A 58-year-old man comes to the physician because of intermittent throbbing headaches over the past year. The headaches are worse when he wakes up and are not accompanied by other symptoms. The patient also reports trouble concentrating on daily tasks at work. His wife has been complaining lately about his snoring during sleep, which he attributes to his chronic sinusitis. He has a history of hypertension and an allergy to dust mites. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 14 years. His pulse is 72/min and blood pressure is 150/95 mm Hg. He is 178 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 120 kg (265 lb); BMI is 37.9 kg/m2. Neurological and cutaneous examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's hypertension?
Q1022
A 27-year-old man with a past medical history of type I diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with altered mental status. The patient was noted as becoming more lethargic and confused over the past day, prompting his roommates to bring him in. His temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 107/68 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 144 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 6.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 16 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 599 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the appropriate endpoint of treatment for this patient?
Q1023
A 70-year-old man with a 2 year history of Alzheimer disease is brought in from his nursing facility with altered mental status and recurrent falls during the past few days. Current medications include donepezil and galantamine. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.0°C (96.8°F), blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate 102/min, respiratory rate 22/min. Physical examination reveals several lacerations on his head and extremities. He is oriented only to the person. Urine and blood cultures are positive for E. coli. The patient is admitted and initial treatment with IV fluids, antibiotics, and subcutaneous prophylactic heparin. On the second day of hospitalization, diffuse bleeding from venipuncture sites and wounds is observed. His blood test results show thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT and PTT, and a positive D-dimer. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's condition?
Q1024
A 69-year-old male presents to the emergency department for slurred speech and an inability to use his right arm which occurred while he was eating dinner. The patient arrived at the emergency department within one hour. A CT scan was performed of the head and did not reveal any signs of hemorrhage. The patient is given thrombolytics and is then managed on the neurology floor. Three days later, the patient is recovering and is stable. He seems depressed but is doing well with his symptoms gradually improving as compared to his initial presentation. The patient complains of neck pain that has worsened slowly over the past few days for which he is being given ibuprofen. Laboratory values are ordered and return as indicated below:
Serum:
Na+: 130 mEq/L
K+: 3.7 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 7 mg/dL
Glucose: 70 mg/dL
Creatinine: 0.9 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.7 mg/dL
Urine:
Appearance: dark
Glucose: negative
WBC: 0/hpf
Bacterial: none
Na+: 320 mEq/L/24 hours
His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 95/min, blood pressure is 129/70 mmHg, respirations are 10/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q1025
A 57-year-old man presents for his yearly wellness visit. He says he has been feeling well and has no complaints. No significant past medical history or current medications. The patient reports a 35-pack-year smoking history but says he quit 5 years ago. His family history is significant for lung cancer in his father who died at age 67. His vital signs include: temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse 95/min, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 100/75 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Serum potassium 3.9 mEq/L
Serum sodium 140 mEq/L
Serum chloride 103 mEq/L
Serum calcium 2.5 mmol/L
BUN 15 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Glucose 95 mg/dL
Magnesium 1.7 mEq/L
Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L
Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
Bicarbonate (HCO3-) 25 mEq/L
Bilirubin, total 0.9 mg/dL
Bilirubin, indirect 0.4 mg/dL
AST 10 U/L
ALT 19 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase 40 U/L
Albumin 3.6 g/dL
Which of the following preventative screening tests is recommended for this patient at this time?
Q1026
A 37-year-old male presents to your clinic with shortness of breath and lower extremity edema. He was born in Southeast Asia and emigrated to America ten years prior. Examination demonstrates 2+ pitting edema to the level of his knees, ascites, and bibasilar crackles, as well as an opening snap followed by a mid-to-late diastolic murmur. The patient undergoes a right heart catheterization that demonstrates a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) of 24 mmHg. The patient is most likely to have which of the following?
Q1027
A 75-year-old woman presents to the emergency department because of a brief loss of consciousness, slurred speech, and facial numbness. Family members report that she complained about feeling chest pain and shortness of breath while on her morning walk. Medical history is noncontributory. Physical examination shows decreased pupil reactivity to light and hemiplegic gait. Her pulse is 120/min, respirations are 26/min, temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F), and blood pressure is 160/80 mm Hg. On heart auscultation, S1 is loud, widely split, and there is a diastolic murmur. Transthoracic echocardiography in a 4-chamber apical view revealed a large oval-shaped and sessile left atrial mass. Which of the following is the most likely complication of this patient's condition?
Q1028
A 51-year-old woman comes to the physician because of numbness of her legs and toes for 3 months. She has also had fatigue and occasional shortness of breath for the past 5 months. She is a painter. Examination shows pale conjunctivae. Sensation to vibration and position is absent over the lower extremities. She has a broad-based gait. The patient sways when she stands with her feet together and closes her eyes. Which of the following laboratory findings is most likely to be seen in this patient?
Q1029
Two days after undergoing emergency cardiac catherization for myocardial infarction, a 68-year-old woman has pain in her toes. During the intervention, she was found to have an occluded left anterior descending artery and 3 stents were placed. She has hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and coronary artery disease. Prior to admission, her medications were metoprolol, enalapril, atorvastatin, and aspirin. Her temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 93/min, and blood pressure is 115/78 mm Hg. Examination shows discoloration of the toes of both feet. A photograph of the right foot is shown. The lesions are cool and tender to palpation. The rest of the skin on the feet is warm; femoral and pedal pulses are palpable bilaterally. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
Q1030
A 60-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of shortness of breath that worsens on exertion. She also complains of chronic cough that has lasted for 10 years. Her symptoms are worsened even with light activities like climbing up a flight of stairs. She denies any weight loss, lightheadedness, or fever. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine daily. She has a 70-pack-year history of cigarette smoking and drinks 3–4 alcoholic beverages per week. Her blood pressure today is 128/84 mm Hg. A chest X-ray shows flattening of the diaphragm bilaterally. Physical examination is notable for coarse wheezing bilaterally. Which of the following is likely to be seen with pulmonary function testing?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1021: A 58-year-old man comes to the physician because of intermittent throbbing headaches over the past year. The headaches are worse when he wakes up and are not accompanied by other symptoms. The patient also reports trouble concentrating on daily tasks at work. His wife has been complaining lately about his snoring during sleep, which he attributes to his chronic sinusitis. He has a history of hypertension and an allergy to dust mites. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 14 years. His pulse is 72/min and blood pressure is 150/95 mm Hg. He is 178 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 120 kg (265 lb); BMI is 37.9 kg/m2. Neurological and cutaneous examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's hypertension?
A. Hypophyseal neoplasm
B. Hypersecretion of aldosterone
C. Nocturnal upper airway obstruction (Correct Answer)
D. Low synaptic serotonin levels
E. Low circulating free thyroxine levels
Explanation: ***Nocturnal upper airway obstruction***
- The patient's symptoms of **morning headaches**, **trouble concentrating**, **snoring**, and **obesity** (BMI 37.9) are highly suggestive of **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)**
- OSA is a well-known secondary cause of hypertension due to **intermittent hypoxia and sympathetic overactivity** during sleep
- The patient's existing hypertension and elevated blood pressure (150/95 mm Hg) are consistent with the cardiovascular complications of untreated OSA
*Hypophyseal neoplasm*
- While a pituitary tumor can cause hypertension (e.g., in Cushing's disease or acromegaly), this patient lacks classical signs like **moon facies, striae, or characteristic facial/hand changes**
- The primary symptoms of snoring and morning headaches point away from a hypophyseal neoplasm as the most likely cause
*Hypersecretion of aldosterone*
- Primary aldosteronism can cause hypertension often associated with **hypokalemia**, but this is not mentioned and is not typically linked to snoring or morning headaches
- This condition involves excessive aldosterone production leading to sodium retention and potassium excretion, but doesn't explain the sleep-related symptoms
*Low synaptic serotonin levels*
- Low serotonin levels are associated with **depression, anxiety, and sleep disturbances**, but not directly as a primary cause of hypertension or morning headaches
- While sleep issues can be related to serotonin, OSA directly causes the symptoms described and hypertension through different mechanisms (intermittent hypoxia and sympathetic activation)
*Low circulating free thyroxine levels*
- Hypothyroidism can cause hypertension, but other typical symptoms like **fatigue, cold intolerance, and bradycardia** are absent (patient has normal pulse of 72/min)
- The specific cluster of snoring, morning headaches, and obesity points more strongly toward obstructive sleep apnea than hypothyroidism
Question 1022: A 27-year-old man with a past medical history of type I diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with altered mental status. The patient was noted as becoming more lethargic and confused over the past day, prompting his roommates to bring him in. His temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 107/68 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 144 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 6.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 16 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 599 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the appropriate endpoint of treatment for this patient?
A. Clinically asymptomatic
B. Normal anion gap (Correct Answer)
C. Normal glucose
D. Vitals stable
E. Normal potassium
Explanation: ***Normal anion gap***
- A **normal anion gap** (approximately 8-12 mEq/L) indicates resolution of the **metabolic acidosis** characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The current anion gap is high (Na - (Cl + HCO3) = 144 - (100 + 16) = 28 mEq/L).
- The patient's presentation with **type 1 diabetes** and **altered mental status**, coupled with **hyperglycemia** (599 mg/dL) and **low bicarbonate** (16 mEq/L), is highly suggestive of DKA, for which anion gap normalization is a key treatment endpoint.
*Clinically asymptomatic*
- While a desirable outcome, resolution of symptoms occurs gradually and is not the primary biochemical endpoint for DKA treatment.
- Patients may have residual symptoms even after metabolic derangements have significantly improved.
*Normal glucose*
- In DKA treatment, glucose is allowed to drop to a level (e.g., <200 mg/dL) but not necessarily to normal range, before initiating **dextrose-containing intravenous fluids** to prevent hypoglycemia while continuing insulin.
- **Normal glucose** alone does not guarantee resolution of ketoacidosis, which is the main life-threatening aspect of DKA.
*Vitals stable*
- **Stable vital signs** indicate hemodynamic stability, which is crucial but does not confirm the resolution of the underlying DKA metabolic derangements.
- Vitals can stabilize or worsen independently of acidosis resolution, especially if complications arise.
*Normal potassium*
- **Potassium levels** are critical to monitor and correct during DKA treatment, as insulin administration drives potassium into cells, potentially causing **hypokalemia**.
- While important for patient safety, achieving a normal potassium level is part of supportive care and not the primary endpoint for resolving the ketoacidotic state itself.
Question 1023: A 70-year-old man with a 2 year history of Alzheimer disease is brought in from his nursing facility with altered mental status and recurrent falls during the past few days. Current medications include donepezil and galantamine. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.0°C (96.8°F), blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate 102/min, respiratory rate 22/min. Physical examination reveals several lacerations on his head and extremities. He is oriented only to the person. Urine and blood cultures are positive for E. coli. The patient is admitted and initial treatment with IV fluids, antibiotics, and subcutaneous prophylactic heparin. On the second day of hospitalization, diffuse bleeding from venipuncture sites and wounds is observed. His blood test results show thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT and PTT, and a positive D-dimer. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's condition?
A. Cryoprecipitate, FFP and low dose SC heparin
B. Start prednisone therapy
C. Immediately cease heparin therapy and prescribe an alternative anticoagulant (Correct Answer)
D. Splenectomy
E. Urgent plasma exchange
Explanation: ***Immediately cease heparin therapy and prescribe an alternative anticoagulant***
- This patient presents with **disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)** secondary to severe **sepsis** (E. coli bacteremia), characterized by **thrombocytopenia**, **prolonged PT and PTT**, **positive D-dimer**, and **diffuse bleeding**.
- In DIC with active bleeding, **heparin must be stopped immediately** as it will worsen the bleeding by preventing clot formation.
- The primary management of DIC is **treating the underlying cause** (sepsis with antibiotics and IV fluids, already initiated) and **supportive care** with blood product replacement as needed.
- Alternative anticoagulation is generally **not needed acutely** in DIC with bleeding, but stopping heparin is the critical first step to prevent further hemorrhage.
*Cryoprecipitate, FFP and low dose SC heparin*
- **Cryoprecipitate** (source of fibrinogen and factor VIII) and **FFP** (contains all clotting factors) are appropriate for severe DIC with bleeding to replace consumed coagulation factors.
- However, continuing **low-dose subcutaneous heparin** is contraindicated in a patient with active diffuse bleeding from DIC, as it will worsen the hemorrhage.
- The correct approach is blood product replacement WITHOUT ongoing anticoagulation when bleeding is the dominant feature.
*Start prednisone therapy*
- **Corticosteroids** have no role in the management of DIC, which is a consumptive coagulopathy triggered by systemic activation of coagulation.
- Steroids are used for immune-mediated thrombocytopenias like **ITP**, not for DIC where platelets are consumed in microthrombi.
- The treatment focus in DIC is addressing the underlying trigger (sepsis) and replacing consumed factors.
*Splenectomy*
- **Splenectomy** is used for refractory immune-mediated conditions like chronic **ITP** or certain hemolytic anemias, not for consumptive coagulopathy.
- DIC is managed medically by treating the underlying cause and providing supportive care; surgical intervention has no role.
- The spleen is not involved in the pathophysiology of DIC.
*Urgent plasma exchange*
- **Plasma exchange (plasmapheresis)** is the emergent treatment for **thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)**, which presents with the classic pentad: thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, fever, neurologic symptoms, and renal dysfunction.
- While some features overlap (thrombocytopenia, altered mental status), this patient's presentation with **sepsis**, **prolonged PT/PTT**, **positive D-dimer**, and **diffuse bleeding** is diagnostic of **DIC**, not TTP.
- TTP typically has **normal coagulation studies** (PT/PTT), distinguishing it from DIC.
Question 1024: A 69-year-old male presents to the emergency department for slurred speech and an inability to use his right arm which occurred while he was eating dinner. The patient arrived at the emergency department within one hour. A CT scan was performed of the head and did not reveal any signs of hemorrhage. The patient is given thrombolytics and is then managed on the neurology floor. Three days later, the patient is recovering and is stable. He seems depressed but is doing well with his symptoms gradually improving as compared to his initial presentation. The patient complains of neck pain that has worsened slowly over the past few days for which he is being given ibuprofen. Laboratory values are ordered and return as indicated below:
Serum:
Na+: 130 mEq/L
K+: 3.7 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 7 mg/dL
Glucose: 70 mg/dL
Creatinine: 0.9 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.7 mg/dL
Urine:
Appearance: dark
Glucose: negative
WBC: 0/hpf
Bacterial: none
Na+: 320 mEq/L/24 hours
His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 95/min, blood pressure is 129/70 mmHg, respirations are 10/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Demeclocycline
B. Fluid restriction (Correct Answer)
C. Oral salt tablets
D. Continue conservative management
E. Conivaptan
Explanation: ***Fluid restriction***
- The patient presents with **hyponatremia** (Na+ 130 mEq/L) and elevated urine sodium (320 mEq/L/24 hours) in the setting of recent stroke and possible SIADH (**Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone secretion**).
- **Fluid restriction** is the initial and most crucial step in managing euvolemic hyponatremia due to SIADH, reducing water intake to allow the kidney to excrete excess water and correct serum sodium.
*Demeclocycline*
- **Demeclocycline** is a tetracycline derivative that inhibits the action of ADH on renal tubules, used in chronic or refractory cases of SIADH.
- It is *not* the first-line treatment for acute, moderate hyponatremia, especially when fluid restriction has not yet been attempted.
*Oral salt tablets*
- **Oral salt tablets** would increase the solute load but would also draw water, potentially worsening hyponatremia if unrestricted fluid intake persists in SIADH.
- This intervention is generally not appropriate for **euvolemic hyponatremia** where the primary issue is excess free water.
*Continue conservative management*
- With a sodium level of 130 mEq/L, this is considered **mild to moderate hyponatremia** and requires active intervention to prevent potential neurological complications.
- Simply continuing conservative management without addressing the underlying **hyponatremia** or its cause would be inadequate and potentially harmful.
*Conivaptan*
- **Conivaptan** is an ADH receptor antagonist that can be used for persistent or significant hyponatremia in SIADH.
- It is typically reserved for more severe or refractory cases of hyponatremia and is usually administered intravenously, making it less suitable as a first-line outpatient management strategy.
Question 1025: A 57-year-old man presents for his yearly wellness visit. He says he has been feeling well and has no complaints. No significant past medical history or current medications. The patient reports a 35-pack-year smoking history but says he quit 5 years ago. His family history is significant for lung cancer in his father who died at age 67. His vital signs include: temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse 95/min, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 100/75 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Serum potassium 3.9 mEq/L
Serum sodium 140 mEq/L
Serum chloride 103 mEq/L
Serum calcium 2.5 mmol/L
BUN 15 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Glucose 95 mg/dL
Magnesium 1.7 mEq/L
Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L
Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
Bicarbonate (HCO3-) 25 mEq/L
Bilirubin, total 0.9 mg/dL
Bilirubin, indirect 0.4 mg/dL
AST 10 U/L
ALT 19 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase 40 U/L
Albumin 3.6 g/dL
Which of the following preventative screening tests is recommended for this patient at this time?
A. Abdominal ultrasound
B. No screening indicated
C. Low-dose CT scan (LDCT) of the chest (Correct Answer)
D. ECG
E. Chest X-ray
Explanation: ***Low-dose CT scan (LDCT) of the chest***
- The patient meets the criteria for **lung cancer screening** due to his age (57), significant **smoking history** (35 pack-years), and quitting within the last 15 years (5 years ago).
- Guidelines recommend annual **LDCT** for individuals aged 50-80 with a 20+ pack-year smoking history who currently smoke or have quit within the past 15 years.
*Abdominal ultrasound*
- This test is not routinely recommended for asymptomatic individuals for general screening; its use is typically for specific symptoms or risks (e.g., abdominal pain, family history of abdominal aortic aneurysm).
- The patient has no symptoms or risk factors that would suggest the need for an abdominal ultrasound at this time.
*No screening indicated*
- Given the patient's **heavy smoking history** and age, there is a clear indication for **lung cancer screening**.
- Skipping screening would miss an opportunity for early detection of lung cancer, which is crucial for improving outcomes.
*ECG*
- An **ECG** screens for cardiac abnormalities but is not a primary screening tool for lung cancer.
- While smoking is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, the immediate and most pressing screening need based on his history is related to lung cancer.
*Chest X-ray*
- A **chest X-ray** is generally not recommended for **lung cancer screening** in high-risk individuals because it has lower sensitivity compared to **LDCT** for detecting early-stage tumors.
- **LDCT** is the preferred method for lung cancer screening due to its superior ability to detect small, actionable lesions.
Question 1026: A 37-year-old male presents to your clinic with shortness of breath and lower extremity edema. He was born in Southeast Asia and emigrated to America ten years prior. Examination demonstrates 2+ pitting edema to the level of his knees, ascites, and bibasilar crackles, as well as an opening snap followed by a mid-to-late diastolic murmur. The patient undergoes a right heart catheterization that demonstrates a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) of 24 mmHg. The patient is most likely to have which of the following?
A. Normal or decreased left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP) (Correct Answer)
B. Decreased transmitral gradient
C. Decreased pulmonary artery systolic pressure (PASP)
D. Increased left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP)
E. Increased pulmonary vascular compliance
Explanation: ***Normal or decreased left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP)***
- The patient's symptoms (opening snap, mid-to-late diastolic murmur, Southeast Asian origin) strongly suggest **mitral stenosis**.
- In mitral stenosis, the obstruction at the **mitral valve** leads to elevated left atrial pressure (reflected by the high PCWP), but the left ventricle itself is not failing, so LVEDP is typically normal or even decreased.
*Decreased transmitral gradient*
- A **mid-to-late diastolic murmur** and an **opening snap** are classic signs of mitral stenosis, indicating a high pressure gradient across the mitral valve during diastole.
- A decreased transmitral gradient would imply reduced obstruction, which contradicts the patient's strong clinical presentation.
*Decreased pulmonary artery systolic pressure (PASP)*
- Elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) of 24 mmHg indicates **pulmonary hypertension secondary to left atrial pressure elevation** in mitral stenosis.
- This consistently leads to an **increased pulmonary artery systolic pressure (PASP)**, not a decreased one, as the right ventricle has to work harder to pump blood through the high-pressure pulmonary vasculature.
*Increased left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP)*
- While PCWP is elevated due to **left atrial pressure overload** in mitral stenosis, the left ventricle itself is not volume or pressure overloaded during diastole.
- The LVEDP would only be increased if there was actual left ventricular dysfunction or aortic valve disease, which is not suggested here.
*Increased pulmonary vascular compliance*
- Chronic pulmonary hypertension, as seen in advanced mitral stenosis with high PCWP, leads to **pulmonary vascular remodeling** and **decreased pulmonary vascular compliance**.
- The pulmonary vessels become stiffer and less distensible, not more compliant.
Question 1027: A 75-year-old woman presents to the emergency department because of a brief loss of consciousness, slurred speech, and facial numbness. Family members report that she complained about feeling chest pain and shortness of breath while on her morning walk. Medical history is noncontributory. Physical examination shows decreased pupil reactivity to light and hemiplegic gait. Her pulse is 120/min, respirations are 26/min, temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F), and blood pressure is 160/80 mm Hg. On heart auscultation, S1 is loud, widely split, and there is a diastolic murmur. Transthoracic echocardiography in a 4-chamber apical view revealed a large oval-shaped and sessile left atrial mass. Which of the following is the most likely complication of this patient's condition?
A. Atrioventricular block
B. Systemic embolization (Correct Answer)
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Mitral valve obstruction
E. Congestive heart failure
Explanation: ***Systemic embolization***
- This patient presents with **clear evidence of systemic embolization** from a left atrial myxoma: brief loss of consciousness, slurred speech, facial numbness, hemiplegic gait, and decreased pupil reactivity - all classic signs of **cerebral embolism**.
- **Systemic embolization is the most common complication** of left atrial myxoma, occurring in **30-40% of cases**, and can lead to stroke, transient ischemic attacks, or peripheral arterial occlusion.
- The large, sessile left atrial mass on echocardiography confirms the diagnosis of left atrial myxoma, and the patient is **actively experiencing** this life-threatening complication.
*Mitral valve obstruction*
- While this patient does have signs of mitral valve obstruction (loud, widely split S1 and diastolic murmur mimicking mitral stenosis), this represents a **chronic mechanical effect** of the tumor rather than an acute complication.
- The tumor can obstruct the mitral valve and cause symptoms of dyspnea and chest pain, but the **neurological deficits are the most critical acute complication** requiring immediate intervention.
*Congestive heart failure*
- Although dyspnea and chest pain could suggest heart failure, these symptoms in the context of a left atrial myxoma are more likely due to **mitral valve obstruction** rather than primary myocardial dysfunction.
- Heart failure can develop over time with chronic obstruction, but it is not the **most common or most serious acute complication** of left atrial myxoma.
*Atrioventricular block*
- AV block is a **rare complication** of left atrial myxoma and would require tumor extension into the conduction system.
- The patient's tachycardia (pulse 120/min) and the presence of neurological symptoms point to embolization rather than a conduction abnormality.
*Atrial fibrillation*
- While atrial arrhythmias can occur due to irritation of the atrial wall by the myxoma, atrial fibrillation is **less common than systemic embolization** as a complication.
- The patient's symptoms are dominated by acute neurological deficits from embolic stroke, not rhythm disturbances.
Question 1028: A 51-year-old woman comes to the physician because of numbness of her legs and toes for 3 months. She has also had fatigue and occasional shortness of breath for the past 5 months. She is a painter. Examination shows pale conjunctivae. Sensation to vibration and position is absent over the lower extremities. She has a broad-based gait. The patient sways when she stands with her feet together and closes her eyes. Which of the following laboratory findings is most likely to be seen in this patient?
A. Poliovirus RNA in cerebrospinal fluid
B. Positive rapid plasma reagin test
C. Basophilic stippling on peripheral smear
D. Oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid
E. Elevated methylmalonic acid levels (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Elevated methylmalonic acid levels***
- The patient's symptoms (numbness, fatigue, shortness of breath, pale conjunctivae, loss of vibration and position sensation, broad-based gait, positive Romberg sign) are classic for **vitamin B12 deficiency**, which leads to **megaloblastic anemia** and **subacute combined degeneration** of the spinal cord.
- **Elevated methylmalonic acid** and homocysteine levels are hallmark laboratory findings in vitamin B12 deficiency, as B12 is a cofactor for the enzyme **methylmalonyl-CoA mutase**.
*Poliovirus RNA in cerebrospinal fluid*
- **Poliovirus RNA** in CSF indicates poliomyelitis, which typically presents with **acute flaccid paralysis** and meningeal signs, not the chronic sensory and gait disturbances described here.
- The disease has largely been eradicated in many parts of the world due to vaccination, making it a less likely diagnosis in this context.
*Positive rapid plasma reagin test*
- A **positive rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test** indicates syphilis, and neurosyphilis can cause neurological symptoms, but the classic presentation described (numbness, gait disturbance, anemia) is more characteristic of vitamin B12 deficiency.
- While neurosyphilis can affect proprioception (tabes dorsalis), the symptom complex presented here, especially with the fatigue and pallor, points away from syphilis as the primary diagnosis.
*Basophilic stippling on peripheral smear*
- **Basophilic stippling** on a peripheral smear is a characteristic finding in **lead poisoning** (plumbism), which can cause neuropathy and anemia, especially in a painter. However, the specific neurological deficits (loss of vibration and position sense) and the broad-based gait are more prominent in vitamin B12 deficiency.
- While lead poisoning should be considered due to her occupation, the constellation of neurological and hematological findings points more strongly toward B12 deficiency.
*Oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid*
- **Oligoclonal bands** in CSF are indicative of **multiple sclerosis (MS)** or other inflammatory demyelinating diseases of the central nervous system.
- While MS can cause numbness and gait ataxia, the description of pale conjunctivae, fatigue, and specific deficits in vibration and position sense, along with a broad-based gait and a positive Romberg sign, strongly aligns with a nutritional deficiency like B12 rather than MS.
Question 1029: Two days after undergoing emergency cardiac catherization for myocardial infarction, a 68-year-old woman has pain in her toes. During the intervention, she was found to have an occluded left anterior descending artery and 3 stents were placed. She has hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and coronary artery disease. Prior to admission, her medications were metoprolol, enalapril, atorvastatin, and aspirin. Her temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 93/min, and blood pressure is 115/78 mm Hg. Examination shows discoloration of the toes of both feet. A photograph of the right foot is shown. The lesions are cool and tender to palpation. The rest of the skin on the feet is warm; femoral and pedal pulses are palpable bilaterally. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
A. Acute kidney injury (Correct Answer)
B. Migratory thrombophlebitis
C. Basophilia
D. Permanent flexion contracture
E. Lipodermatosclerosis
Explanation: ***Acute kidney injury***
- This patient's presentation of painful, discolored, cool toes with palpable pulses (suggesting microembolism rather than large vessel occlusion) following cardiac catheterization is highly suggestive of **cholesterol atheroembolism**. This condition commonly leads to **acute kidney injury** as cholesterol crystals dislodge from atheromatous plaques and embolize to renal arteries.
- The risk of acute kidney injury is significant in cholesterol atheroembolism due to widespread microvascular occlusion in the kidneys, leading to **ischemic damage** and **renal dysfunction**.
*Migratory thrombophlebitis*
- **Migratory thrombophlebitis** (Trousseau's sign) is characterized by recurrent, migratory episodes of superficial venous thrombosis, often associated with underlying malignancy.
- It would present with **palpable, tender, cord-like veins** typically in the extremities, rather than multifocal discoloration of the toes.
*Basophilia*
- While **eosinophilia** is often associated with cholesterol atheroembolism due to the inflammatory response to cholesterol crystals, **basophilia** (an increase in basophils) is not a typical finding or complication.
- Basophilia can be seen in myeloproliferative disorders or allergic reactions, which are not suggested by this clinical picture.
*Permanent flexion contracture*
- A permanent flexion contracture is a **fixed deformation** of a joint, preventing full extension. It is typically caused by chronic inflammation, muscle imbalances, or prolonged immobilization.
- This is a long-term orthopedic complication that would not develop acutely **2 days after a cardiac catheterization** or be directly related to microembolism.
*Lipodermatosclerosis*
- **Lipodermatosclerosis** is a localized chronic inflammation and thickening of the skin and subcutaneous tissue, typically in the lower legs, associated with **chronic venous insufficiency**.
- It presents with **brawny edema**, hyperpigmentation, and inverted champagne bottle appearance of the leg, which is distinctly different from the acute painful toe discoloration seen here.
Question 1030: A 60-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of shortness of breath that worsens on exertion. She also complains of chronic cough that has lasted for 10 years. Her symptoms are worsened even with light activities like climbing up a flight of stairs. She denies any weight loss, lightheadedness, or fever. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine daily. She has a 70-pack-year history of cigarette smoking and drinks 3–4 alcoholic beverages per week. Her blood pressure today is 128/84 mm Hg. A chest X-ray shows flattening of the diaphragm bilaterally. Physical examination is notable for coarse wheezing bilaterally. Which of the following is likely to be seen with pulmonary function testing?
A. Decreased FEV1: FVC and decreased total lung capacity
B. Normal FEV1: FVC and decreased total lung capacity
C. Increased FEV1: FVC and decreased total lung capacity
D. Decreased FEV1: FVC and increased total lung capacity (Correct Answer)
E. Increased FEV1: FVC and normal total lung capacity
Explanation: ***Decreased FEV1:FVC ratio and increased total lung capacity***
- This patient's symptoms (shortness of breath on exertion, chronic cough, 70-pack-year smoking history, coarse wheezing, and diaphragmatic flattening on X-ray) are highly suggestive of **Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)**, specifically **emphysema**, an obstructive lung disease.
- In COPD, there is airflow limitation, causing a **decreased FEV1:FVC ratio** (typically <0.70). Over time, air trapping occurs due to damaged alveoli and loss of elastic recoil, leading to an **increased total lung capacity (TLC)** and residual volume.
*Decreased FEV1:FVC ratio and decreased total lung capacity*
- A **decreased FEV1:FVC ratio** indicates an **obstructive lung disease**.
- However, a **decreased total lung capacity (TLC)** is characteristic of a **restrictive lung disease**, which does not align with the patient's presentation typical of COPD/emphysema.
*Normal FEV1:FVC ratio and decreased total lung capacity*
- A **normal FEV1:FVC ratio** is inconsistent with the patient's strong history of smoking and symptoms suggestive of airflow obstruction.
- A **decreased total lung capacity (TLC)** indicates a restrictive lung disease, which is not the primary diagnosis here.
*Increased FEV1:FVC ratio and decreased total lung capacity*
- An **increased FEV1:FVC ratio** is not physiologically possible in significant lung disease and is therefore incorrect.
- A **decreased total lung capacity (TLC)** would point towards a restrictive pattern not seen in generalized emphysema.
*Increased FEV1:FVC ratio and normal total lung capacity*
- An **increased FEV1:FVC ratio** is not a characteristic finding in any lung disease and is therefore incorrect.
- A **normal total lung capacity** would not be expected in advanced emphysema where air trapping is prominent.