A 33-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with weakness. She states that at the end of the day she feels so fatigued and weak that she can hardly care for herself. She currently feels this way. The patient has had multiple illnesses recently and has been traveling, hiking, and camping. Her temperature is 98.0°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 124/84 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for 2/5 strength of the upper extremities and 4/5 strength of the lower extremities. Visual exam is notable for mild diplopia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q1012
A 32-year-old male presents for a new patient visit. He states that he is in good health but has had decreasing exercise tolerance and increased levels of shortness of breath over the past 5 years. He believed that it was due to aging; he has not seen a doctor in 10 years. On auscultation, you note an early diastolic decrescendo blowing murmur that radiates along the left sternal border. In the United States, what is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Q1013
A 45 year-old gentleman presents to his primary care physician complaining of wrist pain and is diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. Upon further questioning, the patient admits that he has recently been outgrowing his gloves and shoes and has had to purchase a new hat as well due to increased head size. Upon exam, he is found to have new mild hypertension and on basic labs he is found to be hyperglycemic. Which of the following is the best blood test to diagnose his suspected disorder?
Q1014
A 59-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with chest pain and hoarseness. Patient reports that his hoarseness onset gradually approximately 2 weeks ago and has steadily worsened. He states that approximately 2 hours ago he had sudden onset chest pain which has not improved. The patient describes the chest pain as severe, sharp in character, localized to the midline and radiating to the back. Past medical history is significant for hypertension diagnosed 10 years previously, which was being managed medically, although patient admits he stopped taking his medication and has not been to his doctor in the last couple of years. No current medications. Patient admits to a 20-pack-year smoking history.
Vital signs are temperature 37 °C (98.6 °F), blood pressure 169/100 mm Hg, pulse 85/min, respiration rate 19/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. On physical exam, patient is diaphoretic and in distress. Cardiac exam is significant for an early diastolic murmur. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Remainder of physical exam is normal. While performing the exam, the patient suddenly grips his chest and has a syncopal episode. He cannot be roused. Repeat vital signs show blood pressure 85/50 mm Hg, pulse 145/min, respiration rate 25/min, and oxygen saturation 92% on room air. Extremities are pale and cool.
Patient is intubated. High flow supplemental oxygen and aggressive fluid resuscitation are initiated. Type and crossmatch are ordered. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Q1015
A 43-year-old man visits his physician’s office for a routine check-up. He tells his physician that he is otherwise healthy, except for persistent headaches that he gets every morning. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has been changing glove sizes quite frequently over the past couple of years. His wedding ring doesn’t fit him anymore. He thought this was probably due to some extra weight that he has put on. Vital signs include: blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg, heart rate 82/min, and respiratory rate 21/min. His current physical appearance is cataloged in the image. His past medical history is significant for diabetes for which he has been receiving treatment for the past 2 years. Which of the following organs most likely has a structural abnormality that has resulted in this patient’s current presentation?
Q1016
A 41-year-old man presents to a New Mexico emergency department with a 12 hour history of shortness of breath and a nonproductive cough. He says that last week he experienced fevers, chills, fatigue, and myalgias but assumed that he simply had a cold. The symptoms went away after 3 days and he felt fine for several days afterward until he started experiencing shortness of breath even at rest. He works as an exterminator and recently had a job in a rodent infested home. Physical exam reveals a thin, tachypneic man with diffuse rales bilaterally. The most likely cause of this patient's symptoms is associated with which of the following?
Q1017
A 51-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of an aggressive cough with copious amounts of thick, foamy, yellow-green sputum. She says she has had this cough for about 11 years with exacerbations similar to her presentation today. She also reports that her cough is worse in the morning. She was evaluated multiple times in the past because of recurrent bouts of bronchitis that have required treatment with antibiotics. She is a non-smoker. On physical examination, the blood pressure is 125/78 mm Hg, pulse rate is 80/min, respiratory rate is 16/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). Chest auscultation reveals crackles and wheezing over the right middle lobe and the rest of her physical examinations are normal. The chest X-ray shows irregular opacities in the right middle lobe and diffuse airway thickening. Based on this history and physical examination, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q1018
A 44-year-old woman with recurrent urinary tract infections is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after sudden onset of severe headache 30 minutes ago. She has a history of occasional, mild headaches in the morning. There is no other history of serious illness. Both her father and her paternal grandmother died of chronic kidney disease. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.1°F) and blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows neck stiffness. When her hip is flexed, she is unable to fully extend her knee because of pain. Lumbar puncture performed 12 hours after headache onset yields 10 mL of yellow-colored fluid with no leukocytes. Which of the following is the most likely predisposing factor for this patient's current condition?
Q1019
A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department because of difficulty breathing and sharp chest pain. The chest pain increases in intensity with lying down, and it radiates to the scapular ridge. Approximately 3 weeks ago, he had an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction, which was treated with intravenous alteplase. He was discharged home in a stable condition. Current vital signs include a temperature of 38.1 (100.5°F), blood pressure of 131/91 mm Hg, and pulse of 99/min. On examination, heart sounds are distant and a scratching sound is heard on the left sternal border. ECG reveals widespread concave ST elevations in the precordial leads and PR depressions in leads V2-V6. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient condition?
Q1020
A 20-year-old man comes to the emergency room because of palpitations and mild dyspnea for the last 2 hours. He has had similar episodes in the past that resolved within 20 minutes, but they have been worsening since he started training for his first marathon 1 month ago. Ten years ago, he was treated for streptococcal pharyngitis with a 10-day course of penicillin. His maternal uncle passed away unexpectedly from a heart condition at age 40. He is 180 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 85 kg (187 lb); BMI is 26.2 kg/m2. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 132/60 mm Hg. On examination, there is a decrescendo early diastolic murmur heard best along the left sternal border. His head slightly bobs about every second. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely to be present?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: A 33-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with weakness. She states that at the end of the day she feels so fatigued and weak that she can hardly care for herself. She currently feels this way. The patient has had multiple illnesses recently and has been traveling, hiking, and camping. Her temperature is 98.0°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 124/84 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for 2/5 strength of the upper extremities and 4/5 strength of the lower extremities. Visual exam is notable for mild diplopia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Guillain-Barre syndrome
B. Myasthenia gravis (Correct Answer)
C. Lambert-Eaton syndrome
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E. Tick paralysis
Explanation: ***Myasthenia gravis***
- The patient's **fatigue and weakness that worsen throughout the day** (end-of-day weakness) and are exacerbated by activity (caring for herself) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis, caused by **autoantibodies to acetylcholine receptors** at the neuromuscular junction.
- The presence of **diplopia** (ocular weakness) along with generalized weakness further supports this diagnosis, as ocular symptoms are very common first manifestations.
*Guillain-Barre syndrome*
- This presents with **ascending paralysis**, typically starting in the lower extremities and progressing upwards over days to weeks. The patient's weakness is not described as ascending and ocular symptoms are less common as an initial presentation.
- Often follows a **viral or bacterial infection** with a monophasic course, while myasthenia gravis has a fluctuating pattern.
*Lambert-Eaton syndrome*
- Characteristically presents with **proximal muscle weakness** that **improves with exertion** due to increased acetylcholine release with repetitive stimulation, which is opposite to the patient's presentation.
- It is frequently associated with **small cell lung cancer** and often includes autonomic dysfunction such as dry mouth or erectile dysfunction, which are not mentioned here.
*Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis*
- This is a progressive neurodegenerative disease involving both **upper and lower motor neuron signs**, leading to muscle atrophy and fasciculations.
- Weakness is typically progressive and permanent, not fluctuating or improving, and **diplopia would be an atypical initial symptom**.
*Tick paralysis*
- Characterized by **ascending flaccid paralysis** that develops over hours to days after a tick bite, often associated with a discoverable tick.
- Weakness is typically rapidly progressive and systemic symptoms like fever or rash might be present, which are not described.
Question 1012: A 32-year-old male presents for a new patient visit. He states that he is in good health but has had decreasing exercise tolerance and increased levels of shortness of breath over the past 5 years. He believed that it was due to aging; he has not seen a doctor in 10 years. On auscultation, you note an early diastolic decrescendo blowing murmur that radiates along the left sternal border. In the United States, what is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. Connective tissue disease
B. Congenital bicuspid aortic valve (Correct Answer)
C. Syphilis
D. Rheumatic heart disease
E. Myxomatous degeneration
Explanation: ***Congenital bicuspid aortic valve***
- The patient's age (32 years old), progressive symptoms of **aortic regurgitation** (decreasing exercise tolerance, shortness of breath, early diastolic decrescendo murmur), and location of the murmur are highly suggestive of a **bicuspid aortic valve**.
- This is the **most common congenital heart defect**, affecting 1-2% of the population, and is the leading cause of **aortic stenosis** and **aortic insufficiency** in younger adults in developed countries.
*Connective tissue disease*
- While connective tissue diseases such as **Marfan syndrome** or **Ehlers-Danlos syndrome** can cause aortic root dilation and regurgitation, they are less common than a bicuspid aortic valve as a primary cause of isolated aortic regurgitation in this age group.
- These conditions typically present with other systemic features (e.g., arachnodactyly, skin hyperextensibility) that are not mentioned in the patient's history.
*Syphilis*
- **Syphilitic aortitis** can cause aortic root dilation and aortic regurgitation, typically as a late-stage manifestation of **tertiary syphilis**.
- While possible, it is less common in developed countries today due to effective antibiotic treatment, and the patient's asymptomatic progression over 5 years might suggest a congenital rather than an infectious cause in this context.
*Rheumatic heart disease*
- **Rheumatic fever** is a common cause of valvular heart disease globally, but its incidence has significantly declined in developed countries due to improved hygiene and antibiotic use for **streptococcal infections**.
- While it can affect the aortic valve, it more commonly affects the **mitral valve** and usually presents with symptoms earlier in life or with a history of recurrent fevers.
*Myxomatous degeneration*
- **Myxomatous degeneration** primarily affects the **mitral valve**, leading to **mitral valve prolapse** and regurgitation.
- While it can sometimes affect the aortic valve, it is a less common cause of isolated aortic regurgitation and often presents with different clinical features or imaging findings.
Question 1013: A 45 year-old gentleman presents to his primary care physician complaining of wrist pain and is diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. Upon further questioning, the patient admits that he has recently been outgrowing his gloves and shoes and has had to purchase a new hat as well due to increased head size. Upon exam, he is found to have new mild hypertension and on basic labs he is found to be hyperglycemic. Which of the following is the best blood test to diagnose his suspected disorder?
A. Hydroxyproline level
B. Cortisol level
C. Alkaline Phosphatase level
D. IGF-1 level (Correct Answer)
E. Growth Hormone level
Explanation: ***IGF-1 level***
- The patient's symptoms of increased glove, shoe, and hat size, along with carpal tunnel syndrome, hypertension, and hyperglycemia, are highly suggestive of **acromegaly**.
- **IGF-1 (Insulin-like Growth Factor 1)** levels are generally stable throughout the day and are directly correlated with average growth hormone (GH) levels, making it the **best initial screening test** for acromegaly.
*Growth Hormone level*
- While acromegaly is caused by **excess growth hormone**, a single random GH level can be misleading due to its **pulsatile secretion**.
- A more definitive diagnostic test for acromegaly involves a **glucose suppression test** by measuring GH levels after an oral glucose load, but IGF-1 is the preferred initial screening.
*Hydroxyproline level*
- **Hydroxyproline** is an amino acid primarily found in **collagen** and its urinary excretion can indicate collagen turnover.
- It is not a primary diagnostic marker for acromegaly and is more relevant in conditions involving bone metabolism or collagen degradation.
*Cortisol level*
- **Cortisol** is a steroid hormone associated with stress response and conditions like **Cushing's syndrome** or **Addison's disease**.
- While acromegaly can sometimes coexist with other pituitary disorders, cortisol levels are not the most appropriate initial test for the suspected diagnosis of acromegaly.
*Alkaline Phosphatase level*
- **Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)** is an enzyme found in various tissues, including bone, liver, and kidneys.
- Elevated ALP typically indicates **bone turnover** (e.g., Paget's disease, osteomalacia) or liver disease, and is not a specific diagnostic marker for acromegaly.
Question 1014: A 59-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with chest pain and hoarseness. Patient reports that his hoarseness onset gradually approximately 2 weeks ago and has steadily worsened. He states that approximately 2 hours ago he had sudden onset chest pain which has not improved. The patient describes the chest pain as severe, sharp in character, localized to the midline and radiating to the back. Past medical history is significant for hypertension diagnosed 10 years previously, which was being managed medically, although patient admits he stopped taking his medication and has not been to his doctor in the last couple of years. No current medications. Patient admits to a 20-pack-year smoking history.
Vital signs are temperature 37 °C (98.6 °F), blood pressure 169/100 mm Hg, pulse 85/min, respiration rate 19/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. On physical exam, patient is diaphoretic and in distress. Cardiac exam is significant for an early diastolic murmur. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Remainder of physical exam is normal. While performing the exam, the patient suddenly grips his chest and has a syncopal episode. He cannot be roused. Repeat vital signs show blood pressure 85/50 mm Hg, pulse 145/min, respiration rate 25/min, and oxygen saturation 92% on room air. Extremities are pale and cool.
Patient is intubated. High flow supplemental oxygen and aggressive fluid resuscitation are initiated. Type and crossmatch are ordered. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
A. EKG
B. Emergency surgery
C. Chest X-ray
D. Cardiac troponins
E. Transthoracic echocardiography (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Transthoracic echocardiography***
- The patient presents with classic signs of **aortic dissection**, including sudden onset severe, tearing chest pain radiating to the back, uncontrolled hypertension, new-onset diastolic murmur, and finally a syncopal episode with hemodynamic instability.
- In this **hemodynamically unstable patient**, a **transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE)** is the best next step as it is a **rapid, non-invasive bedside investigation** that can be performed without transporting the patient. This is critical as the patient cannot safely be moved to CT scanner.
- TTE can visualize dilation of the **aortic root**, an **intimal flap**, and **aortic regurgitation**, which are key findings in aortic dissection. While transesophageal echo (TEE) has higher sensitivity, TTE remains the most appropriate initial bedside imaging in an unstable patient to guide immediate management decisions.
*EKG*
- While an EKG is often performed for chest pain, it primarily assesses for **myocardial ischemia or infarction** and would likely show non-specific changes or signs of left ventricular hypertrophy in this case, not providing a definitive diagnosis for aortic dissection.
- Relying solely on an EKG would delay the necessary diagnostic imaging for a life-threatening condition like aortic dissection.
*Emergency surgery*
- While emergency surgery is the definitive treatment for **Type A aortic dissection**, it should only be performed after a definitive diagnosis has been established through imaging.
- Proceeding directly to surgery without confirming the diagnosis with imaging could lead to unnecessary or inappropriate interventions.
*Chest X-ray*
- A chest X-ray can show a **widened mediastinum** or **pleural effusion** in aortic dissection, but it is not sensitive or specific enough to confirm the diagnosis definitively.
- It would not visualize the **intimal flap** or the extent of the dissection, which is crucial for surgical planning.
*Cardiac troponins*
- Cardiac troponins are used to diagnose **myocardial infarction** and would likely be elevated if the aortic dissection involved the coronary arteries.
- However, troponin elevation in the setting of aortic dissection indicates secondary myocardial damage, not the primary diagnosis, and would not provide the necessary structural information.
Question 1015: A 43-year-old man visits his physician’s office for a routine check-up. He tells his physician that he is otherwise healthy, except for persistent headaches that he gets every morning. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has been changing glove sizes quite frequently over the past couple of years. His wedding ring doesn’t fit him anymore. He thought this was probably due to some extra weight that he has put on. Vital signs include: blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg, heart rate 82/min, and respiratory rate 21/min. His current physical appearance is cataloged in the image. His past medical history is significant for diabetes for which he has been receiving treatment for the past 2 years. Which of the following organs most likely has a structural abnormality that has resulted in this patient’s current presentation?
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Posterior pituitary gland
D. Lungs
E. Anterior pituitary gland (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anterior pituitary gland***
- The patient's symptoms, including **persistent headaches**, **increasing glove and ring sizes**, and **physical appearance** suggestive of facial and acral growth, are classic signs of **acromegaly**.
- **Acromegaly** is most commonly caused by a **growth hormone-secreting adenoma** of the **anterior pituitary gland**, leading to excess growth hormone production.
*Liver*
- While the liver plays a role in metabolism and produces **insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)**, it is not the primary site of pathology in acromegaly.
- Liver abnormalities would typically present with symptoms such as jaundice, fatigue, or abdominal pain, which are not the patient's primary complaints.
*Pancreas*
- The pancreas is responsible for insulin production, and its dysfunction leads to **diabetes mellitus**. While the patient has diabetes, this is often a **secondary complication** of acromegaly due to insulin resistance, rather than the primary cause of the growth-related symptoms.
- A primary pancreatic structural abnormality would not explain the generalized growth of extremities and facial features.
*Posterior pituitary gland*
- The **posterior pituitary gland** primarily secretes **vasopressin (ADH)** and **oxytocin**.
- Structural abnormalities here would typically result in disorders like **diabetes insipidus** (due to ADH deficiency) or syndromes related to oxytocin, not the growth-related symptoms seen in this patient.
*Lungs*
- Lung abnormalities can lead to various respiratory symptoms, such as shortness of breath, cough, or chest pain.
- There is no direct link between a primary structural abnormality of the lungs and the systemic growth changes or persistent headaches described in this patient.
Question 1016: A 41-year-old man presents to a New Mexico emergency department with a 12 hour history of shortness of breath and a nonproductive cough. He says that last week he experienced fevers, chills, fatigue, and myalgias but assumed that he simply had a cold. The symptoms went away after 3 days and he felt fine for several days afterward until he started experiencing shortness of breath even at rest. He works as an exterminator and recently had a job in a rodent infested home. Physical exam reveals a thin, tachypneic man with diffuse rales bilaterally. The most likely cause of this patient's symptoms is associated with which of the following?
A. Gram-positive cocci in clusters on blood culture
B. Capillary leak syndrome with pulmonary edema (Correct Answer)
C. Acid-fast bacilli on sputum microscopy
D. Encapsulated gram-negative diplococci
E. Intracellular inclusion bodies in respiratory epithelium
Explanation: ***Capillary leak syndrome with pulmonary edema***
- This patient's symptoms (flu-like prodrome, rapid progression to severe dyspnea, nonproductive cough, diffuse rales, history of rodent exposure in New Mexico) are highly classic for **Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)**.
- HPS is characterized by **capillary leak syndrome** leading to rapid **pulmonary edema** and respiratory failure due to increased vascular permeability.
*Gram-positive cocci in clusters on blood culture*
- This finding suggests a **Staphylococcal infection**, which could cause pneumonia, but the clinical picture (rodent exposure, biphasic illness, rapid progression to pulmonary edema) is not typical.
- While *Staphylococcus aureus* can cause severe pneumonia, it usually presents with a more direct onset of respiratory symptoms and often has risk factors such as intravenous drug use or recent surgery, which are not mentioned.
*Acid-fast bacilli on sputum microscopy*
- This finding is characteristic of **tuberculosis**, which typically presents with a more chronic course of cough, weight loss, and fatigue, rather than the acute, rapidly progressive illness described here.
- The acute onset of severe dyspnea and rapid progression after a prodromal illness is inconsistent with typical tuberculosis presentation.
*Encapsulated gram-negative diplococci*
- This morphology is characteristic of **Neisseria meningitidis** or **Moraxella catarrhalis**, which are typically associated with meningitis or otitis media/bronchitis, respectively.
- While *Haemophilus influenzae* (a gram-negative coccobacillus) can cause pneumonia, the described symptoms with rodent exposure are not suggestive of typical bacterial pneumonia.
*Intracellular inclusion bodies in respiratory epithelium*
- This finding is associated with **viral infections** such as **cytomegalovirus (CMV)** or **adenovirus**, which can cause pneumonia, especially in immunocompromised individuals.
- While Hantavirus is a virus, its characteristic pathology in the lungs is primarily diffuse vascular leakage and pulmonary edema due to endothelial damage, not typically cellular inclusion bodies in respiratory epithelium as the dominant diagnostic feature.
Question 1017: A 51-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of an aggressive cough with copious amounts of thick, foamy, yellow-green sputum. She says she has had this cough for about 11 years with exacerbations similar to her presentation today. She also reports that her cough is worse in the morning. She was evaluated multiple times in the past because of recurrent bouts of bronchitis that have required treatment with antibiotics. She is a non-smoker. On physical examination, the blood pressure is 125/78 mm Hg, pulse rate is 80/min, respiratory rate is 16/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). Chest auscultation reveals crackles and wheezing over the right middle lobe and the rest of her physical examinations are normal. The chest X-ray shows irregular opacities in the right middle lobe and diffuse airway thickening. Based on this history and physical examination, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bronchiectasis (Correct Answer)
B. Tuberculosis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E. Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
Explanation: ***Correct: Bronchiectasis***
- The classic presentation of **chronic cough with copious, purulent sputum** (thick, foamy, yellow-green) lasting 11 years is pathognomonic for bronchiectasis
- **Recurrent respiratory infections** requiring multiple antibiotic courses indicate permanent airway damage with impaired mucus clearance
- **Morning cough** reflects postural drainage of secretions that accumulated overnight in dilated bronchi
- **Non-smoker status** with chronic symptoms points to structural lung disease rather than smoking-related conditions
- Chest X-ray findings of **irregular opacities in right middle lobe and diffuse airway thickening** are characteristic of bronchiectasis (permanent dilation and thickening of airways)
- Right middle lobe is a common location for bronchiectasis due to anatomical drainage issues
*Incorrect: Tuberculosis*
- While TB can cause chronic cough and lung lesions, the **copious, foamy, purulent sputum** production is not typical of TB
- TB typically presents with **constitutional symptoms** (fever, night sweats, weight loss), which are absent here
- Chest X-ray in TB classically shows **apical infiltrates, cavitation, or granulomas**, not diffuse airway thickening
- The 11-year history with stable exacerbations would be unusual for untreated TB
*Incorrect: Chronic bronchitis*
- Chronic bronchitis requires **productive cough for ≥3 months per year for ≥2 consecutive years**, but is **strongly associated with smoking**
- This patient is a **non-smoker**, making chronic bronchitis unlikely
- The imaging finding of **diffuse airway thickening** suggests permanent structural changes (bronchiectasis) rather than simple mucosal inflammation
- Chronic bronchitis doesn't typically cause localized findings in one lobe
*Incorrect: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease*
- COPD is characterized by **irreversible airflow limitation** and is almost exclusively seen in **smokers** or those with significant environmental exposure
- This **non-smoking patient** lacks the primary risk factor for COPD
- The dominant clinical features of **copious purulent sputum and airway thickening** are more consistent with bronchiectasis than the emphysema or chronic bronchitis components of COPD
- Physical exam would typically show **hyperinflation, decreased breath sounds, and prolonged expiration** in COPD, not localized crackles
*Incorrect: Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency*
- This genetic condition causes **early-onset emphysema** (typically age 30-40s) in non-smokers and may cause liver disease
- While it can present without smoking history, the predominant feature is **lower lobe-predominant emphysema**, not bronchiectasis
- The clinical picture of **copious purulent sputum, recurrent infections, and airway thickening** is inconsistent with primary alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
- This condition would show **hyperinflation and reduced lung markings** on imaging, not airway thickening
Question 1018: A 44-year-old woman with recurrent urinary tract infections is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after sudden onset of severe headache 30 minutes ago. She has a history of occasional, mild headaches in the morning. There is no other history of serious illness. Both her father and her paternal grandmother died of chronic kidney disease. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.1°F) and blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows neck stiffness. When her hip is flexed, she is unable to fully extend her knee because of pain. Lumbar puncture performed 12 hours after headache onset yields 10 mL of yellow-colored fluid with no leukocytes. Which of the following is the most likely predisposing factor for this patient's current condition?
A. Cerebral atrophy
B. Saccular aneurysm (Correct Answer)
C. Arterial atherosclerosis
D. Bacterial infection
E. Hypercoagulable state
Explanation: ***Saccular aneurysm***
- The sudden onset of a **severe headache**, **neck stiffness**, positive **Kernig's sign** (inability to fully extend the knee when the hip is flexed), and **xanthochromic cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)** strongly suggest **subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)**.
- **Saccular (berry) aneurysms** are the most common cause of non-traumatic SAH, and the patient's family history of chronic kidney disease (potentially indicating **polycystic kidney disease**) is a risk factor for their development.
*Cerebral atrophy*
- **Cerebral atrophy** is a process involving loss of neurons and neuronal connections, typically associated with aging or neurodegenerative diseases, and does not directly predispose to acute subarachnoid hemorrhage.
- While it can be associated with some forms of vascular disease, it is not a primary risk factor for the sudden rupture of a cerebral aneurysm.
*Arterial atherosclerosis*
- **Atherosclerosis** usually causes **ischemic strokes** or **transient ischemic attacks** due to plaque rupture or stenosis, or intracerebral hemorrhages from rupture of small vessels.
- It is not a primary predisposing factor for **saccular aneurysm rupture** leading to subarachnoid hemorrhage, which typically involves congenital or acquired defects in the arterial wall.
*Bacterial infection*
- A **bacterial infection** of the central nervous system would lead to symptoms of meningitis (fever, altered mental status) and a CSF profile showing **elevated leukocytes**, low glucose, and high protein, none of which are consistent with this patient's presentation.
- The patient's CSF showed **no leukocytes**, ruling out a bacterial cause for meningeal irritation.
*Hypercoagulable state*
- A **hypercoagulable state** increases the risk for **thrombotic events** such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, or ischemic stroke.
- It does not predispose to the spontaneous rupture of a cerebral aneurysm and subsequent subarachnoid hemorrhage, which is a bleeding event.
Question 1019: A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department because of difficulty breathing and sharp chest pain. The chest pain increases in intensity with lying down, and it radiates to the scapular ridge. Approximately 3 weeks ago, he had an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction, which was treated with intravenous alteplase. He was discharged home in a stable condition. Current vital signs include a temperature of 38.1 (100.5°F), blood pressure of 131/91 mm Hg, and pulse of 99/min. On examination, heart sounds are distant and a scratching sound is heard on the left sternal border. ECG reveals widespread concave ST elevations in the precordial leads and PR depressions in leads V2-V6. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient condition?
A. Recurrent infarction
B. Myocarditis
C. Aortic dissection
D. Dressler’s syndrome (Correct Answer)
E. Ventricular aneurysm
Explanation: ***Dressler’s syndrome***
- This syndrome, also known as **post-myocardial infarction syndrome**, typically presents weeks to months after an MI and is characterized by pleuritic chest pain, fever, and pericardial friction rub.
- The **widespread ST elevations (concave)** and **PR depressions** on ECG are classic findings of pericarditis, which is the underlying pathology of Dressler's syndrome.
*Recurrent infarction*
- While an MI can cause chest pain, the pain associated with infarction is typically **retrosternal, crushing**, and does not improve with leaning forward or worsen with lying down.
- ECG findings of recurrent MI would show **convex ST elevations** in a specific coronary artery territory, not widespread concave ST elevation.
*Myocarditis*
- Myocarditis can cause chest pain, fever, and ECG changes (including ST elevations), but it is primarily an **inflammation of the heart muscle** often due to viral infection.
- In this case, the **pericardial friction rub** and history of recent MI strongly point towards pericardial inflammation, not primarily myocardial inflammation.
*Aortic dissection*
- Aortic dissection presents with **severe, tearing chest pain** that often radiates to the back, but it typically has an abrupt onset and is not associated with a pericardial friction rub or widespread ST elevations.
- The ECG findings of pericarditis do not support acute aortic dissection.
*Ventricular aneurysm*
- A ventricular aneurysm is a late complication of MI and can lead to symptoms like heart failure or arrhythmias, but it does **not typically cause acute pericarditic chest pain** or associated ECG findings.
- While it can cause persistent ST elevation, it would not be widespread and concave, and it wouldn't be associated with a friction rub.
Question 1020: A 20-year-old man comes to the emergency room because of palpitations and mild dyspnea for the last 2 hours. He has had similar episodes in the past that resolved within 20 minutes, but they have been worsening since he started training for his first marathon 1 month ago. Ten years ago, he was treated for streptococcal pharyngitis with a 10-day course of penicillin. His maternal uncle passed away unexpectedly from a heart condition at age 40. He is 180 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 85 kg (187 lb); BMI is 26.2 kg/m2. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 132/60 mm Hg. On examination, there is a decrescendo early diastolic murmur heard best along the left sternal border. His head slightly bobs about every second. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely to be present?
A. Bicuspid aortic valve (Correct Answer)
B. Antistreptolysin O antibodies
C. Asymmetric septal hypertrophy
D. Valve vegetation
E. Myxomatous degeneration
Explanation: ***Bicuspid aortic valve***
- The patient presents with classic signs of **aortic regurgitation**, including a **decrescendo early diastolic murmur** and **De Musset's sign** (head bobbing). In a young individual, a **bicuspid aortic valve** is the most common congenital cause of aortic valve disease, often leading to regurgitation or stenosis over time.
- The patient's history of palpitations and dyspnea, worsening with exertion, suggests significant hemodynamic compromise related to chronic aortic insufficiency, which can develop secondary to a bicuspid valve.
*Antistreptolysin O antibodies*
- While the patient had a history of **streptococcal pharyngitis** 10 years ago, there are no other signs of **acute rheumatic fever** or **rheumatic heart disease**, such as migratory polyarthritis, chorea, or erythema marginatum.
- The murmur described is typical of aortic regurgitation without specific features pointing to rheumatic involvement, which typically affects the **mitral valve** first.
*Asymmetric septal hypertrophy*
- **Asymmetric septal hypertrophy** is characteristic of **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy**, which would typically present with a **systolic murmur** that increases with Valsalva maneuver, not an early diastolic murmur.
- While sudden cardiac death in a young relative might suggest hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, the physical exam findings here are inconsistent with that diagnosis.
*Valve vegetation*
- **Valve vegetations** are associated with **infective endocarditis** and would typically present with fever, new or worsening murmur, and signs of systemic infection, none of which are noted in this patient.
- The patient's symptoms are chronic and episodic, not acute, subacute, or associated with infectious signs.
*Myxomatous degeneration*
- **Myxomatous degeneration** primarily affects the **mitral valve**, leading to **mitral valve prolapse** and subsequent regurgitation, which would produce a **mid-systolic click** followed by a late systolic murmur.
- This condition is not typically associated with an early diastolic murmur characteristic of aortic regurgitation.