogammaglobulinemia (Correct Answer)
E. NSAID-induced chronic kidney disease
Explanation: ***Hypogammaglobulinemia***
- The patient's recurrent bacterial infections (pneumonia, pyelonephritis), **bone pain**, hypercalcemia (**Ca+ 12.4 mg/dL**), anemia (**Hb 9 g/dL**), and **acute kidney injury** (**creatinine 2.2 mg/dL**) are classic findings of **multiple myeloma**.
- In multiple myeloma, abnormal **plasma cells** produce monoclonal immunoglobulins, leading to **hypogammaglobulinemia** of the other immunoglobulin classes, which impairs the immune response to encapsulated bacteria and increases the risk of recurrent bacterial infections.
*T cell dysfunction*
- While T-cell dysfunction can lead to recurrent infections, it is not the primary immune defect seen in multiple myeloma; rather, **B-cell dysregulation** and **hypogammaglobulinemia** are more characteristic.
- T-cell dysfunction is more commonly associated with opportunistic infections, viral, or fungal pathogens, rather than the recurrent bacterial infections described.
*Unresolved pneumonia*
- While the patient has a current pneumonia and a history of recent pneumonia, the underlying cause of repeated infections and the constellation of other symptoms (bone pain, hypercalcemia, anemia, kidney injury) point to a systemic issue like multiple myeloma rather than just an isolated, unresolved infection.
- The patient’s history of pyelonephritis further supports a generalized compromise in immunity, suggesting a broader problem than just a persistent lung infection.
*Advanced age*
- While advanced age is a risk factor for many conditions, including multiple myeloma and increased susceptibility to infections, it is not an underlying specific cause of the recurrent infections in this context.
- The patient's specific clinical and lab findings (e.g., hypercalcemia, anemia, kidney injury, bone pain) are highly suggestive of a distinct pathology beyond simply older age.
*NSAID-induced chronic kidney disease*
- The patient's use of **ibuprofen** could potentially contribute to his kidney injury; however, it does not explain the **hypercalcemia**, **anemia**, **bone pain**, or, most importantly, the **recurrent bacterial infections**.
- NSAID-induced nephropathy typically presents with different laboratory findings and does not cause the profound immune dysfunction observed in this patient.
Question 1076: A 23-year-old woman presents with ongoing diplopia for 1 week. She has noticed that her diplopia is more prominent when she looks at objects in her periphery. It does not present when looking straight ahead. She does not have a fever, headache, ocular pain, lacrimation, blurring of vision, or changes in her color vision. She is a college student and is otherwise healthy. The neurological examination reveals that when she looks to the left, her right eye does not adduct while her left eye abducts with nystagmus. Furthermore, when she looks to the right, her left eye does not adduct while her right eye abducts with prominent nystagmus. Her pupils are bilateral, equal and reactive to light and accommodation. The convergence is normal. The rest of the cranial nerve examination is unremarkable. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Lumbar puncture
B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain (Correct Answer)
C. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the head
D. Ophthalmology referral
E. Visual evoked potential
Explanation: ***Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain***
- This patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of **bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)**, characterized by impaired adduction of one eye when the other abducts with nystagmus. In young adults, bilateral INO is a classic presentation of **multiple sclerosis (MS)**.
- An **MRI of the brain** is the most sensitive imaging modality to detect **demyelinating lesions** characteristic of MS, especially in the brainstem, which would explain the INO.
*Lumbar puncture*
- A lumbar puncture to analyze **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)** for **oligoclonal bands** and **IgG index** is part of the workup for MS but is typically performed *after* an MRI confirms suggestive lesions, or when clinical suspicion remains high despite a non-diagnostic MRI.
- It is an **invasive procedure** and not the initial diagnostic test for suspected MS, especially when imaging can provide valuable information non-invasively.
*Computed tomography (CT) scan of the head*
- A **CT scan** has limited sensitivity for detecting subtle **demyelinating plaques** in the brainstem and other areas affected by MS.
- While it can rule out acute hemorrhage or large masses, it is **inferior to MRI** for visualizing white matter lesions characteristic of MS.
*Ophthalmology referral*
- An ophthalmology referral is appropriate for evaluating primary ocular conditions, but the patient's neurological examination findings (bilateral INO) strongly point to a **central nervous system (CNS) cause** rather than an isolated eye problem.
- The examination has already ruled out common ocular causes for diplopia, making a neurological workup including imaging the priority.
*Visual evoked potential*
- **Visual evoked potentials (VEPs)** measure the electrical activity of the brain in response to visual stimuli and can detect **optic nerve demyelination**, which is common in MS.
- While VEPs can support a diagnosis of MS, they are **not the optimal initial step** compared to an MRI, which can directly visualize the characteristic lesions and confirm the etiology of the INO.
Question 1077: A 65-year-old man with hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department 20 minutes after the onset of severe anterior chest pain and shortness of breath. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 30 years. He appears distressed. His pulse is 116/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 156/88 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 98%. A grade 3/6, high-pitched, blowing, diastolic murmur is heard over the right upper sternal border. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Rupture of a bulla in the lung
B. Perforation of the esophageal wall
C. Obstruction of the pulmonary arteries
D. Fibrofatty plaque in the aortic wall
E. Tear in the tunica intima (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tear in the tunica intima***
- The sudden onset of **severe anterior chest pain**, hypertension, and a **diastolic murmur** consistent with **aortic insufficiency** points strongly to an **aortic dissection**, which begins with a tear in the tunica intima.
- Risk factors like **hypertension**, **smoking**, and **advanced age** increase the likelihood of aortic dissection.
*Rupture of a bulla in the lung*
- This would typically cause **pneumothorax**, leading to **sharp, pleuritic chest pain** and **dyspnea**, often with diminished breath sounds on the affected side.
- A **cardiac murmur** and severe distress in the context of vascular risk factors are not characteristic of a ruptured bulla.
*Perforation of the esophageal wall*
- Esophageal perforation (Boerhaave syndrome) presents with **severe chest pain**, **vomiting**, and often **subcutaneous emphysema** or **pleural effusion**.
- While it causes severe chest pain, the described **diastolic murmur** and absence of vomiting or other specific signs make this less likely.
*Obstruction of the pulmonary arteries*
- **Pulmonary embolism** (obstruction of pulmonary arteries) typically causes **sudden onset dyspnea**, **pleuritic chest pain**, **tachycardia**, and **hypoxia**, often without a significant cardiac murmur of this nature.
- The oxygen saturation of 98% makes a large pulmonary embolism less probable.
*Fibrofatty plaque in the aortic wall*
- While common in patients with hypertension and smoking history, an **atherosclerotic plaque** in the aortic wall itself rarely causes acute, severe chest pain and a new diastolic murmur unless it leads to an **aortic dissection** or **rupture**.
- This option describes a precursor to diseases like aortic dissection but not the acute event itself.
Question 1078: A 39-year-old woman presents with progressive weakness, exercise intolerance, and occasional dizziness for the past 3 months. Past medical history is unremarkable. She reports an 18-pack-year smoking history and drinks alcohol rarely. Her vital signs include: temperature 36.6°C (97.8°F), blood pressure 139/82 mm Hg, pulse 98/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Her laboratory results are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Erythrocyte count 2.1 million/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 88 μm3
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) 32 pg/cell
Leukocyte count 7,500/mm3
Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient’s condition?
A. Serum ferritin level
B. Direct antiglobulin test
C. C-reactive protein (CRP)
D. Bone marrow biopsy
E. Reticulocyte count (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Reticulocyte count***
- A **normocytic anemia** (MCV 88) with signs of weakness and exercise intolerance requires evaluation of **red blood cell production**.
- A reticulocyte count helps differentiate between **hypoproliferative** (low count) and **hyperproliferative** (high count) anemias, guiding further diagnostic steps.
*Serum ferritin level*
- While often low in **iron-deficiency anemia**, this patient’s **normocytic MCV** makes iron deficiency less likely as the primary cause without other features.
- A normal ferritin doesn't rule out other causes of anemia, and a high ferritin could indicate **anemia of chronic disease**, but further understanding of RBC production is needed first.
*Direct antiglobulin test*
- This test is used to diagnose **autoimmune hemolytic anemia**, which typically presents with **jaundice**, **splenomegaly**, and elevated **lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)**, none of which are noted here.
- While anemia can result from hemolysis, the initial presentation doesn't strongly suggest an immune-mediated destruction process, and determining the bone marrow's response is more immediate.
*C-reactive protein (CRP)*
- CRP is a marker of **inflammation**, and elevated levels could suggest **anemia of chronic disease**.
- However, knowing the **reticulocyte count** will provide more direct information about bone marrow function, which is crucial for characterizing the anemia.
*Bone marrow biopsy*
- A bone marrow biopsy is an **invasive procedure** typically reserved for complex anemias where initial, less invasive tests have failed to provide a diagnosis or when conditions like **aplastic anemia** or **myelodysplastic syndromes** are strongly suspected.
- It is not the appropriate **first diagnostic step** in evaluating an undifferentiated normocytic anemia like this.
Question 1079: A 45-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fatigue, irregular menses, and recurrent respiratory infections for the past 6 months. Her blood pressure is 151/82 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a round face, thinning of the skin, and multiple bruises on her arms. Further studies confirm the diagnosis of an ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following?
A. Weight loss
B. Eosinophilia
C. Bitemporal hemianopsia
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Pathologic fracture (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pathologic fracture***
- This patient has **Cushing's disease** due to an **ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma**, leading to excess cortisol.
- **Excess cortisol** causes **osteoporosis** by increasing bone resorption and decreasing bone formation, significantly raising the risk of **pathologic fractures**.
- This is the **greatest risk** because **all patients** with chronic hypercortisolism develop bone loss, making fractures highly likely.
*Weight loss*
- Patients with Cushing's disease typically experience **weight gain**, particularly centrally (truncal obesity), due to **cortisol-induced fat redistribution**.
- **Fatigue** is common, but weight loss is not a characteristic feature of Cushing's syndrome.
*Eosinophilia*
- **Hypercortisolism** (Cushing's syndrome) usually causes **eosinopenia** (decreased eosinophil count) and **lymphopenia**, not eosinophilia.
- Cortisol has an anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effect, leading to a reduction in circulating eosinophils and lymphocytes.
*Bitemporal hemianopsia*
- While an **ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma** is present, **bitemporal hemianopsia** occurs only when a pituitary tumor becomes a **macroadenoma** (>10mm) and compresses the **optic chiasm**.
- Most ACTH-secreting adenomas are **microadenomas** (<10mm) that cause symptoms through **hormonal excess**, not mass effect.
- The clinical picture here reflects **Cushing's syndrome** from hypercortisolism, which affects **all patients** regardless of tumor size, whereas visual field defects occur only with large tumors.
*Hypoglycemia*
- **Excess cortisol** **increases gluconeogenesis** and **insulin resistance**, leading to **hyperglycemia**, not hypoglycemia.
- This is a common metabolic complication of Cushing's syndrome, often progressing to **steroid-induced diabetes mellitus**.
Question 1080: A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 3-week history of intermittent swelling of his left arm and feeling of fullness in his head that is exacerbated by lying down and bending over to tie his shoes. Physical examination shows left-sided facial edema and distention of superficial veins in the neck and left chest wall. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Cervical rib
B. Mediastinal lymphoma
C. Subclavian steal syndrome
D. Apical lung tumor (Correct Answer)
E. Right heart failure
Explanation: ***Apical lung tumor***
- The symptoms of **facial edema**, **neck vein distention**, and **swelling of the left arm**, particularly when exacerbated by positional changes such as lying down or bending over, are classic signs of **superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome**.
- An **apical lung tumor (Pancoast tumor)** is a common cause of SVC syndrome due to its proximity to the SVC and surrounding structures, leading to compression.
- The **left-sided predominance** (left arm swelling, left facial edema, left chest wall venous distention) specifically points to a left apical mass compressing the left brachiocephalic vein and/or SVC.
*Cervical rib*
- A cervical rib can cause **thoracic outlet syndrome**, leading to neurovascular compression, but it typically presents with neurological symptoms (pain, numbness, weakness in the arm/hand) or arterial insufficiency rather than widespread facial and neck edema.
- While it can cause *venous compression*, resulting in arm swelling, the **facial edema and neck vein distention** suggest a more central venous obstruction like SVC syndrome rather than peripheral thoracic outlet compression.
*Mediastinal lymphoma*
- Malignancies in the mediastinum, such as lymphoma, can indeed cause SVC syndrome by compressing the SVC.
- However, mediastinal lymphomas typically cause **bilateral** symptoms due to their central location, whereas this patient has **predominant left-sided findings** (left arm swelling, left facial edema, left chest wall veins), which more specifically suggests a left apical lung mass.
- Additionally, lymphoma commonly presents with systemic "B symptoms" (fever, night sweats, weight loss) and generalized lymphadenopathy, which are not mentioned here.
*Subclavian steal syndrome*
- This syndrome results from **subclavian artery stenosis** proximal to the vertebral artery origin, causing **retrograde blood flow** in the vertebral artery to supply the arm.
- It presents with **arm claudication**, dizziness, and syncope, especially with arm exercise, rather than venous congestion and swelling of the face, neck, and arm.
- This is an **arterial** syndrome, not a **venous** syndrome.
*Right heart failure*
- **Right heart failure** causes systemic venous congestion, leading to symptoms like **peripheral edema** (especially in the lower extremities), **jugular venous distention**, and **hepatomegaly**.
- While it can cause jugular venous distension, it typically presents with **bilateral lower extremity edema** and *rarely* causes unilateral arm swelling or predominant facial edema, as seen here.
- The **positional exacerbation** and **unilateral left-sided findings** are not characteristic of right heart failure.