UPSC-CMS 2023 Practice Questions

Q: The inability to flex the index finger is a sign of

Median nerve injury. ***Median nerve injury*** - The **median nerve** innervates the **flexor digitorum superficialis** and the **flexor digitorum profundus** (radial half), which are responsible for flexing the index and middle fingers. [1] - Damage to this nerve at a high level (e.g., above the elbow) would impact these muscles, leading to an **inability to flex the index finger**. [1] *Radial nerve injury* - The **radial nerve** primarily innervates the **extensor muscles** of the arm and forearm. - Injury to this nerve would result in difficulty extending the wrist and fingers (e.g., **wrist drop**), not flexing them. *Ulnar nerve injury* - The **ulnar nerve** innervates the **flexor carpi ulnaris** and the **ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus** (ring and pinky finger). [1] - Damage would primarily affect the flexion of the ring and little fingers, as well as intrinsic hand muscles, leading to a **claw hand deformity**. *Dupuytren's contracture* - This condition involves **fibrosis and thickening of the palmar fascia**, causing the fingers (most commonly the ring and little fingers) to permanently flex towards the palm. - It is a **fibroproliferative disorder** of the hand, not a nerve injury, and typically affects flexibility in multiple fingers in a characteristic pattern, rather than a specific inability to flex one finger due to paralysis.

Q: The following are the common features of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura except

Massive splenomegaly. ***Massive splenomegaly*** - Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) typically involves only **mild to moderate splenomegaly**, if any, due to increased platelet destruction in the spleen [1]. **Massive splenomegaly** is not a characteristic feature. - **Massive splenomegaly** would suggest other conditions like chronic myeloid leukemia, myelofibrosis, or certain infectious diseases. *Cutaneous ecchymoses* - **Ecchymoses (bruising)** are a common symptom of ITP due to the low platelet count, leading to easier bleeding under the skin [2]. - These present as larger, purplish patches on the skin, indicating extravasated blood. *Thrombocytopenia* - **Thrombocytopenia** (low platelet count) is the hallmark and diagnostic criterion for ITP [1]. - The reduced number of platelets impairs the body's ability to form clots, leading to bleeding manifestations [2]. *Epistaxis* - **Epistaxis (nosebleeds)** is a common mucocutaneous bleeding symptom in ITP, reflecting the impaired primary hemostasis due to low platelet count [2]. - Bleeding from mucosal surfaces is typical in platelet disorders [2].

Q: The prognostic indicators in a case of portal hypertension include: 1. Serum globulin 2. Serum albumin 3. Serum bilirubin 4. Ascites Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2, 3 and 4. ***2, 3 and 4*** - **Serum albumin**, **serum bilirubin**, and the presence of **ascites** are all key components of scoring systems like the **Child-Pugh score**, which is widely used to assess the severity and prognosis of **liver disease** and **portal hypertension** [1]. - **Low albumin** reflects impaired synthetic function, **high bilirubin** indicates impaired excretory function, and **ascites** points to decompensation, all contributing to a worse prognosis [2]. *3 and 4 only* - This option is incomplete as it correctly identifies **serum bilirubin** and **ascites**, but omits **serum albumin**, which is a crucial prognostic indicator reflecting the liver's synthetic capacity. - While bilirubin and ascites are important, excluding albumin underestimates the complexity of prognostic assessment in **portal hypertension**. *1, 2 and 3* - This option incorrectly includes **serum globulin** as a direct prognostic indicator in the context of standard scoring systems like Child-Pugh which focus on liver function and clinical complications. - While **globulins** can be elevated in chronic liver disease due to inflammation, they are not part of the primary prognostic criteria for **portal hypertension**. *1 and 4 only* - This option incorrectly includes **serum globulin** and excludes **serum albumin** and **serum bilirubin**, two critical markers of liver function. - Relying solely on globulin and ascites would provide an incomplete and inaccurate assessment of prognosis in a patient with **portal hypertension**.

Q: The following constitute the Saint's triad except

Jaundice. ***Jaundice*** - **Jaundice** is not part of Saint's Triad, which describes a common co-occurrence of three specific conditions. - While **gallstones** can cause jaundice, jaundice itself is a symptom, not one of the conditions in the triad. *Colonic diverticulosis* - **Colonic diverticulosis** is one of the three components of Saint's Triad. - It refers to the presence of **diverticula** (small pouches) in the colon. *Gall stones* - **Gallstones** (cholelithiasis) are another key component of Saint's Triad. - This condition involves the formation of **hardened deposits** in the gallbladder. *Hiatus hernia* - **Hiatus hernia** is the third component of Saint's Triad [1]. - It occurs when part of the **stomach protrudes** through the diaphragm into the chest cavity [1].

Q: The removal of malarial parasites from the blood is called

Phagocytosis. ***Phagocytosis*** - **Phagocytosis** is the process by which specialized cells, such as **macrophages** and **neutrophils**, engulf and digest foreign particles, including malarial parasites in the blood. - This is a crucial immune mechanism for clearing infected red blood cells and free parasites from the body. - Phagocytosis occurs primarily in the **spleen, liver, and bone marrow**, where macrophages recognize and destroy parasitized RBCs. *Binding* - **Binding** refers to the initial attachment of parasites or infected cells to host cells or tissues. - While binding is a step in the parasitic lifecycle and influences sequestration, it is not the process of *removal* from the blood. *Culling* - **Culling** refers to the selective removal of damaged, aged, or parasitized red blood cells by the spleen. - In malaria, the spleen does "cull" infected RBCs through mechanical filtration and phagocytic clearance. - However, **phagocytosis** is the broader immunological term that describes the cellular mechanism of engulfment and destruction, making it the more appropriate general answer. *Sequestration* - **Sequestration** is the process by which malarial parasites (specifically *Plasmodium falciparum*) in infected red blood cells adhere to the endothelium of capillaries and venules, especially in vital organs. - This mechanism allows parasites to **avoid clearance** by the spleen, representing a process of *retention* or *hiding* rather than removal from the circulation.

Q: Among the following, which is the investigation of choice for evaluation of common bile duct (CBD)?

MRCP. ***Correct: MRCP*** - **Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)** is the investigation of choice for comprehensive CBD evaluation - **Non-invasive technique** with high sensitivity (95%) and specificity (97%) for biliary pathology - **Provides detailed anatomical visualization** of the entire biliary tree without radiation or contrast agents - **Superior for detecting** CBD stones, strictures, and obstructions *Incorrect: CECT Abdomen* - Can visualize the CBD but provides less detailed luminal information compared to MRCP - More useful for assessing surrounding structures, tumor staging, and vascular involvement - Not the primary investigation of choice for biliary tree evaluation *Incorrect: HIDA scan* - Hepatobiliary Iminodiacetic Acid scan is a functional study that assesses gallbladder function and cystic duct patency - Tracks radioactive tracer flow but does not provide detailed anatomical imaging - Cannot visualize the cause of obstruction, making it unsuitable for primary CBD evaluation *Incorrect: Ultrasonography* - Initial screening modality that is readily available and non-invasive - Can detect CBD dilation and some stones but has limited sensitivity - Limited by bowel gas interference and operator dependency - Provides less detail than MRCP, especially for distal CBD segments

Q: A 40-year old alcoholic male complains of acute pain in the epigastrium associated with vomiting for the last 10 days. On clinical examination, he is found to have a mass in the epigastrium. The most likely diagnosis is

Pancreatic pseudocyst. **Pancreatic pseudocyst** - The presence of an **epigastric mass** in an **alcoholic male** with acute epigastric pain and vomiting for 10 days is highly suggestive of a pancreatic pseudocyst, which commonly develops after **acute pancreatitis**. - Pseudocysts are collections of **pancreatic fluid** encased by a non-epithelial inflammatory wall, often presenting as a palpable mass within days to weeks after an acute episode. - The **alcoholic history** and **acute presentation** strongly support this diagnosis. *Carcinoma of head of the pancreas* - While pancreatic carcinoma can cause epigastric pain, **vomiting** and an **acute course** over 10 days are less typical. - It is usually associated with **weight loss**, **jaundice** (if the head is involved), and a more insidious onset. *Perforated peptic ulcer with sub-hepatic abscess* - A perforated peptic ulcer presents with **sudden, severe epigastric pain** that rapidly worsens, often with signs of **peritonitis** and acute abdomen. - A sub-hepatic abscess would typically be accompanied by **fever**, **leukocytosis**, and signs of sepsis. *Hepatoma in left lobe of liver* - A hepatoma would usually present with a **liver mass**, potentially **jaundice**, weight loss, and abnormal liver function tests, rather than an acute onset of severe epigastric pain and vomiting. - The mass would typically be felt in the **right upper quadrant** or epigastrium, but the clinical picture does not align with an acute pancreatic process.

Q: In acute pancreatitis, surgery is indicated in which one of the following conditions?

Infected pancreatic necrosis. ***Infected pancreatic necrosis*** - **Infected pancreatic necrosis** is a severe complication of acute pancreatitis requiring surgical or percutaneous debridement (necrosectomy) to remove infected tissue and prevent sepsis. - The presence of infection in necrotic tissue significantly increases morbidity and mortality, making intervention crucial. *Acute pseudocyst* - An acute pseudocyst is usually managed conservatively and only requires intervention if it is **symptomatic**, rapidly expanding, or becomes infected. - Surgical drainage is typically reserved for large, symptomatic, or complicated pseudocysts that persist beyond 6 weeks. *Acute fluid collection* - **Acute fluid collections** are generally self-limiting and resolve without intervention. - They are typically asymptomatic and represent an early stage of fluid accumulation, often preceding pseudocyst formation. *Sterile pancreatic necrosis* - **Sterile pancreatic necrosis** is usually managed with supportive care, as surgical intervention in the absence of infection does not improve outcomes and may increase complications. - The key distinction is the absence of infection—surgery is indicated only when necrosis becomes infected.

Q: The most common site of skeletal metastases in carcinoma of the breast is

Thoracic vertebrae. ***Thoracic vertebrae*** - The **thoracic spine** accounts for **68-80%** of all spinal metastases in breast cancer due to direct venous drainage via **Batson's venous plexus** through the **azygos vein** and **intercostal veins**. - The **valveless nature** of Batson's plexus allows **retrograde seeding** of tumor cells, making thoracic vertebrae the primary target for skeletal metastases. *Skull* - While skull metastases can occur in breast cancer, they represent a **less frequent site** compared to the axial skeleton, particularly thoracic vertebrae. - Skull involvement typically presents as **lytic lesions** and may cause neurological symptoms, but occurs in a minority of cases. *Pelvis* - The pelvis is indeed a common site for bone metastases in breast cancer, but it is **secondary** to thoracic vertebral involvement. - Pelvic metastases can cause **pathological fractures** and hip pain, but represent a smaller percentage of initial skeletal spread. *Lumbar vertebrae* - Lumbar spine involvement occurs in only **16-22%** of spinal metastases, significantly **less frequent** than thoracic vertebrae. - This distinction is crucial for exam purposes as lumbar involvement is often confused with thoracic, but the **anatomical drainage pattern** clearly favors thoracic spread.

Q: Consider the following findings with reference to a diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL) in a case of abdominal trauma : 1. 10 ml of gross blood on aspiration 2. W.B.C. count more than 500/cu mm 3. Amylase level more than 175 IU/dL 4. R.B.C. count more than 100,000/cu mm The criteria for a positive DPL are :

1, 2, 3 and 4. ***1, 2, 3 and 4*** - A **positive DPL** is indicated by any of these findings: gross blood on aspiration (≥10 mL), WBC count >500/mm³, amylase level >175 IU/dL, or RBC count >100,000/mm³. - All four criteria listed are standard indicators for a positive DPL, suggesting significant intra-abdominal injury requiring further intervention. *1 and 2 only* - While **gross blood aspiration** and an **elevated WBC count** are indeed criteria for a positive DPL, this option is incomplete as it omits other critical indicators. - A **high amylase level** and **RBC count >100,000/mm³** are also definitive signs of a positive DPL. *3 and 4 only* - Although an **elevated amylase level** and a **high RBC count** are valid criteria, this option is insufficient because it excludes the important findings of gross blood aspiration and an elevated WBC count. - A comprehensive assessment requires considering **all definitive indicators** for a positive DPL. *1, 2 and 3 only* - This option includes gross blood aspiration, elevated WBC count, and elevated amylase level, which are all positive indicators. - However, it incorrectly excludes an **RBC count >100,000/mm³**, which is a crucial and widely accepted criterion for a positive DPL.

Question 1

The inability to flex the index finger is a sign of

Accepted Answer

Median nerve injury

Answer

Radial nerve injury

Answer

Ulnar nerve injury

Answer

Dupuytren's contracture

Question 2

The following are the common features of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura except

Accepted Answer

Massive splenomegaly

Answer

Cutaneous ecchymoses

Answer

Thrombocytopenia

Answer

Epistaxis

Question 3

The prognostic indicators in a case of portal hypertension include:

1. Serum globulin
2. Serum albumin
3. Serum bilirubin
4. Ascites

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Accepted Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

3 and 4 only

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1 and 4 only

Question 4

The following constitute the Saint's triad except

Accepted Answer

Jaundice

Answer

Colonic diverticulosis

Answer

Gall stones

Answer

Hiatus hernia

Question 5

The removal of malarial parasites from the blood is called

Accepted Answer

Phagocytosis

Answer

Binding

Answer

Culling

Answer

Sequestration

Question 6

Among the following, which is the investigation of choice for evaluation of common bile duct (CBD)?

Accepted Answer

MRCP

Answer

CECT Abdomen

Answer

HIDA scan

Answer

Ultrasonography

Question 7

A 40-year old alcoholic male complains of acute pain in the epigastrium associated with vomiting for the last 10 days. On clinical examination, he is found to have a mass in the epigastrium. The most likely diagnosis is

Accepted Answer

Pancreatic pseudocyst

Answer

Carcinoma of head of the pancreas

Answer

Perforated peptic ulcer with sub-hepatic abscess

Answer

Hepatoma in left lobe of liver

Question 8

In acute pancreatitis, surgery is indicated in which one of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Infected pancreatic necrosis

Answer

Acute pseudocyst

Answer

Acute fluid collection

Answer

Sterile pancreatic necrosis

Question 9

The most common site of skeletal metastases in carcinoma of the breast is

Accepted Answer

Thoracic vertebrae

Answer

Skull

Answer

Pelvis

Answer

Lumbar vertebrae

Question 10

Consider the following findings with reference to a diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL) in a case of abdominal trauma :

1. 10 ml of gross blood on aspiration
2. W.B.C. count more than 500/cu mm
3. Amylase level more than 175 IU/dL
4. R.B.C. count more than 100,000/cu mm The criteria for a positive DPL are :

Accepted Answer

1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

1 and 2 only

Answer

3 and 4 only

Answer

1, 2 and 3 only

UPSC-CMS 2023

Anatomy

Internal Medicine

Physiology

Radiology

Surgery