A 30-year-old African-American woman comes to the physician for a routine checkup. She feels well. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus that is well-controlled with metformin. Her mother died of a progressive lung disease at the age of 50 years. The patient is sexually active with her husband, and they use condoms consistently. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years. She drinks one to two glasses of wine per day. She does not use illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination, including ophthalmologic evaluation, shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies, including serum creatinine and calcium concentrations, are within normal limits. An ECG shows no abnormalities. A tuberculin skin test is negative. A chest x-ray is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q1042
A 67-year-old woman presents with right leg pain and swelling of 5 days’ duration. She has a history of hypertension for 15 years and had a recent hospitalization for pneumonia. She had been recuperating at home but on beginning to mobilize and walk, the right leg became painful and swollen. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.7°F), the blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and the pulse is 75/min. On physical examination, the right calf is 4 cm greater in circumference than the left when measured 10 cm below the tibial tuberosity. Dilated superficial veins are present on the right foot and the right leg is slightly redder than the left. There is some tenderness on palpation in the popliteal fossa behind the knee. Which of the following is the best initial step in the management of this patient’s condition?
Q1043
A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care provider because of fatigue and loss of appetite. He is also concerned that his legs are swollen below the knee. He has had type 2 diabetes for 35 years, for which he takes metformin and glyburide. Today his temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), the blood pressure is 165/82 mm Hg, and the pulse is 88/min. Presence of which of the following would make diabetic kidney disease less likely in this patient?
Q1044
A 97-year-old man visits the urology clinic 5 days after experiencing urinary retention at an emergency department visit. The patient has a history of hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, stroke, dyslipidemia, a past myocardial infarction, and severe osteoarthritis in his right hip. He is not compliant with his medications and his multiple comorbidities are poorly managed. In the hospital, the patient’s urinary retention was treated with Foley catheterization. At clinic, the patient’s serum-specific prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 6.0 ng/mL (normal is < 4 ng/mL). Digital rectal examination (DRE) demonstrates a nontender prostate with several rock hard nodules. The patient's Foley is removed and he is able to urinate on his own. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q1045
A 72-year-old man presents to his primary care physician because he feels like his vision has been changing over the last 6 months. In particular, he feels that he cannot see as well out of his right eye as previously. His past medical history is significant for myocardial infarction as well as Lyme disease. On presentation, he is found to have a droopy right eyelid as well as persistent constriction of his right pupil. Additionally, the skin on his right half of his face is found to be cracked and dry. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient's symptoms?
Q1046
A 27-year-old woman presents with a history of repeated episodes of discoloration of the fingers over the last 3 years. She mentions that the episodes are usually triggered by exposure to cold, which leads to a sequential white, blue, and red discoloration of her fingers, followed by resolution of the symptoms. During an episode, she experiences pain and numbness in the affected fingers. The episodes are usually of short duration and do not interfere with her life, so she did not seek medical advice till now. Which of the following additional clinical features in this patient would most likely support the most likely diagnosis?
Q1047
A 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with complaints that he "can't control his left leg". His symptoms started a few hours ago. He was outside taking a walk with his wife when suddenly his leg shot out and kicked her. His past medical history is notable for diabetes, hypertension, and a myocardial infarction 5 years ago. He smokes 1-2 cigarettes/day. He does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. On exam, the patient has intermittent wide, flinging movements that affect his proximal left arm and left leg. Which of the following parts of his brain is most likely damaged?
Q1048
A 61-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of worsening exertional dyspnea and a persistent dry cough. For 37 years he has worked in a naval shipyard. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 40 years. Pulmonary examination shows fine bibasilar end-expiratory crackles. An x-ray of the chest shows diffuse bilateral infiltrates predominantly in the lower lobes and pleural reticulonodular opacities. A CT scan of the chest shows pleural plaques and subpleural linear opacities. The patient is most likely to develop which of the following conditions?
Q1049
A 56-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 1-hour history of persistent nasal bleeding. The bleeding started spontaneously. The patient experienced a similar episode last year. Currently, she has hypertension and takes hydrochlorothiazide and losartan. She is anxious. Her blood pressure is 175/88 mm Hg. During the examination, the patient holds a blood-stained gauze against her right nostril. Upon removal of the gauze, blood slowly drips down from her right nostril. Examination of the left nostril reveals no abnormalities. Squeezing the nostrils for 20 minutes fails to control bleeding. Which of the following interventions is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q1050
A 57-year-old man presents with a large wound on his right lower leg that has been present for 6 months as shown in the picture. He has had chronically swollen legs for over 10 years. His mother and brother had similar problems with their legs. He had a documented deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the affected leg 5 years earlier, but has no other past medical history. He has a blood pressure of 126/84 and heart rate of 62/min. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1041: A 30-year-old African-American woman comes to the physician for a routine checkup. She feels well. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus that is well-controlled with metformin. Her mother died of a progressive lung disease at the age of 50 years. The patient is sexually active with her husband, and they use condoms consistently. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years. She drinks one to two glasses of wine per day. She does not use illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination, including ophthalmologic evaluation, shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies, including serum creatinine and calcium concentrations, are within normal limits. An ECG shows no abnormalities. A tuberculin skin test is negative. A chest x-ray is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Oral methotrexate therapy
B. Oral isoniazid monotherapy
C. Monitoring (Correct Answer)
D. Lung biopsy
E. ANCA testing
Explanation: ***Monitoring***
- The patient has **bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL)** on chest x-ray, which is characteristic of **Stage I sarcoidosis**.
- She is an **asymptomatic African-American woman** (classic demographic for sarcoidosis) with **normal serum calcium** and no evidence of organ involvement.
- **Stage I sarcoidosis** (isolated BHL) has a **60-80% spontaneous remission rate**, so initial management is observation and monitoring.
- Treatment is reserved for **symptomatic disease** or **progressive organ involvement**.
*Oral methotrexate therapy*
- Methotrexate is a **disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)** used in sarcoidosis when there is significant organ involvement or progressive disease that does not respond to corticosteroids.
- It is **not indicated** for asymptomatic Stage I disease with no organ involvement.
*Oral isoniazid monotherapy*
- Isoniazid is primarily used to treat **latent tuberculosis infection** or as part of a multi-drug regimen for **active tuberculosis**.
- Although BHL can occur in tuberculosis, the **negative tuberculin skin test**, asymptomatic presentation, and lack of other TB symptoms make this diagnosis less likely.
- Isoniazid monotherapy is not appropriate in this clinical scenario.
*Lung biopsy*
- A lung biopsy (transbronchial or mediastinoscopy with lymph node biopsy) is considered for **histologic confirmation** of sarcoidosis when the diagnosis is uncertain or when ruling out malignancy or infection.
- Since the patient is **asymptomatic** with a classic presentation of Stage I sarcoidosis, and initial management is observation, a biopsy is **not immediately warranted**.
- Biopsy would be considered if disease progresses or becomes symptomatic.
*ANCA testing*
- **Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCAs)** are markers primarily associated with **vasculitic conditions**, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) and microscopic polyangiitis (MPA).
- These conditions typically present with **systemic symptoms** (fever, weight loss, hemoptysis) and **organ damage** (renal, pulmonary, upper respiratory), which are absent in this asymptomatic patient.
- ANCA testing is not indicated for the evaluation of isolated BHL.
Question 1042: A 67-year-old woman presents with right leg pain and swelling of 5 days’ duration. She has a history of hypertension for 15 years and had a recent hospitalization for pneumonia. She had been recuperating at home but on beginning to mobilize and walk, the right leg became painful and swollen. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.7°F), the blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and the pulse is 75/min. On physical examination, the right calf is 4 cm greater in circumference than the left when measured 10 cm below the tibial tuberosity. Dilated superficial veins are present on the right foot and the right leg is slightly redder than the left. There is some tenderness on palpation in the popliteal fossa behind the knee. Which of the following is the best initial step in the management of this patient’s condition?
A. International normalized ratio (INR)
B. Thrombophilia screen
C. Wells’ clinical probability tool (Correct Answer)
D. Computerized tomography (CT) with contrast
E. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Explanation: ***Wells' clinical probability tool***
- The patient presents with classic signs and symptoms of **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**, including unilateral leg pain and swelling, dilated superficial veins, and tenderness. The Wells' clinical probability tool helps stratify the risk of DVT, guiding further diagnostic testing.
- Using this validated clinical decision rule for risk assessment is the **best initial step** to determine the likelihood of DVT before proceeding with imaging studies (compression ultrasound) or D-dimer testing.
- Based on the Wells' score, patients are categorized as low, moderate, or high probability, which then directs appropriate diagnostic testing and potential empiric anticoagulation.
*International normalized ratio (INR)*
- **INR** is used to monitor the effectiveness of **warfarin** therapy, an anticoagulant, and to assess liver function.
- It is not an initial diagnostic tool for DVT; rather, it is used **after a DVT diagnosis** has been made and anticoagulation with warfarin has been initiated.
*Thrombophilia screen*
- A **thrombophilia screen** investigates underlying genetic or acquired clotting disorders.
- This is typically performed **after a DVT diagnosis** in younger patients, those with recurrent DVT, or those with a family history of thrombosis, not as an initial diagnostic step unless there is strong suspicion for an underlying clotting disorder.
*Computerized tomography (CT) with contrast*
- A **CT with contrast** (specifically **CT venography**) can diagnose DVT, but it is not the **first-line imaging modality** for suspected DVT because of radiation exposure and contrast risks.
- **Compression ultrasonography** is generally the preferred initial imaging study for DVT, especially after a risk assessment using the Wells' score.
*Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)*
- The **aPTT** is a measure of the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation and is used to monitor **unfractionated heparin** therapy.
- It is not an initial diagnostic test for DVT; like INR, it is used **after diagnosis** for monitoring anticoagulant treatment.
Question 1043: A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care provider because of fatigue and loss of appetite. He is also concerned that his legs are swollen below the knee. He has had type 2 diabetes for 35 years, for which he takes metformin and glyburide. Today his temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), the blood pressure is 165/82 mm Hg, and the pulse is 88/min. Presence of which of the following would make diabetic kidney disease less likely in this patient?
A. Normal-to-large kidneys on ultrasound
B. Gradual reduction of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
C. Diabetic retinopathy
D. Nephrotic range proteinuria
E. Cellular casts in urinalysis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cellular casts in urinalysis***
- The presence of **cellular casts**, especially **red blood cell casts** or **white blood cell casts**, suggests an active glomerular inflammatory disease (e.g., glomerulonephritis) or an interstitial nephritis, which are atypical for uncomplicated diabetic kidney disease.
- Diabetic kidney disease typically presents with bland urine sediment without significant cellular casts.
*Normal-to-large kidneys on ultrasound*
- In the early stages of diabetic kidney disease, the kidneys can be **normal in size or even enlarged** due to compensatory hypertrophy and increased renal blood flow.
- Only in **advanced stages** of chronic kidney disease from diabetes do the kidneys become atrophic and shrunken.
*Gradual reduction of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)*
- Diabetic kidney disease is characterized by a **progressive decline in GFR** over time, often correlating with the duration and control of diabetes.
- This gradual decline is a hallmark differentiating it from acute kidney injury or rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
*Diabetic retinopathy*
- The presence of **diabetic retinopathy** is a strong indicator of **microvascular complications** of diabetes and is highly correlated with the presence and severity of diabetic kidney disease.
- This co-occurrence supports a diagnosis of diabetic kidney disease, not ruling it out.
*Nephrotic range proteinuria*
- **Nephrotic range proteinuria** (protein excretion > 3.5 g/day) is a common manifestation of diabetic kidney disease, especially as the disease progresses to more advanced stages.
- This level of proteinuria suggests significant glomerular damage, consistent with diabetic nephropathy.
Question 1044: A 97-year-old man visits the urology clinic 5 days after experiencing urinary retention at an emergency department visit. The patient has a history of hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, stroke, dyslipidemia, a past myocardial infarction, and severe osteoarthritis in his right hip. He is not compliant with his medications and his multiple comorbidities are poorly managed. In the hospital, the patient’s urinary retention was treated with Foley catheterization. At clinic, the patient’s serum-specific prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 6.0 ng/mL (normal is < 4 ng/mL). Digital rectal examination (DRE) demonstrates a nontender prostate with several rock hard nodules. The patient's Foley is removed and he is able to urinate on his own. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Repeat PSA test
B. CT abdomen and pelvis
C. Cystourethroscopy
D. Reassurance
E. Transrectal prostate biopsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Transrectal prostate biopsy***
- The combination of an elevated **PSA** (6.0 ng/mL) and **palpable, rock-hard nodules** on digital rectal examination is highly suspicious for **prostate cancer**.
- A definitive diagnosis requires a **tissue biopsy** to determine the presence of malignancy and its Gleason score.
*Repeat PSA test*
- While a repeat PSA can sometimes be useful to confirm a trend or rule out transient elevation, the presence of **palpable prostatic nodules** on DRE makes a repeat PSA insufficient given the high suspicion of malignancy.
- Delaying definitive workup, such as a biopsy, could be detrimental if cancer is present.
*CT abdomen and pelvis*
- A CT scan would be more appropriate for **staging** if prostate cancer were confirmed, to assess for metastasis, rather than for initial diagnosis.
- It would not provide the definitive **tissue diagnosis** needed to confirm prostate cancer.
*Cystourethroscopy*
- **Cystourethroscopy** is used to visualize the urethra and bladder, often for issues like hematuria, strictures, or bladder masses.
- It is not the primary diagnostic tool for **prostate cancer** originating in the peripheral zone given the DRE findings.
*Reassurance*
- Given the patient's elevated **PSA** and **palpable rock-hard nodules** on DRE, providing reassurance is inappropriate and could lead to delayed diagnosis and treatment of potentially aggressive prostate cancer.
- These findings are highly indicative of prostate pathology requiring further investigation.
Question 1045: A 72-year-old man presents to his primary care physician because he feels like his vision has been changing over the last 6 months. In particular, he feels that he cannot see as well out of his right eye as previously. His past medical history is significant for myocardial infarction as well as Lyme disease. On presentation, he is found to have a droopy right eyelid as well as persistent constriction of his right pupil. Additionally, the skin on his right half of his face is found to be cracked and dry. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient's symptoms?
A. Oculomotor nerve damage
B. Drug use
C. Syphilis
D. Facial nerve damage
E. Pancoast tumor (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pancoast tumor***
- The patient's symptoms (droopy eyelid, constricted pupil, and dry skin on one side of the face) are classic for **Horner's syndrome**, which results from damage to the **sympathetic nerves** to the eye and face.
- A **Pancoast tumor** (a tumor in the apex of the lung) can compress the **sympathetic chain** in the neck/chest, leading to Horner's syndrome.
*Oculomotor nerve damage*
- Oculomotor nerve damage would typically cause a **dilated pupil** (due to unopposed sympathetic innervation) and **ptosis** (drooping eyelid), but not miosis (constricted pupil) or anhidrosis (dry skin).
- The patient's **constricted pupil** points away from oculomotor nerve involvement.
*Drug use*
- While certain drugs can affect pupil size (e.g., opiates cause miosis), drug use alone is unlikely to explain the entire triad of **Horner's syndrome** (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) in combination with the focal neurological findings.
- No other information in the vignette suggests drug use.
*Syphilis*
- **Neurosyphilis** can cause pupillary abnormalities, such as **Argyll Robertson pupils** (small, irregular pupils that accommodate but do not react to light).
- However, it typically does not present with the specific combination of ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis characteristic of Horner's syndrome.
*Facial nerve damage*
- **Facial nerve damage** (e.g., Bell's palsy) affects the muscles of **facial expression** and could cause ipsilateral facial weakness or droop.
- It would not cause pupillary changes or anhidrosis, as these symptoms are related to the sympathetic nervous system and superior cervical ganglion, not the facial nerve.
Question 1046: A 27-year-old woman presents with a history of repeated episodes of discoloration of the fingers over the last 3 years. She mentions that the episodes are usually triggered by exposure to cold, which leads to a sequential white, blue, and red discoloration of her fingers, followed by resolution of the symptoms. During an episode, she experiences pain and numbness in the affected fingers. The episodes are usually of short duration and do not interfere with her life, so she did not seek medical advice till now. Which of the following additional clinical features in this patient would most likely support the most likely diagnosis?
A. Generalized pruritus
B. Telangiectasia over face (Correct Answer)
C. Calcinosis on the dorsal surface of the forearm
D. Photosensitive skin rash
E. Bilateral symmetrical involvement of the extremities
Explanation: ***Telangiectasia over face***
- The patient's history of **Raynaud phenomenon** (white, blue, red discoloration of fingers triggered by cold) along with associated pain and numbness suggests a secondary form of Raynaud, often seen in **systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)**.
- **Telangiectasias** are a highly specific component of **CREST syndrome** (Calcinosis, Raynaud phenomenon, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasias), which is a limited form of systemic sclerosis.
- Telangiectasias over the face are particularly characteristic and help distinguish systemic sclerosis from other causes of Raynaud phenomenon.
*Generalized pruritus*
- While pruritus can occur in various systemic conditions, it is not a classic or specific feature that would strongly support a diagnosis of autoimmune connective tissue disease like systemic sclerosis.
- It is more commonly associated with conditions like **dermatitis**, **liver disease**, or **renal failure**.
*Calcinosis on the dorsal surface of the forearm*
- **Calcinosis** is indeed a feature of **CREST syndrome**, but it typically presents as hard, subcutaneous nodules over pressure points or fingertips, not primarily on the dorsal forearm.
- While calcinosis is part of CREST, **telangiectasias are more specific and appear earlier** in the disease course, making them a better distinguishing feature.
- Calcinosis tends to develop later and is less commonly the presenting feature.
*Photosensitive skin rash*
- A **photosensitive skin rash** is a hallmark feature of **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**, particularly the malar rash or discoid lupus.
- It is not typically associated with systemic sclerosis or Raynaud phenomenon as a primary distinguishing feature.
*Bilateral symmetrical involvement of the extremities*
- While some autoimmune diseases can cause bilateral symmetrical involvement, this is a very general description and does not specifically point to systemic sclerosis or help differentiate it from other conditions.
- Raynaud phenomenon itself commonly affects both hands, but "symmetrical involvement of extremities" is too broad to be diagnostically specific in this context.
Question 1047: A 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with complaints that he "can't control his left leg". His symptoms started a few hours ago. He was outside taking a walk with his wife when suddenly his leg shot out and kicked her. His past medical history is notable for diabetes, hypertension, and a myocardial infarction 5 years ago. He smokes 1-2 cigarettes/day. He does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. On exam, the patient has intermittent wide, flinging movements that affect his proximal left arm and left leg. Which of the following parts of his brain is most likely damaged?
A. Ventral posterior thalamic nucleus
B. Left internal capsule
C. Right subthalamic nucleus (Correct Answer)
D. Left subthalamic nucleus
E. Right internal capsule
Explanation: ***Right subthalamic nucleus***
- The patient's symptoms of sudden, uncontrolled, wide-flinging movements, affecting the contralateral (left) side of the body, are characteristic of **hemiballism**.
- **Hemiballism** is almost exclusively caused by a lesion in the **contralateral subthalamic nucleus (STN)**, or its afferent/efferent connections, most commonly due to a **lacunar infarct**.
*Ventral posterior thalamic nucleus*
- Damage to the **ventral posterior thalamic nucleus** primarily causes **sensory deficits**, such as loss of touch, pain, and temperature sensation, on the contralateral side of the body.
- While it can be involved in motor control, it does not typically cause the characteristic flinging movements seen in hemiballism.
*Left internal capsule*
- A lesion in the **left internal capsule** would result in contralateral (right-sided) motor and sensory deficits, including **hemiparesis** or **hemiplegia**, but not the ballistic, uncontrollable movements described.
- The internal capsule carries major motor and sensory pathways to and from the cerebral cortex.
*Left subthalamic nucleus*
- Damage to the **left subthalamic nucleus** would cause hemiballism on the **contralateral (right) side** of the body.
- The patient's symptoms are on the left side, indicating a lesion in the right subthalamic nucleus.
*Right internal capsule*
- A lesion in the **right internal capsule** would primarily cause contralateral (left-sided) motor and sensory deficits, such as **hemiparesis** or **hemiplegia**.
- While it affects the contralateral side as described in the patient, it would typically present as weakness rather than uncontrolled flinging movements.
Question 1048: A 61-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of worsening exertional dyspnea and a persistent dry cough. For 37 years he has worked in a naval shipyard. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 40 years. Pulmonary examination shows fine bibasilar end-expiratory crackles. An x-ray of the chest shows diffuse bilateral infiltrates predominantly in the lower lobes and pleural reticulonodular opacities. A CT scan of the chest shows pleural plaques and subpleural linear opacities. The patient is most likely to develop which of the following conditions?
A. Malignant mesothelioma
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Bronchogenic carcinoma (Correct Answer)
D. Aspergilloma
E. Mycobacterial infection
Explanation: ***Bronchogenic carcinoma***
- This patient has **asbestosis** from 37 years of shipyard work (asbestos exposure) combined with a **40-pack-year smoking history**, creating a **synergistic risk** for lung cancer.
- Asbestos exposure alone increases lung cancer risk **5-fold**, smoking alone increases it **10-fold**, but **combined exposure increases the risk 50-fold** due to synergistic effects.
- The chest imaging findings (diffuse bilateral infiltrates, pleural reticulonodular opacities, pleural plaques, and subpleural linear opacities) confirm **asbestosis**, making **bronchogenic carcinoma** the most likely future complication.
*Malignant mesothelioma*
- While strongly associated with **asbestos exposure**, it is **not synergistic with smoking** and has a lower absolute incidence compared to bronchogenic carcinoma in patients with combined exposures.
- Mesothelioma typically presents with **unilateral pleural thickening**, pleural effusion, and chest pain rather than the diffuse parenchymal infiltrates and bibasilar crackles seen here.
*Spontaneous pneumothorax*
- Characterized by sudden lung collapse with acute chest pain and dyspnea, appearing on imaging as air in the pleural space.
- While smoking-related emphysema can lead to bullae rupture and pneumothorax, the primary findings here indicate chronic interstitial lung disease and pleural pathology from asbestos exposure.
*Mycobacterial infection*
- Would typically present with constitutional symptoms (fever, night sweats, weight loss) and possibly hemoptysis, which are not mentioned in this case.
- Imaging usually shows cavitary lesions, nodules, or upper lobe predominance, differing from the diffuse lower lobe infiltrates and pleural plaques characteristic of asbestosis.
*Aspergilloma*
- A fungal ball within a pre-existing cavity, typically seen in patients with tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, or other chronic cavitary lung diseases.
- The clinical presentation and imaging findings, particularly the occupational asbestos exposure and smoking history, point toward malignancy risk rather than fungal colonization.
Question 1049: A 56-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 1-hour history of persistent nasal bleeding. The bleeding started spontaneously. The patient experienced a similar episode last year. Currently, she has hypertension and takes hydrochlorothiazide and losartan. She is anxious. Her blood pressure is 175/88 mm Hg. During the examination, the patient holds a blood-stained gauze against her right nostril. Upon removal of the gauze, blood slowly drips down from her right nostril. Examination of the left nostril reveals no abnormalities. Squeezing the nostrils for 20 minutes fails to control bleeding. Which of the following interventions is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Nasal oxymetazoline
B. Anterior nasal packing with topical antibiotics (Correct Answer)
C. Intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin
D. Oral captopril
E. Silver nitrate cauterization of the bleeding vessel
Explanation: ***Anterior nasal packing with topical antibiotics***
- This is the **most appropriate next step** after failed direct pressure (20 minutes of squeezing the nostrils).
- The standard **stepwise management of anterior epistaxis** proceeds from direct pressure → anterior nasal packing → posterior packing if needed.
- **Anterior nasal packing** provides direct tamponade of the bleeding site and is the definitive treatment when conservative pressure fails.
- **Topical antibiotics** (or antibiotic ointment) are applied to prevent **toxic shock syndrome** and sinusitis, which are rare but serious complications of nasal packing.
*Nasal oxymetazoline*
- **Oxymetazoline** is a topical vasoconstrictor that can help control mild anterior epistaxis.
- It is typically applied **with or before direct pressure**, not after 20 minutes of failed direct pressure.
- While it may be applied before packing, at this point with documented failure of prolonged direct pressure, **packing is the definitive next step**.
- Oxymetazoline alone would be insufficient given the duration and failure of conservative management.
*Silver nitrate cauterization of the bleeding vessel*
- **Cauterization** requires visualization of a discrete bleeding point, which is difficult with active ongoing bleeding.
- It is more appropriate for **recurrent epistaxis** with an identified bleeding vessel or after bleeding is controlled.
- In acute uncontrolled bleeding after failed pressure, **packing takes precedence** over attempting cauterization.
*Intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin*
- **Nitroglycerin** is a vasodilator used for angina, acute coronary syndrome, or hypertensive emergencies with end-organ damage.
- It would **worsen epistaxis** by increasing blood flow and lowering blood pressure.
- The elevated BP (175/88 mm Hg) likely reflects anxiety and pain from epistaxis, not a hypertensive emergency requiring immediate IV treatment.
*Oral captopril*
- While the patient has elevated blood pressure, this does not represent a hypertensive emergency requiring immediate intervention.
- The **priority is controlling the bleeding**, not blood pressure management.
- **ACE inhibitors** like captopril have a slow onset and are inappropriate for acute epistaxis management.
Question 1050: A 57-year-old man presents with a large wound on his right lower leg that has been present for 6 months as shown in the picture. He has had chronically swollen legs for over 10 years. His mother and brother had similar problems with their legs. He had a documented deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the affected leg 5 years earlier, but has no other past medical history. He has a blood pressure of 126/84 and heart rate of 62/min. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic venous insufficiency (Correct Answer)
B. Kaposi sarcoma
C. Lymphedema
D. Marjolin ulcer
E. Arterial ulcer
Explanation: ***Chronic venous insufficiency***
- The presence of a **large, long-standing lower leg wound**, **chronic leg swelling**, and a history of **DVT** strongly indicate chronic venous insufficiency, which leads to venous stasis ulcers.
- The **family history** of similar leg problems also suggests a predisposition to venous disease.
*Kaposi sarcoma*
- This is a vascular tumor typically associated with **HIV/AIDS** or other immunocompromised states and presents with pigmented lesions, not typically large, chronic ulcers in an otherwise healthy individual.
- While it can manifest on the lower extremities, its appearance is usually distinct from a typical venous ulcer described.
*Lymphedema*
- Lymphedema causes **chronic swelling** but is less likely to directly lead to such a large ulcer and often has a characteristic **"pitting" or "non-pitting" edema** with skin changes like hyperkeratosis, without the specific history of DVT leading to valvular damage.
- Although secondary lymphedema can arise, the direct link to DVT and ulcer formation points away from primary lymphedema.
*Marjolin ulcer*
- A Marjolin ulcer is a rare, aggressive cutaneous malignancy that arises in a **chronically inflamed wound**, such as a burn scar or osteomyelitis sinus tract.
- While it presents as a chronic ulcer, the history does not mention a prior burn or chronic osteomyelitis, making it less likely given the patient's presentation.
*Arterial ulcer*
- Arterial ulcers are usually **painful**, characterized by **punched-out lesions** with a pale base, and often occur in patients with peripheral artery disease, exhibiting symptoms like claudication or rest pain.
- The symptoms of chronic swelling and history of DVT are more consistent with venous pathology than arterial insufficiency, and the wound description does not typically match an arterial ulcer.