A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-year history of increasing weakness of her extremities and neck pain that is worse on coughing or sneezing. She first noticed weakness of her right upper extremity 3 years ago, which progressed to her right lower extremity 2 years ago, her left lower extremity 1 year ago, and her left upper extremity 6 months ago. She has had difficulty swallowing and speaking for the past 5 months. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows an ataxic gait. Speech is dysarthritic. Muscular examination shows spasticity and muscle strength is decreased in all extremities. There is bilateral atrophy of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Deep tendon reflexes are 4+ bilaterally. Plantar response shows an extensor response bilaterally. Sensation is decreased below the C5 dermatome bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q1002
A 40-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of difficulty walking for the past 4 hours. She first noticed her symptoms after getting up this morning and her foot dragging while walking. She feels tired. She has a history of chronic sinusitis. Six months ago, she was diagnosed with asthma. Current medications include an albuterol inhaler and inhaled corticosteroids. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102°F), pulse is 80/min, and her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. Auscultation of her lungs shows diffuse wheezing over bilateral lung fields. Physical examination shows tender subcutaneous nodules on the extensor surfaces of the elbows. There are palpable, non-blanching erythematous lesions on both shins. Dorsiflexion of the right foot is impaired. Sensation to pinprick, light touch, and vibration is decreased over the ulnar aspect of the left forearm. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 11.3 g/dL
Leukocyte count 24,500
Segmented neutrophils 48%
Eosinophils 29%
Lymphocytes 19%
Monocytes 4%
Platelet count 290,000/mm3
Serum
Urea nitrogen 32 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.85 mg/dL
Urine
Blood 2+
Protein 3+
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q1003
A 67-year-old woman presents with her husband because of left leg pain and swelling of 3 days' duration. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and recent hospitalization for congestive heart failure exacerbation. On physical examination, the left calf is 4 cm greater in circumference than the right. Pitting edema is present on the left leg and there are superficial dilated veins. Venous duplex ultrasound shows an inability to fully compress the lumen of the profunda femoris vein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q1004
A 16-year-old woman presents to the emergency department for evaluation of acute vomiting and abdominal pain. Onset was roughly 3 hours ago while she was sleeping. She has no known past medical history. Her family history is positive for hypothyroidism and diabetes mellitus in her maternal grandmother. On examination, she is found to have fruity breath and poor skin turgor. She appears fatigued and her consciousness is slightly altered. Laboratory results show a blood glucose level of 691 mg/dL, sodium of 125 mg/dL, and elevated serum ketones. Of the following, which is the next best step in patient management?
Q1005
A 13-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of bleeding from his lips earlier that day. He has a history of recurrent nosebleeds since childhood. His father has a similar history of recurrent nosebleeds. He is at the 60th percentile for height and weight. Examination shows multiple, small dilated capillaries over the lips, nose, and fingers. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following conditions is this patient at increased risk for?
Q1006
A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain and fatigue for the past week. The patient is homeless and his medical history is not known. His temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 97/58 mmHg, pulse is 140/min, respirations are 25/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. Physical exam is notable for scars in the antecubital fossa and a murmur over the left sternal border. The patient is admitted to the intensive care unit and is treated appropriately. On day 3 of his hospital stay, the patient presents with right-sided weakness in his arm and leg and dysarthric speech. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of his current symptoms?
Q1007
An otherwise healthy 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 14-day history of painful red nodules on her legs associated with malaise and mild joint pains. She reports that the nodules were initially smaller and distinct but some have fused together over the past 3–4 days and now appear like bruises. There is no preceding history of fever, trauma, or insect bites. Her vital signs are within normal limits. A photograph of the tender lesions on her shins is shown. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Complete blood count and antistreptolysin O (ASO) titers are within the reference range. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 30 mm/h. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management ?
Q1008
A 63-year-old man presents to the clinic with fever accompanied by shortness of breath. The symptoms developed a week ago and have been progressively worsening over the last 2 days. He reports his cough is productive of thick, yellow sputum. He was diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 3 years ago and has been on treatment ever since. He quit smoking 10 years ago but occasionally experiences shortness of breath along with chest tightness that improves with the use of an inhaler. However, this time the symptoms seem to be more severe and unrelenting. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.4°F), the respirations are 21/min, the blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and the pulse is 105/min. Auscultation reveals bilateral crackles and expiratory wheezes. His oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. According to this patient’s history, which of the following should be the next step in the management of this patient?
Q1009
Please refer to the summary above to answer this question
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Patient Information
Age: 66 years
Gender: M, self-identified
Ethnicity: African-American
Site of Care: office
History
Reason for Visit/Chief Concern: "I need to go to the bathroom all the time."
History of Present Illness:
1-year history of frequent urination
urinates every 2–3 hours during the day and wakes up at least 3 times at night to urinate
has had 2 episodes of cystitis treated with antibiotics in the past 4 months
has a weak urinary stream
has not noticed any blood in the urine
does not have any pain with urination or ejaculatory dysfunction
Past Medical History:
type 2 diabetes mellitus
nephrolithiasis, treated with percutaneous nephrolithotomy
essential tremor
Medications:
metformin, canagliflozin, propranolol
Allergies:
sulfa drugs
Social History:
sexually active with his wife; does not use condoms consistently
has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 50 years
drinks one to two glasses of beer weekly
Physical Examination
Temp Pulse Resp BP O2 Sat Ht Wt BMI
37°C
(98.6°F)
72/min 16/min 134/81 mm Hg –
183 cm
(6 ft)
105 kg
(231 lb)
31 kg/m2
Appearance: no acute distress
Pulmonary: clear to auscultation
Cardiac: regular rate and rhythm; normal S1, S2; S4 gallop
Abdominal: overweight; no tenderness, guarding, masses, bruits, or hepatosplenomegaly
Extremities: no joint erythema, edema, or warmth; dorsalis pedis, radial, and femoral pulses intact
Genitourinary: no lesions or discharge
Rectal: slightly enlarged, smooth, nontender prostate
Neurologic: alert and oriented; cranial nerves grossly intact; no focal neurologic deficits
Q1010
A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician because of intermittent heaviness and paresthesia of the right arm for the past 2 months. She has also had multiple episodes of lightheadedness while painting a mural for the past 2 weeks. During these episodes, she was nauseated and had blurred vision. Her symptoms resolved after she drank some juice. She has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia. Current medications include metformin, glipizide, enalapril, and atorvastatin. She appears anxious. Examination shows decreased radial and brachial pulses on the right upper extremity. The skin over the right upper extremity is cooler than the left. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1001: A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-year history of increasing weakness of her extremities and neck pain that is worse on coughing or sneezing. She first noticed weakness of her right upper extremity 3 years ago, which progressed to her right lower extremity 2 years ago, her left lower extremity 1 year ago, and her left upper extremity 6 months ago. She has had difficulty swallowing and speaking for the past 5 months. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows an ataxic gait. Speech is dysarthritic. Muscular examination shows spasticity and muscle strength is decreased in all extremities. There is bilateral atrophy of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Deep tendon reflexes are 4+ bilaterally. Plantar response shows an extensor response bilaterally. Sensation is decreased below the C5 dermatome bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Cerebral glioblastoma multiforme
B. Foramen magnum meningioma (Correct Answer)
C. Cerebellar astrocytoma
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E. Multiple sclerosis
Explanation: ***Foramen magnum meningioma***
- Progressive **quadriparesis** in a **descending or ascending pattern**, associated with **neck pain exacerbated by coughing/sneezing**, suggests compression at the **craniocervical junction**.
- **Spasticity**, **hyperreflexia**, **bilateral extensor plantar responses**, and **sensory loss below C5** are classic signs of **upper motor neuron dysfunction** and **spinal cord compression** at this level.
*Cerebral glioblastoma multiforme*
- This typically presents with **focal neurological deficits**, **seizures**, or **symptoms of increased intracranial pressure**, rarely with progressive quadparesis and sensory level as seen.
- While it causes **upper motor neuron signs**, extensive spinal cord involvement and a clear sensory level are not characteristic.
*Cerebellar astrocytoma*
- Primarily causes **ataxia**, **dysmetria**, and other **cerebellar signs**, but does not explain the widespread spastic quadriparesis, clear sensory level, or bulbar symptoms.
- Neck pain worsened by coughing or sneezing and prominent upper motor neuron signs are not typical for this tumor.
*Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis*
- This disease affects both **upper and lower motor neurons** but typically spares sensation.
- The presence of **sensory loss below C5** and prominent **neck pain** makes ALS less likely.
*Multiple sclerosis*
- Characterized by **disseminated lesions in time and space**, often with relapsing-remitting symptoms and prominent sensory complaints, but a clear, progressive sensory level and severe neck pain are atypical.
- While it can cause **spasticity** and **ataxia**, the progressive, compressive pattern of symptoms and consistent sensory level point away from MS.
Question 1002: A 40-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of difficulty walking for the past 4 hours. She first noticed her symptoms after getting up this morning and her foot dragging while walking. She feels tired. She has a history of chronic sinusitis. Six months ago, she was diagnosed with asthma. Current medications include an albuterol inhaler and inhaled corticosteroids. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102°F), pulse is 80/min, and her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. Auscultation of her lungs shows diffuse wheezing over bilateral lung fields. Physical examination shows tender subcutaneous nodules on the extensor surfaces of the elbows. There are palpable, non-blanching erythematous lesions on both shins. Dorsiflexion of the right foot is impaired. Sensation to pinprick, light touch, and vibration is decreased over the ulnar aspect of the left forearm. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 11.3 g/dL
Leukocyte count 24,500
Segmented neutrophils 48%
Eosinophils 29%
Lymphocytes 19%
Monocytes 4%
Platelet count 290,000/mm3
Serum
Urea nitrogen 32 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.85 mg/dL
Urine
Blood 2+
Protein 3+
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
B. Excessive glucocorticoid use
C. Goodpasture syndrome
D. Henoch-Schönlein purpura
E. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)***
- This patient presents with a classic triad: **asthma**, **eosinophilia** (29%), and **multisystem vasculitis** as evidenced by mononeuropathy, skin lesions (nodules and palpable purpura), and kidney involvement.
- The history of chronic sinusitis, new-onset foot drop (mononeuropathy), **palpable purpura**, and elevated creatinine with proteinuria strongly point towards EGPA.
*Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)*
- While GPA can cause sinusitis, kidney disease, and neuropathy, it typically presents with **neutrophilic inflammation** and **c-ANCA** positivity, not prominent eosinophilia or severe asthma.
- Granulomatosis with polyangiitis typically involves the **upper and lower respiratory tracts** and kidneys but lacks the pronounced eosinophilia and severe asthma seen here.
*Excessive glucocorticoid use*
- This condition is associated with Cushingoid features, **osteoporosis**, and immunosuppression, none of which fully explain the patient's acute neurological deficits, eosinophilia, or vasculitic manifestations.
- Although the patient has asthma, her symptoms are not consistent with the side effects of inhaled corticosteroids or chronic systemic glucocorticoid use.
*Goodpasture syndrome*
- Goodpasture syndrome is characterized by **recurrent pulmonary hemorrhage** and rapidly progressive **glomerulonephritis** due to anti-GBM antibodies.
- It does not explain the prominent eosinophilia, asthma, or the presence of subcutaneous nodules and palpable purpura.
*Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)*
- HSP typically presents in children with **palpable purpura** on the buttocks and lower extremities, **arthralgias**, abdominal pain, and **IgA nephropathy**.
- It does not involve significant eosinophilia, severe asthma, or mononeuropathy as seen in this adult patient.
Question 1003: A 67-year-old woman presents with her husband because of left leg pain and swelling of 3 days' duration. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and recent hospitalization for congestive heart failure exacerbation. On physical examination, the left calf is 4 cm greater in circumference than the right. Pitting edema is present on the left leg and there are superficial dilated veins. Venous duplex ultrasound shows an inability to fully compress the lumen of the profunda femoris vein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Erythema nodosum
B. Deep venous thrombosis (Correct Answer)
C. Lymphangitis
D. Superficial venous thrombophlebitis
E. Ruptured popliteal cyst
Explanation: ***Deep venous thrombosis***
- The patient presents with **unilateral left leg pain and swelling**, a 4 cm difference in calf circumference, **pitting edema**, and dilated superficial veins, all classic signs of **deep venous thrombosis (DVT)**.
- The **venous duplex ultrasound** findings of an inability to fully compress the lumen of the **profunda femoris vein** are diagnostic for DVT, confirming the presence of a thrombus within a deep vein.
*Erythema nodosum*
- This condition presents as **tender, red nodules** typically on the shins, usually associated with systemic diseases, infections, or drugs, and does not involve significant leg swelling or venous occlusion.
- It is a **panniculitis**, an inflammation of subcutaneous fat, and would not lead to diagnostic findings of non-compressible deep veins on ultrasound.
*Lymphangitis*
- Characterized by **red streaks** tracking along lymphatic pathways, **fever**, and painful swollen lymph nodes, often due to a bacterial infection, which are not described in this patient’s presentation.
- While it can cause some swelling, it does not typically produce the extensive pitting edema, calf circumference discrepancy, or deep venous compromise seen in DVT.
*Superficial venous thrombophlebitis*
- Involves inflammation and thrombosis of a **superficial vein**, presenting as a **tender, palpable cord** along the course of the vein, often with associated skin redness.
- It usually causes localized discomfort and swelling and does not typically lead to significant, diffuse leg swelling from deep vein obstruction or an inability to compress a deep vein on ultrasound.
*Ruptured popliteal cyst*
- Presents with sudden onset of **calf pain and swelling**, often mimicking DVT, but is typically associated with a history of **arthritis** and often involves **ecchymosis** around the malleolus (crescent sign).
- While it can cause swelling, it would not result in a non-compressible deep vein on venous duplex ultrasound.
Question 1004: A 16-year-old woman presents to the emergency department for evaluation of acute vomiting and abdominal pain. Onset was roughly 3 hours ago while she was sleeping. She has no known past medical history. Her family history is positive for hypothyroidism and diabetes mellitus in her maternal grandmother. On examination, she is found to have fruity breath and poor skin turgor. She appears fatigued and her consciousness is slightly altered. Laboratory results show a blood glucose level of 691 mg/dL, sodium of 125 mg/dL, and elevated serum ketones. Of the following, which is the next best step in patient management?
A. Administer IV fluids and insulin (Correct Answer)
B. Initiate basal-bolus insulin regimen
C. Initiate insulin glargine 10 units at bedtime only
D. Initiate oral antidiabetic medications
E. Initiate insulin aspart at mealtimes only
Explanation: ***Administer IV fluids and insulin***
- The patient presents with **fruity breath**, **altered consciousness**, **hyperglycemia (691 mg/dL)**, **hyponatremia**, and **elevated serum ketones**, which are classic signs of **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)**.
- The immediate management for DKA involves aggressive **intravenous fluid resuscitation** to correct dehydration and hypovolemia, followed by a continuous **intravenous insulin infusion** to lower blood glucose and suppress ketogenesis.
*Initiate basal-bolus insulin regimen*
- A **basal-bolus insulin regimen** is appropriate for long-term management of diabetes but is not the immediate treatment for acute DKA, which requires continuous intravenous insulin.
- This approach does not address the severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances seen in DKA, which need urgent fluid replacement.
*Initiate insulin glargine 10 units at bedtime only*
- **Insulin glargine** is a long-acting insulin used for basal insulin coverage, typically in the chronic management of diabetes.
- This dose is insufficient to manage acute DKA, and it also fails to address the critical need for fluid resuscitation.
*Initiate oral antidiabetic medications*
- **Oral antidiabetic medications** are suitable for individuals with type 2 diabetes or milder forms of insulin resistance, not for acute DKA.
- They are ineffective in severe hyperglycemia and metabolic acidosis characteristic of DKA, and do not address dehydration.
*Initiate insulin aspart at mealtimes only*
- **Insulin aspart** is a rapid-acting insulin used to cover mealtime glucose excursions.
- Administering it only at mealtimes is inadequate for acute DKA, which requires continuous insulin infusion and aggressive fluid management.
Question 1005: A 13-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of bleeding from his lips earlier that day. He has a history of recurrent nosebleeds since childhood. His father has a similar history of recurrent nosebleeds. He is at the 60th percentile for height and weight. Examination shows multiple, small dilated capillaries over the lips, nose, and fingers. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following conditions is this patient at increased risk for?
A. Acute leukemia
B. High-output cardiac failure (Correct Answer)
C. Glaucoma
D. Gastrointestinal polyps
E. Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation: ***High-output cardiac failure***
- The patient's presentation with recurrent nosebleeds, bleeding from lips, and multiple **telangiectasias** (dilated capillaries) on lips, nose, and fingers strongly suggests **hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)**, also known as Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome.
- HHT can lead to **arteriovenous malformations (AVMs)**, particularly in organs like the lungs and liver; extensive AVMs, especially hepatic AVMs, can act as shunts, causing **high-output cardiac failure** due to increased venous return and cardiac workload.
*Acute leukemia*
- While acute leukemia can cause bleeding tendencies due to **thrombocytopenia** or **coagulation defects**, it would typically present with additional symptoms such as fatigue, fever, pallor, and lymphadenopathy, which are absent here.
- The familial history of nosebleeds and characteristic **telangiectasias** are not features of leukemia.
*Glaucoma*
- **Glaucoma** is an eye condition characterized by damage to the optic nerve, often due to elevated intraocular pressure, and is not directly associated with HHT or its complications.
- There is no clinical information provided to suggest any ocular pathology or risk factors for glaucoma in this patient.
*Gastrointestinal polyps*
- While some genetic syndromes, like **Peutz-Jeghers syndrome**, cause both mucocutaneous pigmentation and gastrointestinal polyps, the telangiectasias in this patient are distinct from the dark brown macules seen in Peutz-Jeghers.
- HHT can cause **GI bleeding** from telangiectasias, but not typically the formation of polyps themselves.
*Renal cell carcinoma*
- **Renal cell carcinoma** is a type of kidney cancer and is not typically associated with HHT.
- There are no features in the patient's presentation (e.g., hematuria, flank pain, or a palpable mass) that would suggest an increased risk for renal cell carcinoma.
Question 1006: A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain and fatigue for the past week. The patient is homeless and his medical history is not known. His temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 97/58 mmHg, pulse is 140/min, respirations are 25/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. Physical exam is notable for scars in the antecubital fossa and a murmur over the left sternal border. The patient is admitted to the intensive care unit and is treated appropriately. On day 3 of his hospital stay, the patient presents with right-sided weakness in his arm and leg and dysarthric speech. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of his current symptoms?
A. Herpes simplex virus encephalitis
B. Septic emboli (Correct Answer)
C. Intracranial hemorrhage
D. Thromboembolic stroke
E. Bacterial meningitis
Explanation: ***Septic emboli***
- The patient's history of **intravenous drug use** (inferred from antecubital scars and homelessness), fever, hypotension, tachycardia, and a new murmur strongly suggest **infective endocarditis**.
- **Septic emboli** from an infected heart valve can dislodge and travel to the brain, causing a **stroke-like presentation** with focal neurological deficits such as right-sided weakness and dysarthria.
- This is the **most specific etiology** as it identifies both the embolic mechanism AND the infectious source.
*Herpes simplex virus encephalitis*
- While encephalitis can cause focal neurological deficits, it typically presents with **altered mental status, seizures**, and a distinct pattern on MRI (temporal lobe involvement), which is not the primary presentation here.
- The context of infective endocarditis makes **embolic events** a more direct and likely cause of acute focal deficits.
*Intracranial hemorrhage*
- Intracranial hemorrhage would typically cause a **sudden onset** of neurological deficits, often accompanied by severe headache, altered consciousness, and signs of increased intracranial pressure.
- Although endocarditis can rarely lead to mycotic aneurysms that rupture, **ischemic stroke** due to emboli is far more common than hemorrhage in this setting.
*Thromboembolic stroke*
- While septic emboli do cause an embolic stroke, **"thromboembolic stroke"** is a broader, less specific term that doesn't identify the **infectious etiology**.
- The term typically refers to sterile emboli from sources like atrial fibrillation, left ventricular thrombus, or atherosclerotic plaques.
- **"Septic emboli"** is the most precise answer as it specifically indicates emboli containing infected material from the endocarditis, which has important implications for treatment and prognosis.
*Bacterial meningitis*
- Meningitis typically presents with classic symptoms like **fever, headache, nuchal rigidity**, and altered mental status.
- While it can cause neurological complications, acute focal deficits like hemiparesis and dysarthria are more characteristic of a stroke or mass lesion, not diffuse meningeal inflammation.
Question 1007: An otherwise healthy 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 14-day history of painful red nodules on her legs associated with malaise and mild joint pains. She reports that the nodules were initially smaller and distinct but some have fused together over the past 3–4 days and now appear like bruises. There is no preceding history of fever, trauma, or insect bites. Her vital signs are within normal limits. A photograph of the tender lesions on her shins is shown. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Complete blood count and antistreptolysin O (ASO) titers are within the reference range. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 30 mm/h. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management ?
A. X-ray of the chest (Correct Answer)
B. Skin biopsy
C. Oral amoxicillin
D. Stool culture
E. Oral isoniazid
Explanation: ***X-ray of the chest***
- The patient's symptoms (painful red nodules on legs, malaise, mild joint pains, nodules fusing and appearing like bruises) are highly suggestive of **erythema nodosum**.
- Erythema nodosum is often associated with systemic conditions, and a chest X-ray is crucial to rule out **sarcoidosis** or **tuberculosis**, common underlying causes.
*Skin biopsy*
- While a skin biopsy could confirm the diagnosis of erythema nodosum, it is **not the most appropriate *next step* in management** as the clinical presentation is highly characteristic.
- The primary goal after suspecting erythema nodosum is to **identify and address the underlying cause**, which would then guide specific treatment.
*Oral amoxicillin*
- **Elevated ASO titers** would suggest an association with streptococcal infection, indicating antibiotic treatment; however, the patient's ASO titers are within the reference range.
- Erythema nodosum has **multiple potential causes**, and empiric antibiotic therapy without evidence of bacterial infection is not indicated.
*Stool culture*
- Stool culture would be relevant if there were clinical signs of a **gastrointestinal infection** (e.g., diarrhea) associated with infectious causes like *Salmonella*, *Yersinia*, or *Campylobacter*.
- The patient has no gastrointestinal symptoms, making a stool culture a **less likely initial investigation** in the absence of other clues.
*Oral isoniazid*
- Isoniazid is an **antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis**. While tuberculosis can cause erythema nodosum, there is currently no direct evidence (e.g., positive PPD, night sweats, persistent cough) to warrant tuberculosis treatment without further investigation.
- A **chest X-ray is a necessary first step** to screen for pulmonary tuberculosis before initiating antitubercular therapy.
Question 1008: A 63-year-old man presents to the clinic with fever accompanied by shortness of breath. The symptoms developed a week ago and have been progressively worsening over the last 2 days. He reports his cough is productive of thick, yellow sputum. He was diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 3 years ago and has been on treatment ever since. He quit smoking 10 years ago but occasionally experiences shortness of breath along with chest tightness that improves with the use of an inhaler. However, this time the symptoms seem to be more severe and unrelenting. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.4°F), the respirations are 21/min, the blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and the pulse is 105/min. Auscultation reveals bilateral crackles and expiratory wheezes. His oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. According to this patient’s history, which of the following should be the next step in the management of this patient?
A. Chest X-ray (Correct Answer)
B. Arterial blood gases
C. Bronchoprovocation test
D. Bronchoscopy
E. CT scan
Explanation: ***Chest X-ray***
- A **chest X-ray** is a crucial initial step to evaluate for **pneumonia** or other acute pulmonary processes, given the fever, productive cough, and worsening respiratory symptoms in a patient with COPD [1].
- It can identify infiltrates, effusions, or other anatomical changes that explain the patient's acute decompensation [1].
*Arterial blood gases*
- While important for assessing **respiratory failure** and guiding ventilator management, **ABGs** are usually performed after initial imaging to quantify gas exchange abnormalities once an etiology is suspected [1].
- The patient's **oxygen saturation of 95% on room air** does not immediately suggest severe hypoxemia, although hypercapnia could still be present.
*Bronchoprovocation test*
- A **bronchoprovocation test** is used to diagnose **asthma** or assess **airway hyperresponsiveness** in stable patients.
- It is contraindicated in acute exacerbations due to the risk of worsening bronchoconstriction.
*Bronchoscopy*
- **Bronchoscopy** is an invasive procedure typically reserved for cases of suspicion of **tumor**, **foreign body aspiration**, or non-resolving infiltrates and would not be the immediate next step for fever and productive cough.
- It is not indicated for the initial diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia or COPD exacerbation.
*CT scan*
- A **CT scan** provides more detailed imaging but is usually reserved for cases where the chest X-ray is inconclusive or to look for specific pathologies like **pulmonary embolism** or **bronchiectasis**.
- It's not the initial imaging choice for suspected **pneumonia** due to cost, radiation exposure, and the adequacy of X-ray for this purpose [1].
Question 1009: Please refer to the summary above to answer this question
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Patient Information
Age: 66 years
Gender: M, self-identified
Ethnicity: African-American
Site of Care: office
History
Reason for Visit/Chief Concern: "I need to go to the bathroom all the time."
History of Present Illness:
1-year history of frequent urination
urinates every 2–3 hours during the day and wakes up at least 3 times at night to urinate
has had 2 episodes of cystitis treated with antibiotics in the past 4 months
has a weak urinary stream
has not noticed any blood in the urine
does not have any pain with urination or ejaculatory dysfunction
Past Medical History:
type 2 diabetes mellitus
nephrolithiasis, treated with percutaneous nephrolithotomy
essential tremor
Medications:
metformin, canagliflozin, propranolol
Allergies:
sulfa drugs
Social History:
sexually active with his wife; does not use condoms consistently
has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 50 years
drinks one to two glasses of beer weekly
Physical Examination
Temp Pulse Resp BP O2 Sat Ht Wt BMI
37°C
(98.6°F)
72/min 16/min 134/81 mm Hg –
183 cm
(6 ft)
105 kg
(231 lb)
31 kg/m2
Appearance: no acute distress
Pulmonary: clear to auscultation
Cardiac: regular rate and rhythm; normal S1, S2; S4 gallop
Abdominal: overweight; no tenderness, guarding, masses, bruits, or hepatosplenomegaly
Extremities: no joint erythema, edema, or warmth; dorsalis pedis, radial, and femoral pulses intact
Genitourinary: no lesions or discharge
Rectal: slightly enlarged, smooth, nontender prostate
Neurologic: alert and oriented; cranial nerves grossly intact; no focal neurologic deficits
A. Urethral stricture
B. Prostate cancer
C. Neurogenic bladder
D. Acute prostatitis
E. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Benign prostatic hyperplasia***
- The patient's symptoms of **frequent urination**, **nocturia**, **weak urinary stream**, and a **slightly enlarged, smooth, nontender prostate** on rectal exam are classic for BPH.
- Recurrent **cystitis** can be a complication of BPH due to incomplete bladder emptying.
*Urethral stricture*
- While a urethral stricture can cause a **weak urinary stream** and incomplete emptying, it would typically present with more significant difficulty voiding, possibly **pain** during urination, or a history of instrumentation/trauma.
- The rectal exam finding of an **enlarged prostate** points away from a primary stricture.
*Prostate cancer*
- Although prostate cancer can cause similar urinary symptoms, an enlarged prostate due to cancer is often described as **nodular, firm, or asymmetric** on rectal exam, not smooth.
- The absence of **hematuria** or significant pain also makes cancer less likely as the primary driver of these symptoms.
*Neurogenic bladder*
- A neurogenic bladder would involve neurological deficits affecting bladder control, such as spinal cord injury, stroke, or severe neuropathy, which are not described in this patient beyond an **essential tremor** unlikely to cause these specific lower urinary tract symptoms.
- The patient has no other neurological symptoms like **focal weakness** or sensory loss.
*Acute prostatitis*
- Acute prostatitis typically presents with **fever, chills, perineal pain, dysuria**, and a **tender, swollen prostate** on examination, none of which are present in this patient.
- The symptoms here are **chronic** (1 year history) rather than acute.
Question 1010: A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician because of intermittent heaviness and paresthesia of the right arm for the past 2 months. She has also had multiple episodes of lightheadedness while painting a mural for the past 2 weeks. During these episodes, she was nauseated and had blurred vision. Her symptoms resolved after she drank some juice. She has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia. Current medications include metformin, glipizide, enalapril, and atorvastatin. She appears anxious. Examination shows decreased radial and brachial pulses on the right upper extremity. The skin over the right upper extremity is cooler than the left. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Subclavian artery stenosis with vertebral steal phenomenon (Correct Answer)
B. Adverse effect of medications
C. Infarction of the middle cerebral artery
D. Non-enzymatic glycosylation of peripheral nerve
E. Compression of neurovascular structures in the neck
Explanation: ***Subclavian artery stenosis with vertebral steal phenomenon***
- The patient's symptoms of **exercise-induced right arm heaviness, paresthesia, and lightheadedness with blurred vision** (vertebrobasilar insufficiency equivalent) are characteristic of **subclavian steal syndrome**. The **decreased radial and brachial pulses** and **cooler skin** on the right upper extremity further support reduced blood flow to that arm.
- Due to **subclavian artery stenosis**, blood is shunted from the vertebral artery away from the brain to supply the exercising arm, causing **vertebrobasilar symptoms** like vertigo and blurred vision.
*Adverse effect of medications*
- While it's important to consider medication side effects, none of the patient's current medications (**metformin, glipizide, enalapril, atorvastatin**) typically cause the specific constellation of unilateral upper extremity weakness, sensory changes, differential pulses, and exertional vertebrobasilar symptoms.
- The symptoms are highly localized and vascular in nature, which is less consistent with a systemic medication side effect.
*Infarction of the middle cerebral artery*
- An **infarction of the middle cerebral artery (MCA)** would typically present with more focal neurological deficits such as hemiparesis, facial droop, aphasia (if dominant hemisphere), and visual field cuts, which are *not* described in this case.
- The intermittent, exertional nature of the symptoms and resolution upon rest, along with vascular signs in the arm, are inconsistent with an MCA stroke.
*Non-enzymatic glycosylation of peripheral nerve*
- This refers to **diabetic neuropathy**, which could cause paresthesia. However, it typically presents as a **stocking-glove distribution** (distal sensory loss symmetrically) and does *not* explain the unilateral arm heaviness, differential pulses, or the lightheadedness and blurred vision during arm activity.
- Diabetic neuropathy does not cause a "steal" phenomenon or exertional vertebrobasilar symptoms.
*Compression of neurovascular structures in the neck*
- Conditions like **thoracic outlet syndrome** can cause compression of neurovascular structures, leading to arm pain, paresthesia, and weakness. However, it typically does *not* cause **lightheadedness or blurred vision during arm exercise** (vertebrobasilar symptoms) and *rarely* presents with **differential pulses** without other signs of vascular compromise like subclavian stenosis.
- The presence of decreased pulses and cooler skin on one side strongly points towards an arterial occlusive process rather than simple compression.