NEET-PG 2023 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: A chronic alcoholic patient presented to the casualty with confusion, ataxia, and painful eye movements. What vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with these symptoms?

Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency. ***Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency*** - The constellation of **confusion**, **ataxia**, and **ophthalmoplegia** (often presenting as painful eye movements) in a chronic alcoholic patient is highly characteristic of **Wernicke encephalopathy**, which results from thiamine deficiency [1]. - Chronic alcohol abuse severely impairs the **absorption**, **utilization**, and **storage** of thiamine, making this population particularly vulnerable to deficiency [1]. *Hypocalcemia* - Symptoms of hypocalcemia typically include **tetany**, **muscle cramps**, **paresthesias**, and in severe cases, seizures or cardiac arrhythmias, which are not described here. - While chronic alcoholism can affect calcium metabolism, hypocalcemia does not primarily manifest with the neurological triad observed. *Subacute combined degeneration (Vitamin B12 deficiency)* - This condition primarily affects the **dorsal columns** and **corticospinal tracts** of the spinal cord, leading to ataxia, paresthesias, and weakness, but typically does not cause acute confusion or painful eye movements. - While alcohol abuse can also be associated with B12 deficiency, the presented symptoms are not classic for subacute combined degeneration. *Pellagra (Niacin deficiency)* - Pellagra is characterized by the "3 Ds": **dermatitis**, **diarrhea**, and **dementia** (which is a progressive cognitive decline rather than acute confusion). - The presence of ataxia and painful eye movements is not a primary feature of niacin deficiency.

Q: Which of the following is a known risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma?

Clonorchis sinensis infestation. ***Clonorchis sinensis infestation*** - **Clonorchis sinensis**, also known as the Chinese liver fluke, is a well-established and significant risk factor for the development of **cholangiocarcinoma**. - Chronic inflammation and irritation of the bile ducts caused by the parasite are believed to promote malignant transformation. *Giardia lamblia (intestinal protozoa) infection* - **Giardia lamblia** is a common intestinal parasite causing giardiasis, characterized by diarrhea and malabsorption. - While it affects the gastrointestinal tract, there is **no known association** between *Giardia* infection and an increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma. *Paragonimus westermani infestation* - **Paragonimus westermani** is a lung fluke that primarily causes paragonimiasis, affecting the lungs and leading to cough and hemoptysis. - This parasite is not associated with direct bile duct inflammation or an increased risk of **cholangiocarcinoma**. *Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm) infection* - **Ascaris lumbricoides** is a large intestinal roundworm that can cause intestinal obstruction or nutrient deficiencies. - Although it can occasionally migrate into the biliary tree, it is **not considered a risk factor** for cholangiocarcinoma [1].

Q: A patient presents with fever and jaundice after repairing sewers. What is the most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient?

Microscopic agglutination test. ***Microscopic agglutination test*** - The patient's presentation (fever, jaundice, history of repairing sewers) is highly suggestive of **leptospirosis** [1]. The **Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT)** is considered the gold standard for diagnosing leptospirosis, as it directly detects antibodies against *Leptospira* serovars [1]. - MAT provides **serovar-specific results** and is highly sensitive and specific, especially when acute and convalescent phase sera are tested [1]. *Weil Felix test* - The Weil-Felix test is used to diagnose **rickettsial infections**, not leptospirosis. - It detects antibodies that cross-react with antigens of certain *Proteus* species. *Paul Bunnell test* - The Paul-Bunnell test is used to detect **heterophile antibodies** associated with **infectious mononucleosis** (Epstein-Barr virus infection). - This test is not relevant for diagnosing bacterial infections like leptospirosis. *Microimmunofluorescence test* - The microimmunofluorescence (MIF) test is primarily used for the diagnosis of **chlamydial infections** and sometimes for rickettsial diseases. - While an antibody-detection test, it is not the standard or preferred method for diagnosing leptospirosis.

Q: A patient presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. Imaging reveals calcified cysts in the liver, and serological testing is positive for Echinococcus. What is a potential complication of this infection?

Secondary bacterial infection of cysts. ***Secondary bacterial infection of cysts*** - **Hydatid cysts** can become secondarily infected, typically after rupture or surgical manipulation, leading to an **abscess formation** within the liver. - This complication can present with features like fever, worsening abdominal pain, and an elevated **white blood cell count**, distinct from the initial presentation. *Rupture of cysts leading to anaphylactic shock* - While rupture of **hydatid cysts** can lead to **anaphylactic shock** due to the release of hydatid fluid, it is not the *most common immediate complication* or the scenario implied by abdominal pain and jaundice. - **Anaphylaxis** implies a rapid, severe systemic allergic reaction, which is a life-threatening acute event. *Portal hypertension due to cyst compression* - While large cysts can compress structures, significant **portal hypertension** due to direct compression of the portal vein by **hydatid cysts** is rare. - More commonly, portal hypertension is a complication of advanced **cirrhosis**, not typically direct cyst compression in the early stages described. *No significant complications* - **Echinococcosis** (hydatid disease) is a serious parasitic infection that almost always leads to significant morbidity if left untreated. - Cysts grow over time and inevitably cause **organ dysfunction**, pain, obstruction, or other complications.

Q: Which of the following is not the component of qSOFA?

Unequally dilated pupils. ***Unequally dilated pupils*** - **Unequally dilated pupils** are not a component of the **qSOFA** score. This finding can be indicative of neurological issues such as increased **intracranial pressure** or **uncal herniation**, but not directly part of the sepsis screening tool [1]. - The qSOFA score focuses on easily obtainable clinical signs to rapidly identify patients at risk for poor outcomes from **sepsis**. *Respiratory rate >22/min* - A **respiratory rate greater than 22 breaths per minute** is one of the three criteria for the **qSOFA** score, indicating significant physiological stress. - This elevated respiratory rate suggests an increased work of breathing, often due to **metabolic acidosis** or **systemic inflammation** associated with sepsis. *Altered mental status* - **Altered mental status** (e.g., Glasgow Coma Scale score less than 15) is a core component of the **qSOFA** score [1]. - This sign reflects **cerebral hypoperfusion** or **encephalopathy** due to the systemic effects of sepsis [1]. *Systolic BP<100 mmHg* - A **systolic blood pressure less than 100 mmHg** is another key criterion of the **qSOFA** score. - This indicates **hypotension** and suggests inadequate tissue perfusion, a critical sign of **circulatory dysfunction** in sepsis [1].

Q: A 29-year-old patient presents with focal seizures. MRI shows frontal and temporal enhancement. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Herpes simplex encephalitis. ***Herpes simplex encephalitis*** - **Herpes simplex encephalitis (HSE)** characteristically causes inflammation and damage in the **frontal** and **temporal lobes**, leading to focal neurological deficits and seizures [1]. - MRI findings of **enhancement** in these specific brain regions are highly suggestive of HSE. *Enterovirus encephalitis* - **Enterovirus encephalitis** typically affects a broader range of brain regions and less commonly presents with the focal frontal and temporal enhancement seen in HSE. - While it can cause seizures, the MRI findings are not as specific for this diagnosis. *Japanese encephalitis* - **Japanese encephalitis** is geographically restricted to parts of Asia and is transmitted by mosquitoes. The clinical presentation typically includes diffuse encephalitic symptoms rather than focal frontal/temporal involvement and enhancement on MRI. - This diagnosis would be unlikely without a relevant travel history and exposure. *Meningococcal meningitis* - **Meningococcal meningitis** is an infection of the **meninges**, the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, not primarily the brain tissue itself. - MRI would typically show inflammation and enhancement of the meninges, rather than focal parenchymal (brain tissue) enhancement in the frontal and temporal lobes.

Q: When resuscitating a patient in shock which of the following is not an adequate parameter to predict end point of resuscitation?

Blood pressure. ***Blood pressure*** - While essential for initial assessment and guiding treatment, **blood pressure** can be maintained within normal limits even in significant shock states due to compensatory mechanisms [1]. - Blood pressure alone does not reflect **tissue perfusion** or cellular oxygenation, which are the true endpoints of resuscitation [1]. *Mixed venous oxygen saturation* - **Mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2)** reflects the balance between oxygen delivery and consumption, providing insight into global tissue oxygenation. - A low SvO2 indicates inadequate oxygen delivery relative to demand, making it a valuable target for guiding resuscitation. *Base deficit* - **Base deficit** is a measure of metabolic acidosis and reflects the severity of tissue hypoperfusion and anaerobic metabolism. - Normalization of base deficit indicates correction of metabolic derangements and improved tissue perfusion. *Lactate* - **Lactate** is a product of anaerobic metabolism, which occurs when tissues are not adequately perfused or oxygenated. - Elevated lactate levels indicate tissue hypoperfusion, and serial measurements are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of resuscitation and predicting outcomes.

Q: All the following nerves are involved in entrapment neuropathy except -

Femoral nerve. ***Femoral nerve*** - While the femoral nerve can be injured, it is **uncommonly involved** in entrapment neuropathy compared to other nerves. - Entrapment of the femoral nerve is rare and typically occurs in the **pelvis** or **inguinal region**, often due to trauma or mass effect. *Median nerve* - The median nerve is classically involved in **carpal tunnel syndrome**, where it is compressed at the wrist [1], [2]. - Symptoms include pain, numbness, and tingling in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger [1]. *Ulnar nerve* - The ulnar nerve is commonly entrapped at the **cubital tunnel** (elbow) or the **Guyon's canal** (wrist) [1]. - This leads to symptoms such as numbness and weakness in the small finger and ulnar half of the ring finger [1]. *Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh* - This nerve is frequently entrapped as it passes under the **inguinal ligament**, causing **meralgia paresthetica**. - Symptoms include burning pain and numbness on the lateral aspect of the thigh.

Q: In HIV patients, Kaposi's sarcoma is most likely caused by which of the following?

Virus. ***Virus*** - The image likely depicts **Kaposi's sarcoma**, a common lesion in HIV patients, which is caused by **Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)**. - Other viral infections like **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)** can also cause mucocutaneous lesions in immunocompromised individuals. *Bacteria* - While HIV patients are susceptible to bacterial infections (e.g., **Staphylococcus aureus** causing skin abscesses), the described lesion type is not characteristic of common bacterial skin infections. - Bacterial lesions often present as pustules, cellulitis, or ulcers with purulent discharge, which differ from typical Kaposi's sarcoma. *Parasite* - Parasitic infections can occur in HIV patients (e.g., **scabies** or **leishmaniasis**), but these typically present with different dermatological features like intensely itchy papules or nodular ulcerative lesions. - Lesions caused by parasites do not usually manifest as the violaceous, nodular, or plaque-like appearances seen in Kaposi's sarcoma. *Fungus* - Fungal infections in HIV patients can cause skin lesions (e.g., **candidiasis** with oral thrush or esophagitis, or **cryptococcosis** with molluscum-like lesions). - However, the morphology of these fungal lesions generally differs from the classic appearance of Kaposi's sarcoma or other common viral lesions in HIV.

Q: Which of these is least effective as first-line treatment for dangerous hyperkalemia?

Intravenous sodium bicarbonate. ***Intravenous sodium bicarbonate*** - While it can drive potassium into cells, its effect is often **delayed and unreliable** in acute, dangerous hyperkalemia, especially without concurrent acidosis. - Its efficacy is most pronounced when hyperkalemia is associated with **metabolic acidosis**, which is not always the primary driving factor of dangerous hyperkalemia. *Calcium chloride injection* - This is a **first-line treatment** for dangerous hyperkalemia, as it **stabilizes the cardiac membrane** by antagonizing the direct effects of potassium on myocardial excitability [1]. - It does not lower serum potassium levels but **protects the heart** from life-threatening arrhythmias, buying time for other therapies to reduce potassium [1]. *Beta-2 agonist (Salbutamol)* - **Beta-2 agonists** like salbutamol are effective in shifting potassium **intracellularly**, thereby lowering serum potassium levels. - This effect is mediated by stimulating the **Na+/K+-ATPase pump** on cell membranes. *Dialysis (Hemodialysis)* - **Hemodialysis** is the **most effective and rapid** method for removing excess potassium from the body, especially in cases of severe or refractory hyperkalemia. - It provides definitive treatment by directly **filtering potassium** from the blood, and is often considered when other measures fail or in patients with kidney failure.

Question 1

A chronic alcoholic patient presented to the casualty with confusion, ataxia, and painful eye movements. What vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with these symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency

Answer

Hypocalcemia

Answer

Subacute combined degeneration (Vitamin B12 deficiency)

Answer

Pellagra (Niacin deficiency)

Question 2

Which of the following is a known risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Clonorchis sinensis infestation

Answer

Giardia lamblia (intestinal protozoa) infection

Answer

Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm) infection

Answer

Paragonimus westermani infestation

Question 3

A patient presents with fever and jaundice after repairing sewers. What is the most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Microscopic agglutination test

Answer

Weil Felix test

Answer

Paul Bunnell test

Answer

Microimmunofluorescence test

Question 4

A patient presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. Imaging reveals calcified cysts in the liver, and serological testing is positive for Echinococcus. What is a potential complication of this infection?

Accepted Answer

Secondary bacterial infection of cysts

Answer

Portal hypertension due to cyst compression

Answer

Rupture of cysts leading to anaphylactic shock

Answer

No significant complications

Question 5

Which of the following is not the component of qSOFA?

Accepted Answer

Unequally dilated pupils

Answer

Respiratory rate >22/min

Answer

Altered mental status

Answer

Systolic BP<100 mmHg

Question 6

A 29-year-old patient presents with focal seizures. MRI shows frontal and temporal enhancement. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Herpes simplex encephalitis

Answer

Enterovirus encephalitis

Answer

Japanese encephalitis

Answer

Meningococcal meningitis

Question 7

When resuscitating a patient in shock which of the following is not an adequate parameter to predict end point of resuscitation?

Accepted Answer

Blood pressure

Answer

Mixed venous oxygen saturation

Answer

Base deficit

Answer

Lactate

Question 8

All the following nerves are involved in entrapment neuropathy except -

Accepted Answer

Femoral nerve

Answer

Median nerve

Answer

Ulnar nerve

Answer

Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

Question 9

In HIV patients, Kaposi's sarcoma is most likely caused by which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Virus

Answer

Bacteria

Answer

Parasite

Answer

Fungus

Question 10

Which of these is least effective as first-line treatment for dangerous hyperkalemia?

Accepted Answer

Intravenous sodium bicarbonate

Answer

Calcium chloride injection

Answer

Beta-2 agonist (Salbutamol)

Answer

Dialysis (Hemodialysis)

NEET-PG 2023 — Internal Medicine