Ethics of Surrogacy and Third-Party Reproduction — MCQs
Which of the following is the least invasive assisted reproductive technique?
A 27 -week pregnant woman with a fetus diagnosed with congenital anomalies is considering a Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP). Whose presence is not required for the authorization of MTP in this case?
False about MTP is -
A pregnant woman presents with an IUD in place, and the thread is clearly visible. She wishes to continue the pregnancy. What is the most appropriate next step?
Which of the following statements about the Consumer Protection Act is NOT accurate or NOT specifically mentioned in the Act?
Which of the following constitutional articles is not related to children?
Death caused by act done with intent to cause miscarriage is punishable by
A 14-year-old victim of sexual assault with 22 weeks gestation has been brought for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP). Which of the following statements is true?
A 24-year-old woman presents with abnormal vaginal discharge. Wet mount shows motile trichomonads. Her male partner is asymptomatic. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for her partner?
After an initial pregnancy resulted in a spontaneous loss in the first trimester, your patient is concerned about the possibility of this recurring. What is the chance of recurrence?
Ethics of Surrogacy and Third-Party Reproduction Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is the least invasive assisted reproductive technique?
- A. GIFT
- B. ZIFT
- C. IVF
- D. Intra-Uterine Insemination (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Intra-Uterine Insemination (IUI)*** - **IUI** involves directly placing **sperm** into the **uterus**, bypassing the cervix after sperm washing, making it the least invasive method among the options. - It is often used for mild male factor infertility, unexplained infertility, or when a woman has cervical mucus issues. *GIFT (Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer)* - **GIFT** is more invasive as it requires a **laparoscopic procedure** to place both **sperm** and **eggs** directly into the fallopian tube. - While fertilization occurs *in vivo* (in the body), the surgical aspect makes it more invasive than IUI. *ZIFT (Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer)* - **ZIFT** involves **IVF** to fertilize eggs in the lab, but then requires a **laparoscopic procedure** to place the resulting **zygotes** (early embryos) into the fallopian tube. - The combination of *in vitro* fertilization and surgical placement makes it more invasive than IUI. *IVF (In Vitro Fertilization)* - **IVF** involves **oocyte retrieval** (a transvaginal ultrasound-guided procedure) and **fertilization in vitro** (in the lab), followed by **embryo transfer** into the uterus. - While embryo transfer is less invasive than laparoscopic procedures, the initial oocyte retrieval makes IVF generally more invasive than IUI.
Question 2: A 27 -week pregnant woman with a fetus diagnosed with congenital anomalies is considering a Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP). Whose presence is not required for the authorization of MTP in this case?
- A. A. Obstetrician
- B. B. Lawyer (Correct Answer)
- C. C. Pediatrician
- D. D. Sonologist
Explanation: **B. Lawyer** - The **Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act (MTP Act)** in India specifies the medical professionals required for MTP authorization. A lawyer's presence is not mandated for this medical decision. - Legal authorization involves medical personnel and, in certain cases, a **Medical Board**, but not legal professionals directly in the authorization process. *A. Obstetrician* - An **obstetrician** or gynecologist is a medical expert specializing in pregnancy and childbirth, making their presence crucial for assessing the patient's and fetal condition. - The **MTP Act** requires the opinion of at least two registered medical practitioners, especially for pregnancies beyond 20 weeks, making an obstetrician essential. *C. Pediatrician* - In cases of **fetal anomalies**, a **pediatrician** (or a neonatologist) is highly likely to be part of the Medical Board formed to evaluate the anomaly and assess the prognosis for the child. - Their expertise helps in understanding the **severity and potential outcomes** of the congenital anomaly, informing the MTP decision. *D. Sonologist* - A **sonologist** (radiologist performing ultrasound) is critical for accurately diagnosing and detailing the **congenital anomalies** through imaging. - Their report provides essential **diagnostic information** that forms the basis for the MTP decision, especially in cases where anomalies are the primary concern.
Question 3: False about MTP is -
- A. Requires opinion of at least two registered medical practitioners when pregnancy exceeds 12 weeks
- B. Consent of husband is must (Correct Answer)
- C. >16 weeks, hysterotomy can be done
- D. Illegal if >20 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation: ***Consent of husband is must*** - The **Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act** (amended in 2021) in India explicitly states that **only the consent of the pregnant woman** is required for an abortion. - The husband's consent is **not legally necessary** and cannot be a barrier to accessing MTP services. - **This statement is FALSE**, making it the correct answer to this negation question. *Requires opinion of at least two registered medical practitioners when pregnancy exceeds 12 weeks* - This statement is **TRUE**; for pregnancies between **12 and 20 weeks**, the opinion of **two registered medical practitioners** is required. - For pregnancies between **20 and 24 weeks**, two registered medical practitioners are required for specific vulnerable categories of women. *>16 weeks, hysterotomy can be done* - **Hysterotomy** is a surgical procedure similar to a mini-C-section, used in specific cases for MTP, often in later gestations or when other methods are contraindicated. - While exact gestational limits vary by clinical judgment and local regulations, it is indeed a method considered for **later second-trimester terminations**, including those beyond 16 weeks, under proper medical indication. - **This statement is TRUE**. *Illegal if >20 weeks of pregnancy* - This statement was largely true under the **MTP Act of 1971**, which set the upper limit for MTP at 20 weeks. - However, the **MTP (Amendment) Act of 2021** has expanded this limit, allowing termination up to **24 weeks for specific categories of women** and in cases of substantial fetal abnormalities, there is **no upper gestational limit** for termination. - **This statement is now FALSE** as per the 2021 amendments, though it requires contextual understanding.
Question 4: A pregnant woman presents with an IUD in place, and the thread is clearly visible. She wishes to continue the pregnancy. What is the most appropriate next step?
- A. Leave the IUD inside
- B. Remove gently (Correct Answer)
- C. MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy)
- D. Cesarean section
Explanation: ***Remove gently*** - When the **IUD thread is visible**, gentle removal is recommended if the woman wishes to **continue the pregnancy**, as this significantly reduces the risk of miscarriage and infection. - Leaving an **IUD in situ** during pregnancy increases risks of **septic miscarriage**, **preterm delivery**, and **chorioamnionitis**. *Leave the IUD inside* - Leaving an **IUD in place** during pregnancy increases the risks of **septic miscarriage**, **chorioamnionitis**, and **preterm labor**. - The presence of the IUD can also lead to **placental complications** and difficulties with fetal development. *MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy)* - MTP is an option for unintended pregnancies but is not the most appropriate first step when the patient explicitly **wishes to continue the pregnancy**. - MTP would be considered if the patient chose to terminate, but the question states she wants to continue. *Cesarean section* - **Cesarean section** is a mode of delivery and is not an appropriate initial intervention for an early pregnancy with an **IUD in situ**. - The removal of an IUD from an early pregnancy does not necessitate a cesarean section.
Question 5: Which of the following statements about the Consumer Protection Act is NOT accurate or NOT specifically mentioned in the Act?
- A. The Act was passed in 1986.
- B. Consumers have the right to safety.
- C. ESI hospitals are specifically excluded.
- D. Consumer complaints are resolved within 3-6 months. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Consumer complaints are resolved within 3-6 months.*** - While the Act aims for **expeditious resolution**, it does not specify a rigid 3-6 month timeframe for consumer complaint resolution. - The actual time taken can vary significantly depending on the **complexity of the case** and the **caseload of the consumer forums**. *The Act was passed in 1986.* - The **Consumer Protection Act (COPRA)** in India was indeed enacted in the year **1986**. - This statement is factually accurate regarding the **historical context** of the Act. *ESI hospitals are specifically excluded.* - The **Supreme Court of India** has ruled that services provided by **Employment State Insurance (ESI) hospitals** and other government hospitals for free are generally excluded from the purview of the Consumer Protection Act. - This exclusion is based on the premise that these services are not rendered as part of a **"contract of service"** for consideration. *Consumers have the right to safety.* - The **Consumer Protection Act** explicitly grants consumers several rights, including the **right to be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property**. - This fundamental right ensures that consumers receive **safe products and services**.
Question 6: Which of the following constitutional articles is not related to children?
- A. 23
- B. 42 (Correct Answer)
- C. 24
- D. 21-A
Explanation: ***Article 42*** - Article 42 of the Indian Constitution deals with **provision for just and humane conditions of work** and **maternity relief**, primarily concerning adult workers, particularly women. - While maternity relief indirectly benefits children by supporting mothers, the article's direct focus is not on children's rights or welfare. *Article 23* - Article 23 prohibits **traffic in human beings and forced labor**, including **begar** and other forms of forced labor. - This article is directly related to children as it safeguards them from exploitation, such as **child trafficking** and forced labor. *Article 21-A* - Article 21-A guarantees the **right to education** for all children between the ages of six and fourteen years. - It mandates that the state shall provide free and compulsory education, making it fundamentally related to children's rights. *Article 24* - Article 24 prohibits the **employment of children below the age of fourteen years** in any factory or mine or engages them in any other hazardous employment. - This article directly protects children from various forms of child labor and is thus related to child welfare.
Question 7: Death caused by act done with intent to cause miscarriage is punishable by
- A. 312 IPC
- B. 316 IPC
- C. 314 IPC (Correct Answer)
- D. 309 IPC
Explanation: ***314 IPC*** - **Section 314 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)** specifically deals with the punishment for an act done with intent to cause miscarriage which results in the death of the woman. - If the act is done without the woman's consent, the punishment can be for life imprisonment or up to ten years, along with a fine. If done with consent, the punishment is up to ten years imprisonment and a fine. *312 IPC* - **Section 312 IPC** deals with causing miscarriage generally, without necessarily resulting in the death of the woman. - The punishment under this section is less severe, up to three years imprisonment and a fine if the woman is not quick with child, and up to seven years and a fine if she is quick with child. *316 IPC* - **Section 316 IPC** addresses causing the death of an unborn child when the intention was to prevent the child from being born alive. - This section applies when the child dies before or during birth but the mother survives, which is not the scenario described in the question where the mother's death is the outcome. *309 IPC* - **Section 309 IPC** pertains to the attempt to commit suicide. - This section is completely unrelated to the act of causing miscarriage or death arising from such an act.
Question 8: A 14-year-old victim of sexual assault with 22 weeks gestation has been brought for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP). Which of the following statements is true?
- A. One doctor is involved
- B. MTP done in 2nd trimester only when mother's life is in danger
- C. MTP can be carried out up to 24 weeks (Correct Answer)
- D. MTP cannot be more than 20 weeks
Explanation: ***MTP can be carried out up to 24 weeks*** - The **Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021**, allows termination of pregnancy up to **24 weeks** for certain vulnerable groups, including survivors of sexual assault and minors. - As a 14-year-old victim of sexual assault, she falls under the category which permits MTP up to 24 weeks. *One doctor is involved* - For pregnancies between 12 and 20 weeks, the opinion of **two registered medical practitioners** is required for MTP. - Beyond 20 weeks up to 24 weeks, as in this case, the opinion of **two registered medical practitioners** is also mandatory. *MTP done in 2nd trimester only when mother's life is in danger* - While danger to the mother's life is a valid reason for MTP, the **MTP Act 2021** has expanded the grounds for MTP in the second trimester (beyond 12 weeks) to include other categories like **sexual assault survivors** and **minors**, even if the mother's life is not immediately in danger. - The primary consideration here is the **vulnerability** of the pregnant person, not solely imminent danger to life. *MTP cannot be more than 20 weeks* - This statement is incorrect as per the **Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021**. - The Act raised the upper gestation limit from 20 to **24 weeks** for specific categories of women, including victims of sexual assault and minors, aligning with the current case.
Question 9: A 24-year-old woman presents with abnormal vaginal discharge. Wet mount shows motile trichomonads. Her male partner is asymptomatic. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for her partner?
- A. Treat regardless of symptoms (Correct Answer)
- B. No treatment unless symptoms develop
- C. Test before treating
- D. Monitor without intervention
Explanation: ***Treat regardless of symptoms*** - **Trichomoniasis** is a sexually transmitted infection, and partners of infected individuals should be treated even if they are asymptomatic to prevent **reinfection** and further transmission. - **Male partners** often carry the infection asymptomatically, acting as a reservoir for transmission. *No treatment unless symptoms develop* - This approach would lead to **persistent infection** in the male partner and an increased risk of **reinfection** for the female patient. - Asymptomatic carriers can still transmit the infection, undermining the treatment of the symptomatic partner. *Test before treating* - While testing is possible, current guidelines recommend **presumptive treatment** for male partners of women diagnosed with trichomoniasis to ensure effective eradication and prevent recurrence. - The **sensitivity** of diagnostic tests for trichomoniasis in men can be lower than in women, potentially leading to false negatives. *Monitor without intervention* - Monitoring without intervention is inadequate as it allows the male partner to remain an **infectious source** and risks **recurrent infection** for the female patient. - The goal is to break the chain of transmission and fully cure both partners.
Question 10: After an initial pregnancy resulted in a spontaneous loss in the first trimester, your patient is concerned about the possibility of this recurring. What is the chance of recurrence?
- A. Depends on the genetic makeup of the prior abortus
- B. Is no different than it was prior to the miscarriage (Correct Answer)
- C. Is increased to approximately 50%
- D. Is increased most likely to greater than 50%
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: B. Is no different than it was prior to the miscarriage** **1. Why Option B is Correct:** Spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) is a common event, occurring in approximately 10–15% of clinically recognized pregnancies. The vast majority (up to 50–70%) of isolated first-trimester losses are due to **sporadic chromosomal abnormalities** (e.g., autosomal trisomies), which are random events. Statistically, after a **single** spontaneous loss, the risk of a subsequent miscarriage remains approximately **15–20%**, which is essentially the same as the baseline risk for the general population. The risk only begins to rise significantly after two or more consecutive losses. **2. Why Other Options are Wrong:** * **Option A:** While the genetic makeup of the abortus explains *why* that specific pregnancy failed, it does not dictate the recurrence risk for the next pregnancy unless a parental balanced translocation is present (which is rare and not the default assumption after a single loss). * **Options C & D:** These options overestimate the risk. A 50% recurrence risk is not reached even after three consecutive losses. After two losses, the risk rises to ~25–30%, and after three, it reaches ~33–45%. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause of first-trimester abortion:** Fetal genetic factors (Chromosomal anomalies). * **Most common specific chromosomal anomaly:** Autosomal Trisomy (Trisomy 16 is the most common specific trisomy). * **Recurrent Pregnancy Loss (RPL):** Defined by the ASRM as **two or more** failed clinical pregnancies. Investigations for RPL are generally not indicated after a single isolated loss. * **Prognosis:** Even after 3 losses, the most likely outcome for the next pregnancy is a live birth (approx. 60–70% success rate without intervention).
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