FMGE 2025 - Dermatology PYQs Practice Questions

Q: A person with the H/o long-term sexual relationship presented with painful ulcers on his genitals with tender lymphadenopathy. What is the diagnosis?

Chancroid. ***Chancroid*** - Caused by the bacterium **_Haemophilus ducreyi_**, it classically presents with one or more deep, painful genital ulcers that have ragged, undermined borders and a purulent base. - It is characteristically associated with tender, suppurative inguinal lymphadenopathy, often unilateral, which is consistent with the patient's presentation. *Gonorrhoea* - Caused by **_Neisseria gonorrhoeae_**, it typically presents as **purulent urethritis** or cervicitis with discharge and dysuria. - While it can cause systemic infection, painful genital ulcers are not a characteristic feature of a primary gonococcal infection. *Chlamydia* - Caused by **_Chlamydia trachomatis_** (serovars D-K), it is a leading cause of nongonococcal urethritis and is frequently asymptomatic, especially in women. - This infection does not typically cause painful genital ulcers; its presentation is more commonly urethritis, cervicitis, or pelvic inflammatory disease. *LGV* - Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by invasive serovars (L1, L2, L3) of **_Chlamydia trachomatis_**. - It typically begins with a small, transient, **painless** papule or ulcer, followed by the development of painful inguinal lymphadenopathy (buboes), which differentiates it from the painful ulcers of chancroid. [Practice more Dermatology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: An elderly female undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer is experiencing significant hair loss. What is the most likely cause of her condition?

Anagen Effluvium. ***Anagen Effluvium***- This condition is the abrupt cessation of cell division in the rapidly proliferating hair matrix, directly caused by cytotoxic agents (chemotherapy) used to treat **breast cancer**.- It results in the hair shaft narrowing and fracturing, leading to massive, acute hair shedding (often non-scarring) that occurs within days to weeks of starting the **chemotherapy treatment**.*Telogen Effluvium*- This type of hair loss involves premature shifting of hairs from the growth (anagen) to the resting (telogen) phase due to a major stressor (e.g., severe illness, childbirth).- The shedding typically appears **2 to 4 months after** the initial precipitating event, which is too delayed for the immediate hair loss associated with most chemotherapy regimens.*Trichotillomania*- This is a psychological disorder characterized by recurrent, irresistible urges to **pull out one's hair**, leading to hair loss.- The resulting alopecia is typically patchy, irregular, and features hairs of different lengths due to continuous pulling, contrasting sharply with the diffuse loss from chemotherapy.*Alopecia Areata*- This is an **autoimmune** disorder where T-lymphocytes attack the anagen hair follicles, resulting in distinct, usually circular or oval, non-scarring patches of hair loss.- It classically presents with "exclamation mark" hairs (hairs that are narrower near the scalp) and is not directly induced by cytotoxic chemotherapy. [Practice more Dermatology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A neonate presents with a growing skin lesion, as shown in the image provided. The mother reports that the lesion has been increasing in size daily. What is the appropriate management?

Observation. ***Observation*** - The image displays a classic **infantile hemangioma** (strawberry nevus), a benign vascular tumor that typically appears shortly after birth. These lesions characteristically undergo a rapid proliferation phase in the first few months, followed by spontaneous involution over several years. - For uncomplicated hemangiomas that do not obstruct vital functions (like vision or breathing), ulcerate, or cause significant disfigurement, **observation** is the standard management, as most resolve on their own. *Excision and Laser Therapy* - Surgical excision or laser therapy are typically reserved for complicated hemangiomas, such as those that are ulcerated, bleeding, or causing functional impairment. - These invasive procedures carry risks of scarring and are generally avoided for simple lesions that are expected to regress spontaneously. *Immediate Biopsy due to Malignancy Risk* - The clinical presentation is highly characteristic of a benign **infantile hemangioma**, making the risk of malignancy extremely low and a biopsy unnecessary in most cases. - A biopsy is only considered if the lesion has atypical features or if the diagnosis is uncertain, to rule out rare malignant vascular tumors. *Cryotherapy* - Cryotherapy is not a standard treatment for infantile hemangiomas as it may not penetrate deep enough to be effective and carries a high risk of causing scarring, hypopigmentation, and pain. - This modality is more appropriate for smaller, more superficial lesions like warts or actinic keratoses, not for vascular tumors. [Practice more Dermatology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A child presents with a vesiculobullous, pustular rash around the mouth and on the extremities, along with alopecia and diarrhea. What is the most likely nutritional deficiency?

Zinc Deficiency. ***Zinc Deficiency*** - This clinical presentation represents a classic case of **acrodermatitis enteropathica**, a condition caused by zinc deficiency, characterized by a vesiculobullous, pustular, and eczematous rash in a **periorificial** (around the mouth) and **acral** distribution. - Other key features of zinc deficiency include **alopecia** (hair loss), chronic **diarrhea**, **impaired growth**, and **immunodeficiency**, leading to recurrent infections. *Vitamin C Deficiency* - Known as **scurvy**, this deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis, resulting in manifestations like **petechiae**, **ecchymoses**, perifollicular hemorrhage, **bleeding gums**, and **corkscrew hairs**. - In infants, it can present with **subperiosteal hemorrhages**, causing severe pain and reluctance to move (**pseudoparalysis**), but not the periorificial rash seen here. *Vitamin D Deficiency* - This deficiency primarily affects bone mineralization, leading to **rickets** in children and **osteomalacia** in adults. Clinical signs include **bowed legs** (genu varum), **rachitic rosary** (beading of the ribs), and **craniotabes** (soft skull). - Cutaneous manifestations are not a feature of vitamin D deficiency; its role is primarily in **calcium homeostasis** and bone health. *Copper Deficiency* - Copper deficiency primarily manifests with hematological abnormalities like **microcytic anemia** (refractory to iron treatment) and neurological symptoms such as **myelopathy** and peripheral neuropathy. - Cutaneous signs are rare but can include **hypopigmentation** of the skin and kinky, brittle hair (**pili torti**), which are features of the genetic disorder **Menkes disease**. [Practice more Dermatology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: What is the most appropriate treatment for severe acne?

Isotretinoin. ***Isotretinoin***- This is the most effective and definitive treatment for **severe nodular or cystic acne** that has failed to respond to conventional treatments like topical agents and oral antibiotics. - It is a systemic retinoid that targets all four major pathogenic factors of acne: reducing **sebum production**, normalizing follicular keratinization, inhibiting *Cutibacterium acnes*, and providing anti-inflammatory effects.*Topical Tretinoin*- Topical retinoids are the first-line agents, primarily effective for **mild to moderate comedonal acne**. - They lack the necessary systemic penetration and potency to resolve deep-seated inflammation and nodules characteristic of **severe acne**.*Steroids*- Systemic steroids are generally reserved for highly specific, severe, and acute inflammatory complications of acne, such as **acne fulminans**, or used short-term to manage Isotretinoin-induced flares. - They are not the standard long-term treatment for severe acne due to significant systemic side effects and the fact that they do not address the underlying pathology of **sebum hypersecretion**.*Antibiotics*- Oral antibiotics (e.g., **doxycycline, minocycline**) are indicated for **moderate inflammatory acne**, often combined with topical retinoids. - They are typically insufficient as monotherapy for severe, scarring, nodulocystic acne, and overuse contributes significantly to **antibiotic resistance**. [Practice more Dermatology PYQs on OnCourse]

Question 1

A person with the H/o long-term sexual relationship presented with painful ulcers on his genitals with tender lymphadenopathy. What is the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Chancroid

Answer

LGV

Answer

Chlamydia

Answer

Gonorrhoea

Question 2

An elderly female undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer is experiencing significant hair loss. What is the most likely cause of her condition?

Accepted Answer

Anagen Effluvium

Answer

Alopecia Areata

Answer

Trichotillomania

Answer

Telogen Effluvium

Question 3

A neonate presents with a growing skin lesion, as shown in the image provided. The mother reports that the lesion has been increasing in size daily. What is the appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

Observation

Answer

Immediate Biopsy due to Malignancy Risk

Answer

Cryotherapy

Answer

Excision and Laser Therapy

Question 4

A child presents with a vesiculobullous, pustular rash around the mouth and on the extremities, along with alopecia and diarrhea. What is the most likely nutritional deficiency?

Accepted Answer

Zinc Deficiency

Answer

Vitamin C Deficiency

Answer

Vitamin D Deficiency

Answer

Copper Deficiency

Question 5

What is the most appropriate treatment for severe acne?

Accepted Answer

Isotretinoin

Answer

Topical Tretinoin

Answer

Antibiotics

Answer

Steroids

Question 6

A 60-year-old person presented with an ulcer on the medial canthus. The ulcer has rolled-out, beaded margins. Histopathology shows nesting cells with peripheral palisading patterns. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC)

Answer

Nevus

Answer

Melanoma

Answer

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)

Question 7

A 30-year-old female presents with a painful red granular lesion on the vulva accompanied by bilateral lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Chancroid

Answer

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae Infection

Answer

Lymphogranuloma Venereum

Answer

Granuloma Inguinale

Question 8

A Tzanck smear prepared from a vesicle shows multinucleated giant cells. What is the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

HSV

Answer

EBV

Answer

HIV

Answer

HPV

Question 9

An elderly man presents with an ulcerative lesion at the inner canthus of his eye with pearly margins. On microscopic examination, it shows a palisading arrangement of cells. Identify the lesion:

Accepted Answer

Basal cell carcinoma

Answer

Melanocytic melanoma

Answer

Keratoacanthoma

Answer

Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 10

A female presents with multiple small, pink, umbilicated papules on the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Molluscum contagiosum

Answer

Acne vulgaris

Answer

HPV

Answer

Herpes simplex

FMGE 2025 — Dermatology