Obstetrics and Gynecology
8 questionsA 28 year old P1L1 presents with severe pain in her abdomen and is taken for laparotomy. On opening the abdomen pseudomyxoma peritonei is present. What should be the probable reason?
In a 40 year old woman, pap smear shows atypical glandular cells. The next step of management should be:
A 50 year old P4L4 has a simple left ovarian cyst of 10cm. Ca 125 is 30u/ml. Treatment of choice would be:
A seven year old girl with precocious puberty is found to be having a 10 cm ovarian cyst on USG. The most likely etiology is
A 17 year old girl presents with an ovarian cyst of 5cm. The cyst is echo free, unilocular and CA 125 of 8U/ml. What is most appropriate management?
Most probable cause of heavy bleeding in a P2L2 during tenth day post partum is:
Combined contraceptive pills give protection from the following EXCEPT:
A woman presents with heavy foul smelling discharge with sharply demarcated ulcers without induration on the perineum and the labia majora. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is also present. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Pharmacology
2 questionsAbsolute contraindication to combined oral contraceptive is:
A woman with which of the following health problems should avoid centchroman?