FMGE 2025 Practice Questions

Q: A known case of hyperthyroidism, who is not on medication, is scheduled for total thyroidectomy. The PAC check was not done properly. What is the leading complication that can occur during surgery?

Arrhythmia. ***Arrhythmia***- Uncontrolled **hyperthyroidism** significantly increases sympathetic cardiovascular stimulation, making the heart susceptible to **tachycardia** and cardiac instability during stress.- Intraoperative stress (from anesthesia and surgery) can trigger a **thyroid storm**, where the resulting severe ventricular tachycardia or **atrial fibrillation** poses the greatest immediate threat to life during the procedure.*Hyperthermia*- Although **hyperthermia** (high fever) is a critical classic sign of a **thyroid storm**, immediate cardiovascular collapse due to **arrhythmias** typically precedes or dominates the intraoperative crisis.- The underlying increase in the **basal metabolic rate (BMR)** in hyperthyroidism predisposes the patient to thermal dysregulation, which is exacerbated during surgery.*Hypothermia*- **Hypothermia** (low body temperature) is extremely unlikely as the leading complication in an actively hyperthyroid patient due to their persistently elevated **BMR**.- This complication would be more typical of severe non-thyroid disease or prolonged surgery with poor thermal management, not directly caused by unmedicated hyperthyroidism itself.*Hypothyroidism*- **Hypothyroidism** is a predictable *long-term complication* following a successful **total thyroidectomy** and subsequent removal of functional thyroid tissue.- This condition is not an acute, intraoperative complication resulting from the lack of proper preoperative control of the underlying **thyrotoxicosis**.

Q: During a field visit to monitor training given to an ANM (Auxiliary Nurse Midwife) on safe immunization practices, you observe that she has used a syringe with a needle, a vaccine vial, and a cotton swab. After completing the immunization, which of the following statements about biomedical waste disposal is correct?

A used cotton swab should be discarded in a yellow bag. ***A used cotton swab should be discarded in a yellow bag*** - Used cotton swabs contaminated with blood or body fluids are classified as **soiled waste** (Category 3) under the **Biomedical Waste Management Rules 2016**. - Soiled waste including cotton swabs, dressings, and gauze must be disposed of in **YELLOW bags** for treatment and disposal as per current BMW Rules. *The syringe with the needle should be disposed of in a black translucent container* - Used needles and syringes are categorized as **sharps waste** (Category 4) under BMW Rules 2016. - They must be collected in **WHITE translucent puncture-proof containers**, not black containers which are for general non-biomedical waste. *The used vaccine vial should be discarded in a blue bag* - Used vaccine vials made of glass are classified as **waste sharps** including glass materials. - As per BMW Rules 2016, glass vials should be discarded in **BLUE containers/boxes** specifically designed for pharmaceutical waste, not blue bags. *The needle should be bent and thrown in a red bag* - **Bending, breaking, or recapping** used needles is strictly prohibited as it poses high risk of **needle-stick injuries**. - Used needles must be immediately placed into a **WHITE translucent puncture-proof sharps container** without any manipulation or bending.

Q: Who is primarily responsible for registering eligible couples for family planning and maintaining their records under the national health system?

Multipurpose Worker (Female). ***Multipurpose Worker (Female)***- The Multipurpose Worker (Female) (also known as Auxiliary Nurse Midwife or ANM in some contexts) is the primary worker at the sub-centre level responsible for providing **Maternal and Child Health (MCH)** and **family planning** services.- Their core duties include identifying, counseling, and formally **registering eligible couples (ECs)** in the operational area and maintaining detailed records (like the EC register) of their contraceptive choices and follow-up.*ASHA*- ASHAs (Accredited Social Health Activists) are primarily **community-level linkages** and promoters, tasked with mobilization, counseling, and facilitating the uptake of services.- They refer eligible couples to the sub-centre or Primary Health Centre (PHC), but the **official record-keeping and maintenance** are done by the MPW (F)/ANM.*Village Health Guide*- The role of the Village Health Guide was established to provide basic health education and first aid, often serving as a primary link between the PHC and the community.- This cadre is often being phased out or subsumed by ASHA; they do not have the **formal administrative responsibility** for maintaining designated family planning registers.*Anganwadi Worker*- Anganwadi Workers are primarily focused on the **Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)** scheme, concentrating on nutrition, growth monitoring, and pre-school education.- While they aid in health awareness and may assist in gathering community data, they are not the designated functionary for **family planning service registration** and record maintenance under the national health system.

Q: A 30-year-old male presents with deep-seated retro-orbital pain from cluster headache. What is the best management?

Oxygen. ***Oxygen*** - **High-flow oxygen** (100% at 7-15 L/min) is the safest and most effective **first-line abortive treatment** for an acute cluster headache attack [1] - It works rapidly to cause **vasoconstriction** and often terminates the severe retro-orbital pain within **15 to 20 minutes** - This is the preferred treatment for acute attacks due to its rapid onset and excellent safety profile *Verapamil* - Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker and is considered the **first-line prophylactic agent** for both episodic and chronic cluster headache, not acute treatment [1] - Its mechanism of action requires time, rendering it ineffective for terminating an ongoing acute pain episode - Used to prevent future attacks, not to abort current ones *Lithium* - Lithium is a prophylactic treatment reserved mainly for patients with **chronic cluster headache** or those who do not respond to Verapamil [1] - It has a slow onset of action and is not used to manage the acute pain of a cluster attack - Requires therapeutic monitoring due to narrow therapeutic window [1] *Topiramate* - Topiramate is an established prophylactic treatment primarily for **migraine**, and occasionally used as a second-line prophylactic agent for cluster headache - As a prophylactic medication, it plays **no role** in the acute termination or abortive management of a cluster headache episode

Q: Patient presents with hypertension and hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. CT scan shows a unilateral adrenal mass with elevated ARR. What is the next best step for the management of this patient?

Adrenalectomy. ***Adrenalectomy*** - The combination of **hypertension**, **hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis**, elevated **Aldosterone-to-Renin Ratio (ARR)**, and a unilateral **adrenal mass** is diagnostic for Primary Aldosteronism, likely due to an Aldosterone-Producing Adenoma (**APA**) [1]. - **Unilateral adrenalectomy** is the definitive, potentially curative treatment for a confirmed APA, addressing the root cause of the hyperaldosteronism and hypertension [1]. *Spironolactone on a lifelong basis* - This treatment involves a **Mineralocorticoid Receptor Antagonist** and is the preferred therapy for patients with **Bilateral Adrenal Hyperplasia (BAH)** or for patients with an APA who are not surgical candidates [1]. - Since a likely unilateral adenoma is identified and surgery offers a cure, medical therapy is not the *next best step*. *ACTH stimulation test* - This test is used primarily to evaluate the reserve capacity of the adrenal cortex and diagnose **Adrenal Insufficiency** (e.g., Addison's disease or secondary adrenal insufficiency) [2]. - It is not indicated for the diagnosis or management of hyperaldosteronism. *Dexamethasone suppression test* - This test is the standard screening tool used to diagnose **Cushing's syndrome** (hypercortisolism) by assessing the feedback loop involving the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis [3]. - It is irrelevant in the workup for primary hyperaldosteronism.

Q: A 35-year-old male has had chronic hypercalcemia for the last 1.5 years, but PTH levels are normal. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

Sarcoidosis. ***Sarcoidosis*** - Causes hypercalcemia via ectopic synthesis of **1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D** (calcitriol) by activated macrophages in the granulomas, leading to increased intestinal calcium absorption [1]. - Although the resulting hypercalcemia usually suppresses PTH (making it low), in chronic, mild cases, the PTH level may appear in the lower end of the **normal reference range**, consistent with the clinical picture of a non-PTH-mediated cause [1]. *Malignancy* - Hypercalcemia related to solid tumors (Humoral Hypercalcemia of Malignancy) is typically mediated by **PTH-related peptide (PTHrP)**, resulting in high calcium. - This non-PTH mediated hypercalcemia leads to appropriate **suppression of the parathyroid glands**, meaning PTH levels would be significantly **low or undetectable**, not normal [1]. *Parathyroid hyperplasia* - This condition represents **primary hyperparathyroidism**, characterized by autonomous secretion of PTH [1]. - In primary hyperparathyroidism, PTH levels are typically inappropriately **elevated** (or grossly high-normal) despite the presence of hypercalcemia, which contradicts a normal PTH value [1]. *C.K.D* - Chronic kidney disease usually results in **hypocalcemia** due to impaired 1-alpha-hydroxylase function and resultant low 1,25(OH)₂D levels [2]. - If hypercalcemia were present (e.g., due to tertiary hyperparathyroidism), PTH levels would be markedly **elevated**, not normal, due to persistent glandular stimulation [2].

Q: A female presents with amenorrhea and galactorrhea. Serum prolactin is elevated. MRI shows pituitary adenoma. Best management for this patient?

Bromocriptine. ***Bromocriptine***- It is a **dopamine agonist** and represents the initial and standard treatment for **prolactinomas**, effectively reducing tumor size and lowering prolactin levels [1].- Dopamine agonists resolve symptoms such as **amenorrhea** and **galactorrhea** by inhibiting prolactin secretion from the pituitary [1]. *Letrozole*- This is an **aromatase inhibitor** primarily used in the management of hormone-sensitive breast cancer or for ovulation induction in conditions like PCOS. - Its mechanism is unrelated to suppressing prolactin secretion from the pituitary or shrinking a prolactinoma. *Tamoxifen*- This is a **Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM)** most commonly used in the treatment and prevention of estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. - It does not act on dopamine receptors and is ineffective in reversing elevated prolactin levels or associated symptoms. *Goserelin*- This agent is a **Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) agonist** used primarily for conditions like endometriosis, uterine fibroids, or prostate cancer by initially stimulating then desensitizing the GnRH receptor. - While it suppresses LH and FSH [2], it is not the primary treatment for hyperprolactinemia caused by a pituitary adenoma.

Q: A HIV-positive patient presents with chronic diarrhoea for 4 weeks. Stool microscopy shows oval/ elliptical cysts measuring 16 X 20 μm. Diagnosis is?

Cystoisospora. ***Cystoisospora*** - The finding of large, oval/ellipsoidal oocysts (typically **20-33 μm** long, range includes the 16 x 20 μm given) in the stool of an HIV patient with chronic diarrhea is diagnostic of **Cystoisospora belli** infection. - *Cystoisospora* causes chronic, profuse watery diarrhea in immunocompromised hosts (like those with **AIDS**) and is effectively treated with **trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)**. *Cryptosporidium* - This parasite is characterized by small, **spherical oocysts** measuring only **4–6 μm** in diameter, which is much smaller than the size reported (16 x 20 μm). - While *Cryptosporidium* is a common cause of chronic diarrhea in AIDS, the oocyst morphology does not match the description. *Cryptococcus* - **Cryptococcus** is a fungal pathogen (*C. neoformans*) primarily known for causing **meningoencephalitis** in HIV patients, not typically large oval/elliptical oocysts in stool causing chronic primary diarrhea. - Diagnosis relies on visualization of encapsulated yeast in CSF (e.g., **India ink stain**) or **cryptococcal antigen (CrAg)** testing. *Cyclospora* - *Cyclospora cayetanensis* oocysts are medium-sized and **spherical**, typically measuring **8–10 μm** in diameter. - Although it causes prolonged diarrhea in immunocompromised individuals, the oocyst shape (**oval/elliptical**) and size (16 x 20 μm) clearly distinguish it from *Cyclospora*.

Q: A child with progressive pallor and bone pain has an elevated HbS based on the HPLC report. Which is the best treatment to manage hemolysis in this patient?

Voxelotor. ***Voxelotor*** - It is a **hemoglobin polymerization inhibitor** that stabilizes the oxygenated form of red blood cells, preventing **sickling** and subsequent hemolytic anemia, thereby directly managing the hemolysis. - It significantly improves **hemoglobin levels** and reduces markers of hemolysis, such as **indirect bilirubin** and **reticulocyte count**. *Hydroxyurea* - Its primary mechanism is inducing the production of **fetal hemoglobin (HbF)**, thereby diluting the concentration of HbS and *indirectly* reducing hemolysis over time. - Although crucial for managing **vaso-occlusive crises** (VOCs), it is not as direct an anti-hemolytic agent as Voxelotor. *Azacytidine* - This is a **DNA methyltransferase inhibitor**, primarily used in high-risk **Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)** and Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML). - While it can induce HbF like Hydroxyurea, it is not a standard or approved frontline treatment for the routine management of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD). *Bortezomib* - This drug is a **proteasome inhibitor** used exclusively in the treatment of **Multiple Myeloma** and certain related plasma cell dyscrasias. - It has no therapeutic role or clinical indication in the specific management of hemolysis or the underlying pathophysiology of SCD.

Q: On examination, a person has distended neck veins, absent breath sounds, hyperresonance, and a shift of the trachea. What is the management?

Wide bore needle in 2nd ICS. ***Wide bore needle in 2nd ICS***- The constellation of absent breath sounds, **hyperresonance**, distended neck veins, and tracheal deviation indicates **tension pneumothorax**, which requires immediate definitive management before imaging can be done via a **needle decompression**.- This emergent procedure involves inserting a large-bore needle (e.g., 14-gauge) into the **second intercostal space (ICS)** in the midclavicular line to immediately relieve the pleural pressure and convert it to a simple pneumothorax.*Bedside CXR in casualty followed by chest tube insertion*- Obtaining a **CXR** is contraindicated as it significantly delays the urgent, life-saving decompression required for a clinically diagnosed **tension pneumothorax**.- While **chest tube insertion** is the definitive management, initial stabilization via needle decompression must precede this step in unstable patients with tension pneumothorax.*Pericardiocentesis*- This procedure is indicated for **cardiac tamponade**, which presents with features such as Beck's triad (hypotension, muffled heart sounds, elevated JVP), not the hyperresonance and absent breath sounds seen here.- Cardiac tamponade is a fluid accumulation issue impacting cardiac function, distinct from the life-threatening air accumulation and massive pressure shift seen in **tension pneumothorax**.*Pleurodesis with doxycycline*- **Pleurodesis** is an elective, definitive procedure used to prevent the recurrence of pleural effusions or pneumothorax by fusing the pleural layers, not an immediate emergency intervention.- This is typically reserved for stable patients with recurrent pneumothorax or chronic conditions like refractory **malignant pleural effusion**.

Question 1

A known case of hyperthyroidism, who is not on medication, is scheduled for total thyroidectomy. The PAC check was not done properly. What is the leading complication that can occur during surgery?

Accepted Answer

Arrhythmia

Answer

Hypothyroidism

Answer

Hypothermia

Answer

Hyperthermia

Question 2

During a field visit to monitor training given to an ANM (Auxiliary Nurse Midwife) on safe immunization practices, you observe that she has used a syringe with a needle, a vaccine vial, and a cotton swab. After completing the immunization, which of the following statements about biomedical waste disposal is correct?

Accepted Answer

A used cotton swab should be discarded in a yellow bag

Answer

The used vaccine vial should be discarded in a blue bag

Answer

The needle should be bent and thrown in a red bag

Answer

The syringe with the needle should be disposed of in a black translucent container

Question 3

Who is primarily responsible for registering eligible couples for family planning and maintaining their records under the national health system?

Accepted Answer

Multipurpose Worker (Female)

Answer

Village Health Guide

Answer

Anganwadi Worker

Answer

ASHA

Question 4

A 30-year-old male presents with deep-seated retro-orbital pain from cluster headache. What is the best management?

Accepted Answer

Oxygen

Answer

Verapamil

Answer

Lithium

Answer

Topiramate

Question 5

Patient presents with hypertension and hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. CT scan shows a unilateral adrenal mass with elevated ARR. What is the next best step for the management of this patient?

Accepted Answer

Adrenalectomy

Answer

Spironolactone on a lifelong basis

Answer

Dexamethasone suppression test

Answer

ACTH stimulation test

Question 6

A 35-year-old male has had chronic hypercalcemia for the last 1.5 years, but PTH levels are normal. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

Accepted Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Malignancy

Answer

C.K.D

Answer

Parathyroid hyperplasia

Question 7

A female presents with amenorrhea and galactorrhea. Serum prolactin is elevated. MRI shows pituitary adenoma. Best management for this patient?

Accepted Answer

Bromocriptine

Answer

Tamoxifen

Answer

Goserelin

Answer

Letrozole

Question 8

A HIV-positive patient presents with chronic diarrhoea for 4 weeks. Stool microscopy shows oval/ elliptical cysts measuring 16 X 20 μm. Diagnosis is?

Accepted Answer

Cystoisospora

Answer

Cryptosporidium

Answer

Cyclospora

Answer

Cryptococcus

Question 9

A child with progressive pallor and bone pain has an elevated HbS based on the HPLC report. Which is the best treatment to manage hemolysis in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Voxelotor

Answer

Azacytidine

Answer

Hydroxyurea

Answer

Bortezomib

Question 10

On examination, a person has distended neck veins, absent breath sounds, hyperresonance, and a shift of the trachea. What is the management?

Accepted Answer

Wide bore needle in 2nd ICS

Answer

Pericardiocentesis

Answer

Bedside CXR in casualty followed by chest tube insertion

Answer

Pleurodesis with doxycycline

FMGE 2025

Anesthesiology

Community Medicine

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Pediatrics

Surgery