A 32-year-old woman presents with a severe headache and neck pain for the past 60 minutes. She says the headache was severe and onset suddenly like a ‘thunderclap’. She reports associated nausea, vomiting, neck pain, and stiffness. She denies any recent head trauma, loss of consciousness, visual disturbances, or focal neurologic deficits. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, managed with hydrochlorothiazide. She denies any history of smoking, alcohol use, or recreational drug use. The vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 165/95 mm Hg, pulse 92/min, and respiratory rate 15/min. On physical examination, there is mild nuchal rigidity noted with limited flexion at the neck. An ophthalmic examination of the retina shows mild papilledema. A noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head is performed and shown in the exhibit (see image). Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q992
A 58-year-old woman is followed in the nephrology clinic for longstanding chronic kidney disease (CKD) secondary to uncontrolled hypertension. Her glomerular filtration rate (GFR) continues to decline, and she is approaching initiation of hemodialysis. Plans are made to obtain vascular access at the appropriate time, and the patient undergoes the requisite screening to be enrolled as an end stage renal disease (ESRD) patient. Among patients on chronic hemodialysis, which of the following is the most common cause of death?
Q993
A 67-year-old man presents with an excruciatingly painful tongue lesion. He says the lesion was preceded by an intermittent headache for the past month that localized unilaterally to the left temple and occasionally radiates to the right eye. The tongue lesion onset acutely and has been present for a few days. The pain is constant. His past medical history is relevant for hypertension and recurrent migraines. Current medications include captopril. On physical examination, multiple knot-like swellings are seen on the left temple. Findings from an inspection of the oral cavity are shown in the exhibit (see image). Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 12.9 g/dL
Hematocrit 40.7%
Leukocyte count 5500/mm3
Neutrophils 65%
Lymphocytes 30%
Monocytes 5%
Mean corpuscular volume 88.2 μm3
Platelet count 190,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 45 mm/h
Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q994
A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a wellness checkup. The patient states he has been doing well and currently has no concerns. The patient's daughter states that she feels he is abnormally fatigued and has complained of light-headedness whenever he gardens. He also admits that he fainted once. The patient has a past medical history of type II diabetes, hypertension, and constipation. He recently had a "throat cold" that he recovered from with rest and fluids. His temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 167/98 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals a systolic murmur heard best along the right upper sternal border. An ECG is performed and demonstrates no signs of ST elevation. Cardiac troponins are negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q995
A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department for a fever and abdominal pain. The patient states that his pain has been worsening over the past week in the setting of a fever. He has a past medical history of IV drug abuse and multiple admissions for septic shock. His temperature is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 94/54 mmHg, pulse is 133/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a murmur over the left upper sternal border. Abdominal exam reveals left upper quadrant tenderness. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL
Hematocrit: 44%
Leukocyte count: 16,700/mm^3
Platelet count: 299,000/mm^3
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q996
A 40-year-old woman comes to the physician for a 2-month history of chest pain and heartburn after meals. The patient reports that the pain is worse at night and especially when lying down. She has a history of Raynaud's disease treated with nifedipine. There is no family history of serious illness. She emigrated to the US from Nigeria 5 years ago. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Thickening and hardening of the skin is seen on the hands and face. There are several firm, white nodules on the elbows and fingertips. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q997
A 65-year-old woman presents with progressive gait difficulty, neck pain, and bladder incontinence. She also complains of urinary urgency. Past medical history is significant for uncontrolled diabetes mellitus with a previous hemoglobin A1c of 10.8%. Physical examination reveals slightly increased muscle tone in all limbs with brisk tendon reflexes. Sensory examination reveals a decrease of all sensations in a stocking and glove distribution. Her gait is significantly impaired. She walks slowly with small steps and has difficulty turning while walking. She scores 23 out of 30 on a mini-mental state examination (MMSE). A brain MRI reveals dilated ventricles with a callosal angle of 60 degrees and mild cortical atrophy. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q998
A 24-year-old man is running a marathon (42.2 km) on a hot summer day and collapses about halfway through the run. Emergency personnel are called and find him having a seizure. As the seizure subsides, the runner exhibits confusion, dry lips and decreased skin turgor. On the way to the emergency department, he denies taking medication or having a history of seizures. He reports that he drank water, but he admits that it was probably not enough. Which of the following would be the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q999
A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of weight loss and increased urinary frequency for the past month. He has also noticed blood in the urine, usually towards the end of voiding. He emigrated to the U.S. from Kenya 5 years ago. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. Physical examination shows a palpable liver edge and splenomegaly. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 9.5 mg/dL and a urine dipstick is strongly positive for blood. A CT scan of the abdomen shows bladder wall thickening and fibrosis. A biopsy specimen of the bladder shows squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
Q1000
A 40-year-old woman presents with a ‘tingling’ feeling in the toes of both feet that started 5 days ago. She says that the feeling varies in intensity but has been there ever since she recovered from a stomach flu last week. Over the last 2 days, the tingling sensation has started to spread up her legs. She also reports feeling weak in the legs for the past 2 days. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she currently takes no medications. Which of the following diagnostic tests would most likely be abnormal in this patient?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: A 32-year-old woman presents with a severe headache and neck pain for the past 60 minutes. She says the headache was severe and onset suddenly like a ‘thunderclap’. She reports associated nausea, vomiting, neck pain, and stiffness. She denies any recent head trauma, loss of consciousness, visual disturbances, or focal neurologic deficits. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, managed with hydrochlorothiazide. She denies any history of smoking, alcohol use, or recreational drug use. The vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 165/95 mm Hg, pulse 92/min, and respiratory rate 15/min. On physical examination, there is mild nuchal rigidity noted with limited flexion at the neck. An ophthalmic examination of the retina shows mild papilledema. A noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head is performed and shown in the exhibit (see image). Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Mannitol
B. Lumbar puncture
C. Labetalol (Correct Answer)
D. Nitroprusside
E. Dexamethasone
Explanation: ***Labetalol***
- The patient presents with a **thunderclap headache** and **nuchal rigidity**, highly suggestive of **subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)**. The CT scan might initially be negative in a small percentage of SAH cases, but the clinical suspicion remains high.
- The patient also has markedly elevated blood pressure (165/95 mmHg) and signs of increased intracranial pressure (papilledema), which needs urgent control. **Labetalol** is an appropriate agent for acute blood pressure control in this setting as it typically avoids reflexive tachycardia and can be titrated. Aggressive blood pressure control using agents like labetalol is crucial to prevent rebleeding, which is associated with high mortality.
*Mannitol*
- **Mannitol** is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce **intracranial pressure (ICP)** by drawing fluid out of the brain. While the patient has papilledema, indicating increased ICP, the primary concern is the underlying cause, likely SAH, and managing her emergent hypertension.
- Mannitol might be used as an adjunct if ICP remains high, but initial management prioritizes blood pressure control to prevent further hemorrhage.
*Lumbar puncture*
- A **lumbar puncture** is typically performed to detect **xanthochromia** or elevated red blood cell count in the cerebrospinal fluid **(CSF)** when SAH is suspected but the initial CT scan is negative.
- However, in this patient, the CT scan shows a probable subarachnoid hemorrhage (although the image is not provided, the question states "CT scan...is performed and shown in the exhibit" implying a finding, and clinical context strongly suggests it). Even if the CT were unequivocally negative, controlling the severe hypertension is a more immediate life-saving step to prevent rebleeding in suspected SAH before proceeding with LP.
*Nitroprusside*
- **Nitroprusside** is a potent vasodilator used for rapid blood pressure reduction. However, it can cause a **reflex increase in intracranial pressure (ICP)** due to its potent vasodilatory effects on cerebral vasculature, which is generally undesirable in the context of SAH or suspected elevated ICP.
- While it lowers systemic blood pressure effectively, its potential to increase ICP makes it a less favorable choice compared to labetalol for initial management in this scenario.
*Dexamethasone*
- **Dexamethasone** is a corticosteroid primarily used to reduce **vasogenic edema** associated with brain tumors or inflammation.
- It is generally **not indicated** for the acute management of SAH or for reducing generalized intracranial hypertension from acute hemorrhage. Its effects are not immediate and it does not address the underlying acute hypertension or prevent rebleeding.
Question 992: A 58-year-old woman is followed in the nephrology clinic for longstanding chronic kidney disease (CKD) secondary to uncontrolled hypertension. Her glomerular filtration rate (GFR) continues to decline, and she is approaching initiation of hemodialysis. Plans are made to obtain vascular access at the appropriate time, and the patient undergoes the requisite screening to be enrolled as an end stage renal disease (ESRD) patient. Among patients on chronic hemodialysis, which of the following is the most common cause of death?
A. Cardiovascular disease (Correct Answer)
B. Infection
C. Stroke
D. Hyperkalemia
E. Cancer
Explanation: ***Cardiovascular disease***
- **Cardiovascular disease** is the leading cause of mortality in patients with **end-stage renal disease (ESRD)**, accounting for approximately 50% of all deaths.
- This is due to a high prevalence of traditional risk factors (e.g., hypertension, diabetes) compounded by ESRD-specific factors like **uremic toxins**, volume overload, and inflammation, which accelerate atherosclerosis and cause cardiac remodeling.
*Infection*
- While **infection** is a significant cause of mortality in dialysis patients, it is the second leading cause, behind cardiovascular disease.
- Dialysis patients are immunocompromised and frequently exposed to invasive procedures, increasing their risk for various infections, particularly access-related infections.
*Stroke*
- **Stroke** is a serious complication in ESRD patients due to accelerated atherosclerosis and hypertension, but it is not the most common cause of death.
- While the risk of stroke is elevated in this population, it contributes to a smaller proportion of overall mortality compared to cardiac events.
*Hyperkalemia*
- Although **hyperkalemia** can be acutely life-threatening in ESRD patients due to its effects on cardiac rhythm, it is usually managed effectively with dialysis and medication.
- Fatal hyperkalemia is relatively rare as a primary cause of death due to vigilant monitoring and timely intervention in patients on chronic hemodialysis.
*Cancer*
- Patients with ESRD have an increased risk of developing certain **cancers**, and cancer can be a cause of death.
- However, cancer-related mortality is less common than deaths from cardiovascular disease or infection in the dialysis population.
Question 993: A 67-year-old man presents with an excruciatingly painful tongue lesion. He says the lesion was preceded by an intermittent headache for the past month that localized unilaterally to the left temple and occasionally radiates to the right eye. The tongue lesion onset acutely and has been present for a few days. The pain is constant. His past medical history is relevant for hypertension and recurrent migraines. Current medications include captopril. On physical examination, multiple knot-like swellings are seen on the left temple. Findings from an inspection of the oral cavity are shown in the exhibit (see image). Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 12.9 g/dL
Hematocrit 40.7%
Leukocyte count 5500/mm3
Neutrophils 65%
Lymphocytes 30%
Monocytes 5%
Mean corpuscular volume 88.2 μm3
Platelet count 190,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 45 mm/h
Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Lysis therapy
B. CT
C. Temporal artery biopsy
D. Paracetamol
E. High-dose systemic corticosteroids (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***High-dose systemic corticosteroids***
- The patient's symptoms, including **unilateral temporal headache**, **tongue/jaw claudication** (painful tongue lesion from ischemia during use), palpable **temporal artery nodules**, and **elevated ESR**, are highly suggestive of **giant cell arteritis (GCA)**.
- Due to the risk of **irreversible blindness** from anterior ischemic optic neuropathy if untreated, immediate initiation of high-dose systemic corticosteroids (prednisone 40-60 mg daily) is crucial.
- Treatment should **NOT be delayed** for temporal artery biopsy, which can be performed within 1-2 weeks of starting steroids without affecting diagnostic yield.
*Lysis therapy*
- **Thrombolytic therapy** is used for acute thrombotic conditions such as **ST-elevation MI**, **acute ischemic stroke**, or **massive pulmonary embolism**.
- This patient's presentation suggests vasculitis (GCA), not acute thrombotic occlusion requiring fibrinolysis.
*CT*
- While **CT imaging** may help rule out other causes of headache (mass lesion, hemorrhage), it is not the next best step in suspected GCA.
- The clinical presentation with elevated ESR and temporal artery findings is classic for GCA, requiring immediate steroid therapy.
*Temporal artery biopsy*
- A **temporal artery biopsy** is the **gold standard for confirming GCA** and should be performed for diagnostic confirmation.
- However, it should **not delay empirical corticosteroid treatment** in this medical emergency.
- The biopsy can be safely performed within 1-2 weeks of starting steroids without significantly compromising histopathologic findings.
*Paracetamol*
- **Paracetamol (acetaminophen)** provides only symptomatic pain relief and has no anti-inflammatory or disease-modifying effects.
- It would be inadequate for treating GCA and would not prevent devastating complications such as **permanent vision loss** or stroke.
Question 994: A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a wellness checkup. The patient states he has been doing well and currently has no concerns. The patient's daughter states that she feels he is abnormally fatigued and has complained of light-headedness whenever he gardens. He also admits that he fainted once. The patient has a past medical history of type II diabetes, hypertension, and constipation. He recently had a "throat cold" that he recovered from with rest and fluids. His temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 167/98 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals a systolic murmur heard best along the right upper sternal border. An ECG is performed and demonstrates no signs of ST elevation. Cardiac troponins are negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Outflow tract obstruction
B. Calcification of valve leaflets (Correct Answer)
C. Incompetent valve
D. Autoimmune valve destruction
E. Bicuspid valve
Explanation: ***Calcification of valve leaflets***
- The patient's age (67 years old), symptoms (fatigue, light-headedness, syncope with exertion), and the presence of a **systolic murmur heard best along the right upper sternal border** are classic signs of **aortic stenosis**.
- In elderly patients, **degenerative calcification** of the aortic valve leaflets is the most common cause of aortic stenosis.
*Outflow tract obstruction*
- While aortic stenosis is a form of outflow tract obstruction, this option is too general.
- **Calcification of valve leaflets** is the specific pathological mechanism leading to the obstruction in this patient's age group.
*Incompetent valve*
- An incompetent valve (regurgitation) typically causes a **diastolic murmur** or a holosystolic regurgitant murmur, not the systolic ejection murmur described.
- The symptoms of an incompetent valve can differ, often including signs of volume overload rather than exertional syncope directly caused by reduced forward flow.
*Autoimmune valve destruction*
- **Rheumatic fever** can cause valve damage, but this is less common in developed countries in a 67-year-old with this specific presentation.
- Autoimmune causes are usually associated with specific rheumatic diseases or serological markers, none of which are mentioned.
*Bicuspid valve*
- A **bicuspid aortic valve** is a congenital anomaly that can lead to aortic stenosis, often presenting at a younger age (40s-60s) but can manifest later due to accelerated calcification.
- While it's a possibility, in a 67-year-old without prior history, **degenerative calcification** of a trileaflet valve is statistically more likely.
Question 995: A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department for a fever and abdominal pain. The patient states that his pain has been worsening over the past week in the setting of a fever. He has a past medical history of IV drug abuse and multiple admissions for septic shock. His temperature is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 94/54 mmHg, pulse is 133/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a murmur over the left upper sternal border. Abdominal exam reveals left upper quadrant tenderness. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL
Hematocrit: 44%
Leukocyte count: 16,700/mm^3
Platelet count: 299,000/mm^3
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hepatic abscess
B. Splenic abscess (Correct Answer)
C. Mesenteric ischemia
D. Appendicitis
E. Diverticulitis
Explanation: ***Splenic abscess***
- The patient's history of **IV drug abuse**, recurrent septic shock, and a new murmur strongly suggest **infective endocarditis**, which can lead to septic emboli.
- **Left upper quadrant tenderness**, fever, and leukocytosis in this context are highly indicative of a **splenic abscess** resulting from a septic embolus traveling to the spleen.
*Hepatic abscess*
- While possible in IV drug users, **hepatic abscesses** typically present with right upper quadrant pain and may be associated with biliary tract disease or portal vein bacteremia.
- The focused left upper quadrant tenderness and characteristic murmur are less consistent with a primary hepatic abscess.
*Mesenteric ischemia*
- This condition involves severe abdominal pain out of proportion to exam findings, often with risk factors like atrial fibrillation or atherosclerosis, and is unlikely to present with a focus on the left upper quadrant with a new murmur indicating endocarditis.
- Elevated **lactate** and significant gastrointestinal symptoms like bloody stools are typically seen but are not mentioned here.
*Appendicitis*
- Characterized by **periumbilical pain migrating to the right lower quadrant**, rebound tenderness, and guarding, which is inconsistent with the patient's presentation of left upper quadrant pain.
- While it causes fever and leukocytosis, the location of pain and the new murmur point away from appendicitis.
*Diverticulitis*
- Most commonly presents with **left lower quadrant pain** and fever, predominantly in older individuals.
- The patient's left upper quadrant pain and high-risk factors for endocarditis make diverticulitis a less likely diagnosis.
Question 996: A 40-year-old woman comes to the physician for a 2-month history of chest pain and heartburn after meals. The patient reports that the pain is worse at night and especially when lying down. She has a history of Raynaud's disease treated with nifedipine. There is no family history of serious illness. She emigrated to the US from Nigeria 5 years ago. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Thickening and hardening of the skin is seen on the hands and face. There are several firm, white nodules on the elbows and fingertips. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Anti-RNA polymerase III antibodies
B. Anti-U1 RNP antibodies
C. Anti-Scl-70 antibodies
D. Anticentromere antibodies (Correct Answer)
E. Anti-dsDNA antibodies
Explanation: ***Anticentromere antibodies***
- The patient presents with symptoms consistent with **limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis (lcSSc)**, including Raynaud's phenomenon, heartburn, skin thickening confined to the face and hands, and calcinosis (firm, white nodules). **Anticentromere antibodies** are highly specific for lcSSc.
- **Calcinosis**, **Raynaud's phenomenon**, **esophageal dysmotility**, **sclerodactyly**, and **telangiectasias** (CREST syndrome) are hallmarks of lcSSc, and anticentromere antibodies are found in 50-90% of these patients.
*Anti-RNA polymerase III antibodies*
- These antibodies are strongly associated with **diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis (dcSSc)**, which typically involves widespread skin thickening on the trunk and proximal extremities.
- They are also linked to a higher risk of **scleroderma renal crisis** and **malignancy**, neither of which are suggested by the patient's current presentation.
*Anti-U1 RNP antibodies*
- These antibodies are characteristic of **mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)**, an overlap syndrome with features of systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, and polymyositis.
- While MCTD can include Raynaud's and esophageal dysfunction, the prominence of skin thickening and calcinosis more strongly points towards scleroderma.
*Anti-Scl-70 antibodies*
- Also known as **anti-topoisomerase I antibodies**, these are primarily associated with **diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis (dcSSc)**.
- Patients with anti-Scl-70 antibodies tend to have more severe internal organ involvement, particularly **interstitial lung disease**, which is not the prominent feature in this case.
*Anti-dsDNA antibodies*
- These antibodies are highly specific for **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** and are often associated with lupus nephritis.
- The patient's symptoms of prominent skin thickening, Raynaud's, and calcinosis are not typical for SLE as the primary diagnosis.
Question 997: A 65-year-old woman presents with progressive gait difficulty, neck pain, and bladder incontinence. She also complains of urinary urgency. Past medical history is significant for uncontrolled diabetes mellitus with a previous hemoglobin A1c of 10.8%. Physical examination reveals slightly increased muscle tone in all limbs with brisk tendon reflexes. Sensory examination reveals a decrease of all sensations in a stocking and glove distribution. Her gait is significantly impaired. She walks slowly with small steps and has difficulty turning while walking. She scores 23 out of 30 on a mini-mental state examination (MMSE). A brain MRI reveals dilated ventricles with a callosal angle of 60 degrees and mild cortical atrophy. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Donepezil
B. Acetazolamide
C. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
D. Large-volume lumbar tap (Correct Answer)
E. Levodopa
Explanation: **Large-volume lumbar tap**
- The symptoms (gait difficulty, urinary incontinence, cognitive decline) in the setting of **hydrocephalus** with a **callosal angle of 60 degrees** are highly suggestive of **Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)**. A large-volume lumbar tap is both diagnostic and therapeutic in NPH, as it can temporarily improve symptoms and predict responsiveness to shunting.
- The absence of significant cortical atrophy despite dilated ventricles further supports NPH, as does the improvement in balance and gait after CSF removal.
*Ventriculoperitoneal shunt*
- While a **ventriculoperitoneal shunt** is the definitive treatment for NPH, it is typically performed only after a positive response to a **lumbar tap trial**. This trial helps to confirm the diagnosis and identify patients who are most likely to benefit from the shunt.
- Proceeding directly to shunting without a diagnostic tap could lead to unnecessary surgery in patients who may not benefit or whose symptoms are due to other conditions.
*Donepezil*
- **Donepezil** is an **acetylcholinesterase inhibitor** used in the treatment of **Alzheimer's disease** and other dementias. While cognitive decline is present, the constellation of symptoms (gait disturbance, incontinence, and hydrocephalus) points away from primary Alzheimer's.
- It would not address the underlying pathophysiology of NPH and is unlikely to improve the gait or incontinence.
*Acetazolamide*
- **Acetazolamide** is a **carbonic anhydrase inhibitor** that can reduce **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production**. It is sometimes used to manage hydrocephalus in specific circumstances (e.g., communicating hydrocephalus in infants or idiopathic intracranial hypertension).
- However, it is generally not considered effective for NPH, where the issue is impaired CSF absorption rather than overproduction. It also carries side effects that might not be suitable for an elderly patient.
*Levodopa*
- **Levodopa** is a **dopamine precursor** used in the treatment of **Parkinson's disease** to manage motor symptoms like bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremor. While the patient has gait difficulty, the presence of incontinence, cognitive decline, and hydrocephalus points away from Parkinson's disease.
- The gait disturbance in NPH is often described as "magnetic gait" or "gait apraxia," which differs from the shuffling gait of Parkinson's and would not respond to levodopa.
Question 998: A 24-year-old man is running a marathon (42.2 km) on a hot summer day and collapses about halfway through the run. Emergency personnel are called and find him having a seizure. As the seizure subsides, the runner exhibits confusion, dry lips and decreased skin turgor. On the way to the emergency department, he denies taking medication or having a history of seizures. He reports that he drank water, but he admits that it was probably not enough. Which of the following would be the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. 0.9% NaCl (Correct Answer)
B. Relcovaptan
C. Furosemide
D. Indapamide
E. 3% NaCl
Explanation: ***0.9% NaCl***
- The patient presents with signs of **volume depletion** (dry lips, decreased skin turgor) and **exercise-associated collapse with seizure**.
- While the seizure raises concern for **exercise-associated hyponatremia (EAH)**, **initial management** requires stabilization with **isotonic saline (0.9% NaCl)** for volume resuscitation.
- Without laboratory confirmation of sodium levels, **isotonic saline is the safest initial choice** as it provides volume support without risking rapid sodium shifts.
- If severe hyponatremia is later confirmed with labs, treatment can be escalated to hypertonic saline with careful monitoring.
*3% NaCl*
- **Hypertonic saline (3% NaCl)** is indicated for **severe, symptomatic hyponatremia** with neurological manifestations (seizures, altered mental status).
- While this patient has a seizure suggesting possible severe hyponatremia, **hypertonic saline should only be administered after laboratory confirmation** of serum sodium levels.
- Administering 3% NaCl without labs risks **overcorrection** and **osmotic demyelination syndrome** if the diagnosis is incorrect or correction is too rapid.
- Initial stabilization with isotonic saline is safer until sodium levels are known.
*Relcovaptan*
- Relcovaptan is a **vasopressin V2 receptor antagonist** used for treating **chronic hyponatremia** (e.g., SIADH, heart failure).
- It is **not appropriate for acute emergency management** of suspected exercise-associated hyponatremia with active seizures.
- The patient requires immediate fluid resuscitation and stabilization, not oral chronic therapy.
*Furosemide*
- **Furosemide** is a loop diuretic that promotes excretion of water and electrolytes, which would **worsen hypovolemia**.
- It is **contraindicated** in a patient presenting with signs of volume depletion and potential heatstroke.
*Indapamide*
- **Indapamide** is a thiazide-like diuretic that would promote further diuresis and **exacerbate dehydration**.
- Thiazide diuretics can also cause hyponatremia, making this particularly inappropriate in this clinical context.
Question 999: A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of weight loss and increased urinary frequency for the past month. He has also noticed blood in the urine, usually towards the end of voiding. He emigrated to the U.S. from Kenya 5 years ago. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. Physical examination shows a palpable liver edge and splenomegaly. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 9.5 mg/dL and a urine dipstick is strongly positive for blood. A CT scan of the abdomen shows bladder wall thickening and fibrosis. A biopsy specimen of the bladder shows squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
A. Peripheral nonpitting edema
B. Elevated mean pulmonary artery pressure
C. Dilation of right and left ventricles
D. Atrophy of the retina with sclerosing keratitis
E. Calcified cysts in the liver (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Calcified cysts in the liver***
- The patient's history of emigration from **Kenya**, **hematuria**, and **squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder** strongly suggest **Schistosoma haematobium** infection (urogenital schistosomiasis).
- The **hepatosplenomegaly** and palpable liver edge indicate concurrent **hepatosplenic schistosomiasis**, most commonly caused by **Schistosoma mansoni**, which is endemic in the same regions as S. haematobium.
- **Calcified hepatic granulomas** (appearing as calcified cysts) are characteristic findings of chronic S. mansoni infection, resulting from granulomatous reactions around trapped parasite eggs in the liver.
- Co-infection with both species is common in endemic areas of Africa.
*Peripheral nonpitting edema*
- While advanced liver disease from schistosomiasis can cause **portal hypertension** and hypoalbuminemia leading to edema, this typically presents as **pitting edema**, not nonpitting.
- Nonpitting edema suggests lymphedema or myxedema, which are not characteristic manifestations of schistosomiasis.
*Elevated mean pulmonary artery pressure*
- **Pulmonary hypertension** can occur in chronic hepatosplenic schistosomiasis when parasite eggs embolize to pulmonary vessels or due to portopulmonary hypertension.
- However, this is a less common complication compared to the hepatic calcifications, which are nearly universal in chronic hepatosplenic disease.
*Dilation of right and left ventricles*
- **Biventricular dilation** suggests dilated cardiomyopathy or severe chronic heart failure.
- While severe pulmonary hypertension from schistosomiasis could cause **right ventricular dilation**, biventricular involvement is not a typical manifestation.
- Hepatic calcifications are far more common and directly related to the hepatosplenic findings in this patient.
*Atrophy of the retina with sclerosing keratitis*
- These **ocular manifestations** are not associated with schistosomiasis.
- Sclerosing keratitis is typically seen in onchocerciasis (river blindness) or other conditions, not schistosomal infections.
Question 1000: A 40-year-old woman presents with a ‘tingling’ feeling in the toes of both feet that started 5 days ago. She says that the feeling varies in intensity but has been there ever since she recovered from a stomach flu last week. Over the last 2 days, the tingling sensation has started to spread up her legs. She also reports feeling weak in the legs for the past 2 days. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she currently takes no medications. Which of the following diagnostic tests would most likely be abnormal in this patient?
A. Noncontrast CT of the head
B. Serum hemoglobin concentration
C. Nerve conduction studies (Correct Answer)
D. Serum calcium concentration
E. Transthoracic echocardiography
Explanation: ***Nerve conduction studies***
- The patient's ascending **motor weakness** and **sensory paresthesias** following a gastrointestinal infection are classic symptoms of **Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)**, which is characterized by **demyelination** of peripheral nerves.
- **Nerve conduction studies** would reveal **markedly slowed conduction velocities**, **conduction block**, and **prolonged distal latencies**, indicating the demyelinating neuropathy characteristic of GBS.
*Noncontrast CT of the head*
- This test is primarily used to evaluate **acute neurological deficits** suggestive of stroke, hemorrhage, or mass lesions within the brain.
- The patient's symptoms are consistent with a **peripheral neuropathy** and do not suggest a central nervous system pathology.
*Serum hemoglobin concentration*
- This measures the concentration of **hemoglobin in the blood** and is used to diagnose **anemia**.
- While anemia can cause fatigue, it does not typically cause the **ascending paralysis** and **paresthesias** described, nor is it directly related to a recent stomach flu in this manner.
*Serum calcium concentration*
- This measures the level of **calcium in the blood**, which is important for muscle and nerve function.
- While extreme imbalances can cause neurological symptoms, there is no direct indication or typical association between the patient's symptoms and a primary calcium disorder.
*Transthoracic echocardiography*
- This imaging test evaluates the **structure and function of the heart**.
- The patient's symptoms are neurological and do not suggest a primary cardiac etiology or complication that would warrant an echocardiogram.