New Vaccine Technologies — MCQs
Two viral vaccines are expected to reduce the incidence of cancers. Which vaccines are these?
Inactivated SA 14-14-2 vaccine is an example of which type of vaccine?
Match the following drugs in Column A with their contraindications in Column B. | Column A | Column B | | :-- | :-- | | 1. Morphine | 1. QT prolongation | | 2. Amiodarone | 2. Thromboembolism | | 3. Vigabatrin | 3. Pregnancy | | 4. Estrogen preparations | 4. Head injury |
Which of the following is a cell-fraction derived vaccine?
Which statement is TRUE regarding the relationship between HPV vaccination and cervical cancer screening?
Which HPV types are covered by the quadrivalent vaccine?
Which virus is NOT associated with human cancer?
Which of the following diseases is caused by the virus shown below?
An 80-year-old woman, a retirement home resident, has multiple bouts of pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. In an attempt to prevent such infections, polyvalent vaccines directed at multiple serotypes of the organism have been administered but have not elicited long-acting immunity. Which of the following is the probable explanation for this phenomenon?
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following vaccines?
New Vaccine Technologies Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Two viral vaccines are expected to reduce the incidence of cancers. Which vaccines are these?
- A. Measles virus and rubella virus vaccines
- B. HAV and poliovirus vaccines
- C. Adenovirus and mumps virus vaccines
- D. HPV 16/18 and hepatitis B vaccines (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***HPV 16/18 and hepatitis B vaccines*** - The **HPV vaccine** (targeting types 16 and 18) protects against human papillomavirus infections, which are the primary cause of cervical cancer and are also linked to other anogenital and oropharyngeal cancers. - The **Hepatitis B vaccine** prevents chronic hepatitis B infection, a major risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma (liver cancer). *Measles virus and rubella virus vaccines* - The measles and rubella vaccines protect against highly contagious viral diseases but are **not directly associated** with cancer prevention. - While viral infections can sometimes contribute to cancer development indirectly (e.g., chronic inflammation), these specific vaccines do not prevent cancer. *HAV and poliovirus vaccines* - The HAV (Hepatitis A virus) vaccine prevents hepatitis A, which causes acute liver inflammation but **does not lead to chronic infection or liver cancer**. - The poliovirus vaccine prevents poliomyelitis, a neurological disease, and has no known direct link to cancer prevention. *Adenovirus and mumps virus vaccines* - Adenovirus vaccines target various respiratory and gastrointestinal infections and are not linked to cancer prevention. - The mumps virus vaccine protects against mumps, a parotitis-causing infection, and has **no established direct role** in reducing cancer incidence.
Question 2: Inactivated SA 14-14-2 vaccine is an example of which type of vaccine?
- A. Toxoid vaccine
- B. Live attenuated vaccine (Correct Answer)
- C. Inactivated vaccine
- D. Subunit vaccine
Explanation: ***Live attenuated vaccine*** - The **SA 14-14-2 vaccine** is a **live attenuated Japanese Encephalitis (JE) vaccine** developed through serial passage and attenuation of the wild-type SA 14 strain. - The designation "14-14-2" refers to the specific **attenuated strain** after multiple passages, not to an inactivation process. - This vaccine uses **weakened (attenuated) virus** that can replicate minimally, providing robust and long-lasting immunity similar to natural infection. - It is widely used in **China, India, and other Asian countries** in national immunization programs. *Inactivated vaccine* - While there is also an **inactivated version** of the SA 14-14-2 strain (vero cell-derived inactivated JE vaccine), the term "SA 14-14-2 vaccine" by itself typically refers to the **live attenuated formulation**. - Inactivated vaccines contain killed viral particles that cannot replicate. *Toxoid vaccine* - **Toxoid vaccines** are based on inactivated bacterial toxins (toxoids), not viral antigens. - Examples include vaccines for **tetanus** and **diphtheria**, which target toxins produced by bacteria. - This type does not apply to viral vaccines like Japanese Encephalitis. *Subunit vaccine* - **Subunit vaccines** contain only specific purified antigenic components (proteins, polysaccharides) rather than whole organisms. - Examples include **Hepatitis B vaccine** (HBsAg) and **HPV vaccine**. - The SA 14-14-2 vaccine uses the whole attenuated virus, not subunits.
Question 3: Match the following drugs in Column A with their contraindications in Column B. | Column A | Column B | | :-- | :-- | | 1. Morphine | 1. QT prolongation | | 2. Amiodarone | 2. Thromboembolism | | 3. Vigabatrin | 3. Pregnancy | | 4. Estrogen preparations | 4. Head injury |
- A. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
- B. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (Correct Answer)
- C. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
- D. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Explanation: ***A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2*** - **Morphine** is contraindicated in **head injury** as it can increase intracranial pressure and mask neurological symptoms. - **Amiodarone** is contraindicated in patients with **QT prolongation** due to its risk of inducing more severe arrhythmias like Torsades de Pointes. - **Vigabatrin** is contraindicated during **pregnancy** due to its potential for teratogenicity and adverse effects on fetal development. - **Estrogen preparations** are contraindicated in patients with a history of **thromboembolism** due to their increased risk of blood clot formation. *A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4* - This option incorrectly matches **Morphine** with QT prolongation and **Estrogen preparations** with head injury, which are not their primary contraindications. - It also incorrectly links **Vigabatrin** with thromboembolism and **Amiodarone** with pregnancy. *A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1* - This choice incorrectly associates **Morphine** with pregnancy and **Vigabatrin** with head injury, which are not the most critical or direct contraindications. - It also misaligns **Amiodarone** with thromboembolism and **Estrogen preparations** with QT prolongation. *A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3* - This option incorrectly matches **Morphine** with thromboembolism and **Amiodarone** with head injury, which are not their most significant contraindications. - It also incorrectly links **Vigabatrin** with QT prolongation and **Estrogen preparations** with pregnancy.
Question 4: Which of the following is a cell-fraction derived vaccine?
- A. Measles
- B. Mumps
- C. Rubella
- D. Hepatitis-B (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hepatitis-B*** - The Hepatitis B vaccine is a **recombinant vaccine**, produced by inserting the gene for the Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) into yeast cells. - These yeast cells then produce large amounts of HBsAg, which is purified and used as the vaccine, making it a **cell-fraction derived** or subunit vaccine. *Measles* - The measles vaccine is a **live-attenuated virus vaccine**, meaning it contains a weakened form of the measles virus. - It induces a robust immune response by mimicking natural infection without causing severe disease. *Mumps* - Similar to measles, the mumps vaccine is also a **live-attenuated virus vaccine**, containing a weakened form of the mumps virus. - This type of vaccine provides long-lasting immunity with a single dose. *Rubella* - The rubella vaccine is another example of a **live-attenuated virus vaccine**, using a weakened rubella virus strain. - It is often administered as part of the MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) combination vaccine.
Question 5: Which statement is TRUE regarding the relationship between HPV vaccination and cervical cancer screening?
- A. Vaccinated women require less frequent screening than unvaccinated women
- B. Screening recommendations are currently the same regardless of vaccination status (Correct Answer)
- C. HPV vaccination eliminates the need for cervical cancer screening
- D. Screening should begin at a younger age in vaccinated women
Explanation: ***Screening recommendations are currently the same regardless of vaccination status*** * Current guidelines recommend the same cervical cancer screening schedule for all eligible individuals, **regardless of their HPV vaccination status**. * This is because the HPV vaccine does not protect against all oncogenic HPV types, and individuals may have been exposed to HPV prior to vaccination. *Vaccinated women require less frequent screening than unvaccinated women* * This statement is incorrect because there is **no evidence to support less frequent screening** for vaccinated women. * The persistence of **high-risk HPV types not covered by the vaccine** and the possibility of prior exposure necessitate consistent screening. *HPV vaccination eliminates the need for cervical cancer screening* * This is incorrect; HPV vaccination significantly reduces the risk of cervical cancer but **does not eliminate it completely**. * Vaccines protect against the most common high-risk HPV types but **not all of them**, making continued screening essential. *Screening should begin at a younger age in vaccinated women* * This is incorrect; current guidelines recommend the **same starting age for cervical cancer screening** (typically 21 or 25, depending on the guideline) for both vaccinated and unvaccinated women. * There is **no clinical rationale to initiate screening earlier** in vaccinated individuals.
Question 6: Which HPV types are covered by the quadrivalent vaccine?
- A. 6, 11, 31, 32
- B. 16, 18, 31, 35
- C. 11, 16, 30, 33
- D. 6, 11, 16, 18 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***6, 11, 16, 18*** - The **quadrivalent HPV vaccine** (Gardasil) specifically targets these four HPV types. - **HPV types 16 and 18** are responsible for approximately 70% of **cervical cancers**, while **HPV types 6 and 11** cause about 90% of **genital warts**. - This is a **WHO-recommended vaccine** for prevention of cervical cancer and genital warts. *6, 11, 31, 32* - While 6 and 11 are included, the quadrivalent vaccine does not cover **HPV types 31 and 32**. - HPV 31 is an oncogenic type, but it is covered by the **nonavalent vaccine** (Gardasil 9), not the quadrivalent. *16, 18, 31, 35* - This option includes the high-risk types **16 and 18**, but also includes **HPV 31 and 35**, which are not covered by the quadrivalent vaccine. - HPV 35 is another high-risk type covered by the **nonavalent vaccine**. *11, 16, 30, 33* - This combination includes **HPV 11 and 16**, but **HPV 30 and 33** are not part of the quadrivalent vaccine formulation. - HPV 33 is a high-risk type included in the **nonavalent vaccine**.
Question 7: Which virus is NOT associated with human cancer?
- A. HPV
- B. Measles virus (Correct Answer)
- C. HHV-8
- D. EBV
Explanation: ***Measles virus*** - The **measles virus** (rubeola) is primarily known for causing acute febrile illness with a characteristic rash and is not recognized as an **oncogenic virus** in humans. - While it can cause significant morbidity and mortality, particularly in unvaccinated populations, its mode of action does not involve **cellular transformation** or sustained **oncogene expression**. *HPV* - **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)**, particularly high-risk types like HPV-16 and HPV-18, is a well-established cause of **cervical cancer**, as well as other anogenital and oropharyngeal cancers. - HPV oncogenes, **E6** and **E7**, interfere with tumor suppressor proteins like p53 and Rb, promoting uncontrolled cell growth. *HHV-8* - **Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)**, also known as Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV), is the causative agent of **Kaposi's sarcoma**, a vascular tumor. - HHV-8 is also associated with primary effusion lymphoma and multicentric Castleman's disease due to its **latency-associated nuclear antigen (LANA)** and other viral oncogenes. *EBV* - **Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)** is strongly linked to several human cancers, including **Burkitt's lymphoma**, **nasopharyngeal carcinoma**, and Hodgkin's lymphoma. - EBV transforms B lymphocytes through the expression of latency genes such as **LMP1** and **EBNA2**, which modulate cell growth and survival pathways.
Question 8: Which of the following diseases is caused by the virus shown below?
- A. Neurodegenerative disorder
- B. Swimming pool conjunctivitis (Correct Answer)
- C. Solid organ graft infection
- D. Solid organ graft rejection
Explanation: ***Swimming pool conjunctivitis*** - The image displays an **adenovirus**, characterized by its **icosahedral shape** and distinct **fiber proteins** projecting from the vertices. - Adenoviruses are a common cause of **pharyngoconjunctival fever**, often referred to as "swimming pool conjunctivitis" due to its spread in **inadequately chlorinated swimming pools**. - This is the **most characteristic disease** associated with adenovirus infection, particularly serotypes **3, 4, and 7**. *Neurodegenerative disorder* - Adenoviruses are **not associated** with neurodegenerative disorders. - Neurodegenerative conditions are typically linked to **prions, misfolded proteins**, or other viral agents like **JC virus** (progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy). - Adenoviruses cause **acute infections**, not chronic neurodegeneration. *Solid organ graft infection* - While adenoviruses can cause severe infections in **immunocompromised patients**, including transplant recipients, this is not their most characteristic presentation. - In transplant patients, adenovirus may cause **colitis, hepatitis, or nephritis**, but these are **opportunistic infections** rather than the typical disease association. - The characteristic disease remains **conjunctivitis and respiratory infections** in immunocompetent hosts. *Solid organ graft rejection* - **Graft rejection** is an **immunological process** where the recipient's immune system attacks the transplanted organ, not a viral infection. - Adenovirus does not directly cause the mechanism of graft rejection. - While viral infections may complicate graft outcomes, rejection itself is **immune-mediated**, not infectious.
Question 9: An 80-year-old woman, a retirement home resident, has multiple bouts of pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. In an attempt to prevent such infections, polyvalent vaccines directed at multiple serotypes of the organism have been administered but have not elicited long-acting immunity. Which of the following is the probable explanation for this phenomenon?
- A. The bacterial capsule binds C3b, facilitating activation of the alternative complement pathway, inducing complement-mediated lysis, and preventing immunization.
- B. The capsular polysaccharides of S. pneumoniae have limited hapten potential.
- C. S. pneumoniae evades host immune response by forming capsular coatings composed of host proteins and recognized as "self" antigens.
- D. Memory T lymphocytes respond poorly to polysaccharide antigens. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Memory T lymphocytes respond poorly to polysaccharide antigens.*** - T cells are activated by **peptide antigens** presented by MHC molecules; they do not recognize **polysaccharide antigens** directly. - Vaccines composed of purified polysaccharide antigens (like in the polyvalent *S. pneumoniae* vaccine) primarily stimulate a **T-cell-independent B-cell response**, which typically results in a weaker immune response, poor memory, and limited class switching, especially in older individuals. - This is why **conjugate vaccines** (polysaccharide linked to protein carriers) were developed—they convert the T-independent antigen into a T-dependent one, generating better memory responses. *Incorrect: S. pneumoniae evades host immune response by forming capsular coatings composed of host proteins and recognized as "self" antigens.* - The capsule of *S. pneumoniae* is composed of **polysaccharides**, not host proteins. - It evades the immune system by being poorly immunogenic and preventing phagocytosis, but not by mimicking "self" antigens. *Incorrect: The bacterial capsule binds C3b, facilitating activation of the alternative complement pathway, inducing complement-mediated lysis, and preventing immunization.* - The **capsule** of *S. pneumoniae* actually **inhibits C3b binding** and prevents activation of the alternative complement pathway, thereby *resisting* complement-mediated lysis and opsonization. - This resistance is a mechanism of immune evasion, not prevention of immunization. *Incorrect: The capsular polysaccharides of S. pneumoniae have limited hapten potential.* - While polysaccharide antigens can be considered haptens in a sense if they require a carrier protein to become fully immunogenic, the primary issue is their inability to activate T cells. - The limitation in hapten potential isn't the most direct or impactful explanation for the lack of long-lasting immunity compared to the T-cell dependence of memory responses.
Question 10: Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following vaccines?
- A. Salk vaccine (Correct Answer)
- B. Tetanus toxoid
- C. Sabin's oral vaccine
- D. All of the above
Explanation: **Explanation:** The core concept tested here is the classification of vaccines based on the state of the immunizing agent. **1. Why Salk Vaccine is Correct:** The **Salk vaccine (IPV - Inactivated Poliovirus Vaccine)** is a classic example of a **killed/inactivated vaccine**. In these vaccines, the microorganism (in this case, Poliovirus types 1, 2, and 3) is grown in culture and then killed using heat or chemicals (usually formaldehyde). While the virus can no longer replicate, its structural proteins remain intact to trigger an immune response, primarily inducing humoral immunity (IgG). **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Tetanus Toxoid:** This is a **toxoid vaccine**, not an inactivated whole microorganism. It is prepared by detoxifying the exotoxin produced by *Clostridium tetani* using formalin. It induces immunity against the toxin rather than the bacteria itself. * **Sabin’s Oral Vaccine (OPV):** This is a **Live Attenuated Vaccine**. It contains weakened but live viruses that replicate in the gut to induce both mucosal (IgA) and systemic (IgG) immunity. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mnemonic for Killed Vaccines:** "**K**illed **P**olice **R**elieve **A**ll **I**nfluenza **B**y **T**yping" (**K**illed: **P**ertussis, **R**abies, **A**-Hepatitis A, **I**nfluenza, **B**-Hepatitis B [Recombinant], **T**yphoid [injectable]). * **Salk vs. Sabin:** Salk (IPV) is safer for immunocompromised individuals as there is zero risk of Vaccine-Associated Paralytic Poliomyelitis (VAPP), a rare complication seen with Sabin (OPV). * **Current Schedule:** Under India’s Universal Immunization Programme (UIP), a combination of bOPV and fractional doses of IPV (fIPV) is used.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free