Venerology — MCQs
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A patient with anogenital warts has not responded to conventional therapy after 3 months. Next best step is:
A sex worker presents with purulent urethral discharge and gram-negative diplococci in culture. What is the most likely diagnosis?
What is the most commonly preferred first-line treatment for external genital warts caused by HPV?
Which STI has the highest rates of antibiotic resistance?
A 25-year-old woman presents with painful genital ulcers and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. PCR confirms an HSV-2 infection. What is the treatment of choice?
A 25-year-old male presents with multiple painful genital ulcers and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. The likely diagnosis is:
Which sexually transmitted infection is associated with the formation of condylomata lata?
The groove sign is most commonly associated with which condition?
A 45-year-old female with a history of genital herpes presents with painful vesicular lesions on her vulva, fever, and malaise. She has experienced multiple recurrences despite suppressive therapy. What is the most appropriate change in her treatment regimen?
Which test is the best to monitor the response to treatment in a patient with neurosyphilis?
Venerology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: A patient with anogenital warts has not responded to conventional therapy after 3 months. Next best step is:
- A. Switch to imiquimod
- B. Continue same treatment longer
- C. HIV testing (Correct Answer)
- D. Biopsy lesion
Explanation: ### HIV testing - **Persistent, recalcitrant anogenital warts** that do not respond to conventional therapy after 3 months are a strong indicator of **immunocompromise** [1]. - **HIV infection** is a common cause of immunosuppression that can lead to treatment failure for anogenital warts [1]. *Switch to imiquimod* - While **imiquimod** is a topical treatment for anogenital warts, switching therapies without investigating the cause of treatment failure is not the initial best step. - The lack of response suggests an underlying issue rather than simply a need for a different treatment type. *Continue same treatment longer* - Continuing the same treatment when there has been **no response after 3 months** is unlikely to be effective and delays appropriate management. - This approach does not address the underlying reason for treatment failure. *Biopsy lesion* - While a **biopsy** can be important to confirm the diagnosis or rule out malignancy, it is typically considered after addressing potential underlying causes for treatment resistance, such as **immunocompromise**. - In this scenario, the primary concern is the lack of response to therapy, which points towards an immune system issue.
Question 222: A sex worker presents with purulent urethral discharge and gram-negative diplococci in culture. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Treponema pallidum
- B. Haemophilus ducreyi
- C. Chlamydia trachomatis
- D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Neisseria gonorrhoeae*** - **Purulent urethral discharge** and identification of **Gram-negative diplococci** on microscopy are classic diagnostic features of gonococcal urethritis [1]. - This sexually transmitted infection is common among sexually active individuals, including **sex workers** [1]. *Treponema pallidum* - This bacterium causes **syphilis**, which is characterized by **chancres** in the primary stage, and widespread rashes or lesions in later stages [2]. - It would not typically present with Gram-negative diplococci or purulent urethral discharge [2]. *Haemophilus ducreyi* - This organism is responsible for **chancroid**, a sexually transmitted infection that causes painful **genital ulcers** with ragged borders and often associated with lymphadenopathy [3]. - It would not lead to purulent urethral discharge, and while Gram-negative, it is typically seen as pleomorphic rods in chains. *Chlamydia trachomatis* - **Chlamydia** infection often presents with mucopurulent urethral discharge, but it is typically less purulent than gonorrhea and may be **asymptomatic** [1]. - **Chlamydia** is an **obligate intracellular bacterium** and would not be visualized as Gram-negative diplococci on a Gram stain [1].
Question 223: What is the most commonly preferred first-line treatment for external genital warts caused by HPV?
- A. 5-FU
- B. Imiquimod
- C. Cryotherapy (Correct Answer)
- D. Podophyllin
Explanation: **Cryotherapy** - **Cryotherapy** is a commonly preferred first-line treatment for external genital warts due to its effectiveness and good cosmetic outcomes [2], [3]. - It involves freezing the warts with **liquid nitrogen**, leading to their destruction [2], [3]. *5-FU* - **5-fluorouracil (5-FU)** cream is an antimetabolite that inhibits cell proliferation but is generally not a first-line treatment for external genital warts. - It can cause significant **local skin irritation, erosion, and pain**, making it less favorable for widespread use in this area. *Imiquimod* - **Imiquimod** is an immune response modifier that stimulates the production of cytokines but it's not considered as the first-line treatment [1]. - It requires multiple applications over several weeks and can cause **local inflammatory reactions** like erythema, itching, and burning [1]. *Podophyllin* - **Podophyllin** resin is an antimitotic agent but its use is limited due to potential systemic toxicity and local side effects like skin irritation [1]. - It is applied topically but must be washed off after a few hours to prevent severe reactions, and it is **contraindicated in pregnancy** [1].
Question 224: Which STI has the highest rates of antibiotic resistance?
- A. Gonorrhea (Correct Answer)
- B. Chancroid
- C. Donovanosis
- D. Syphilis
Explanation: ***Gonorrhea*** - **Neisseria gonorrhoeae** has developed resistance to multiple classes of antibiotics, including **penicillins**, **tetracyclines**, **fluoroquinolones**, and increasingly to **cephalosporins**, making treatment challenging [1]. - This high rate of antibiotic resistance is a major public health concern, leading to treatment failures and the need for **dual therapy** with azithromycin and ceftriaxone to improve cure rates and slow resistance development [1]. *Chancroid* - Caused by **Haemophilus ducreyi**, which is generally susceptible to macrolides (e.g., azithromycin) and cephalosporins (e.g., ceftriaxone). - While resistance can occur, it is significantly **less prevalent** and widespread compared to gonorrhea. *Donovanosis* - Caused by **Klebsiella granulomatis**, which typically responds well to antibiotics like azithromycin, doxycycline, or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. - Resistance is **rarely reported** and does not pose a major clinical challenge. *Syphilis* - Caused by **Treponema pallidum**, which remains highly susceptible to **penicillin G**, the drug of choice for all stages of syphilis [2]. - Although isolated cases of macrolide resistance have been noted, penicillin resistance is **extremely rare** and has not significantly impacted treatment recommendations [2].
Question 225: A 25-year-old woman presents with painful genital ulcers and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. PCR confirms an HSV-2 infection. What is the treatment of choice?
- A. Acyclovir (Correct Answer)
- B. Azithromycin
- C. Metronidazole
- D. Ciprofloxacin
Explanation: ***Acyclovir*** - **Acyclovir** is an **antiviral medication** that effectively inhibits the replication of HSV-2 by interfering with viral DNA synthesis, reducing the severity and duration of outbreaks. - It is the **treatment of choice** for genital **herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections**, helping to manage painful ulcers and prevent recurrences [1]. *Azithromycin* - **Azithromycin** is a **macrolide antibiotic** primarily used to treat bacterial infections, such as those caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis* [1] or respiratory pathogens. - It has **no antiviral activity** against HSV-2 and would therefore be ineffective for this infection. *Metronidazole* - **Metronidazole** is an **antibiotic and antiprotozoal medication** used for anaerobic bacterial infections and parasitic infections, such as trichomoniasis or bacterial vaginosis. - It possesses **no antiviral properties** against HSV-2 and is not indicated for the treatment of herpes. *Ciprofloxacin* - **Ciprofloxacin** is a **fluoroquinolone antibiotic** used to treat a wide range of bacterial infections, including urinary tract infections and certain sexually transmitted infections like chancroid. - It is **ineffective against viral infections** such as HSV-2, and its use in this context would be inappropriate.
Question 226: A 25-year-old male presents with multiple painful genital ulcers and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. The likely diagnosis is:
- A. Primary syphilis
- B. Chancroid (Correct Answer)
- C. Genital herpes
- D. Lymphogranuloma venereum
Explanation: **Chancroid** - **Chancroid** presents with **multiple, painful, ragged genital ulcers** with a grayish base and associated **tender inguinal lymphadenopathy** (buboes) [1]. - It is caused by the bacterium *Haemophilus ducreyi*. *Primary syphilis* - Primary syphilis typically presents as a **single, painless chancre** with a firm, indurated base and usually non-tender, rubbery regional lymphadenopathy. - The ulcers described are multiple and painful, which is inconsistent with a syphilic chancre. *Genital herpes* - Genital herpes causes **multiple, painful vesicles** that progress to shallow ulcers, often preceded by a prodrome of tingling or burning [2]. - While painful, herpes lesions are typically vesicular initially and do not commonly present with the deep, ragged ulcers and classic tender buboes seen in chancroid [1]. *Lymphogranuloma venereum* - LGV typically starts as a **small, painless papule or ulcer** that often goes unnoticed, followed by the development of **large, often suppurative, unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy** (buboes) in later stages [1]. - The initial lesion in LGV is often transient and painless, unlike the prominent, painful ulcers described here.
Question 227: Which sexually transmitted infection is associated with the formation of condylomata lata?
- A. Genital herpes
- B. Lymphogranuloma venereum
- C. Secondary syphilis (Correct Answer)
- D. Primary syphilis
Explanation: ***Secondary syphilis*** - **Condylomata lata** are highly infectious, flat-topped, moist, fleshy papules that are characteristic lesions of **secondary syphilis**, often found in warm, moist areas like the anogenital region [1]. - They represent a mucocutaneous manifestation of widespread **spirochete dissemination** during the secondary stage [1]. *Genital herpes* - Genital herpes is characterized by painful **vesicles** and **ulcers**, not flat, warty lesions like condylomata lata [1]. - It is caused by the **herpes simplex virus (HSV)**, predominantly HSV-2. *Lymphogranuloma venereum* - This infection presents with a transient, often unnoticed, primary lesion followed by **inguinal lymphadenopathy** (buboes) and associated systemic symptoms. - It is caused by specific serovars of **_Chlamydia trachomatis_** and does not typically involve condylomata lata. *Primary syphilis* - Primary syphilis is characterized by a single, painless lesion called a **chancre** at the site of inoculation [1]. - This stage precedes the disseminated manifestations, including condylomata lata, seen in secondary syphilis [1].
Question 228: The groove sign is most commonly associated with which condition?
- A. Syphilis
- B. Dermatomyositis
- C. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) (Correct Answer)
- D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation: ***Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)*** - The **groove sign** is a classic clinical finding in LGV, particularly in the inguinal region, characterized by a visible and palpable furrow separating swollen lymph nodes above and below the inguinal ligament. - This sign is due to the involvement of both superficial and deep inguinal lymphatics, leading to marked **lymphadenopathy** that is compartmentalized by the inguinal ligament. *Syphilis* - Syphilis is typically associated with a **chancre** (painless ulcer) in primary syphilis, and a widespread rash in secondary syphilis, but not the groove sign. - Lymphadenopathy in syphilis is usually generalized and less prominent or compartmentalized compared to LGV. *Dermatomyositis* - Dermatomyositis is an **inflammatory myopathy** characterized by muscle weakness and distinctive skin rashes, such as Gottron's papules and a heliotrope rash. - It does not involve significant lymphadenopathy or the specific anatomical signs like the groove sign. *Systemic lupus erythematosus* - Systemic lupus erythematosus is a **chronic autoimmune connective tissue disease** with diverse manifestations affecting multiple organ systems. - While it can cause lymphadenopathy, it does not produce the characteristic compartmentalized swelling known as the groove sign.
Question 229: A 45-year-old female with a history of genital herpes presents with painful vesicular lesions on her vulva, fever, and malaise. She has experienced multiple recurrences despite suppressive therapy. What is the most appropriate change in her treatment regimen?
- A. Discontinue antiviral therapy and manage symptoms
- B. Use topical acyclovir as needed
- C. Increase dose of valacyclovir for suppressive therapy (Correct Answer)
- D. Switch to famciclovir for suppressive therapy to improve control of recurrences.
Explanation: **Increase dose of valacyclovir for suppressive therapy** - For patients with **frequent recurrent genital herpes** despite suppressive therapy, increasing the dose of daily oral antiviral medication is often recommended to achieve better control. - In this case, **valacyclovir** is a prodrug of acyclovir, offering improved bioavailability and simplified dosing which is effective for both episodic treatment and suppression [1]. *Discontinue antiviral therapy and manage symptoms* - Discontinuing antiviral therapy would likely lead to **more frequent and severe recurrences**, as she is already experiencing multiple recurrences on suppressive therapy. - Management of symptoms alone would not address the underlying **viral replication** or prevent future outbreaks. *Use topical acyclovir as needed* - **Topical acyclovir** is generally less effective than oral antiviral therapy for managing genital herpes outbreaks and is not recommended for recurrent episodes, especially when systemic symptoms like fever and malaise are present [1]. - It does not prevent recurrences and its efficacy for acute treatment of established lesions is limited. *Switch to famciclovir for suppressive therapy to improve control of recurrences.* - While **famciclovir** is an alternative antiviral agent for herpes suppression, there is no strong evidence to suggest it would be significantly more effective than a higher dose of valacyclovir in a patient already failing standard suppressive therapy [1]. - The most straightforward and often effective approach is to first try **optimizing the current effective therapy** (valacyclovir) by increasing its dosage.
Question 230: Which test is the best to monitor the response to treatment in a patient with neurosyphilis?
- A. RPR (Correct Answer)
- B. VDRL
- C. TPI
- D. FTA-ABS
Explanation: RPR - The **Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)** test is a non-treponemal test used to monitor treatment response due to its quantitative nature, with **titers decreasing (fourfold or more)** after successful treatment [1]. - While typically done on serum, a **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) RPR** is the most specific non-treponemal test for neurosyphilis treatment monitoring. *VDRL* - The **Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)** test is also a non-treponemal test, but it is less sensitive than RPR in serum, especially in later stages of syphilis [1]. - Although **CSF VDRL** is highly specific for neurosyphilis diagnosis, RPR titers are generally preferred for monitoring treatment response due to their ease of quantification and reproducibility. *TPI* - The **Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI)** test is a highly specific treponemal test used for confirming syphilis diagnosis, particularly in cases with ambiguous reactive non-treponemal tests. - However, treponemal tests like TPI usually remain **reactive for life** even after successful treatment and are therefore not suitable for monitoring treatment response. *FTA-ABS* - The **Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption (FTA-ABS)** test is another treponemal test, used for diagnostic confirmation because of its high sensitivity and specificity. - Similar to other treponemal tests, FTA-ABS **titers do not decrease significantly** after successful treatment and thus cannot be used to monitor the effectiveness of therapy.
Practice by Chapter
Syphilis
Practice Questions
Gonorrhea
Practice Questions
Chlamydial Infections
Practice Questions
Chancroid and Other Genital Ulcers
Practice Questions
Genital Herpes
Practice Questions
Human Papillomavirus Infections
Practice Questions
HIV and STIs
Practice Questions
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Practice Questions
STI Screening and Prevention
Practice Questions
Partner Notification and Treatment
Practice Questions
Sexually Transmitted Enteric Infections
Practice Questions
Special Populations Management
Practice Questions
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