A 45-year-old man presents with a long history of ulcers on the bottom of his feet. He recalls having a similar looking ulcer on the side of his penis when he was 19 years old for which he never sought treatment. The patient denies any fever, chills, or constitutional symptoms. He reports multiple sexual partners and a very promiscuous sexual history. He has also traveled extensively as a writer since he was 19. The patient is afebrile, and his vital signs are within normal limits. A rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test is positive, and the result of a Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) is pending. Which of the following findings would most likely be present in this patient?
All of the following are manifestations of congenital syphilis except:-
Groove sign:
A 30-year-old male, Kallu, with a history of sexual exposure presents with a painless indurated ulcer over the penis with everted margins. The diagnosis is:
A patient has asymptomatic painless burrowing ulcer in the palate. He might be suffering from
Painful matted suppurative lymphadenitis after healing of genital lesion is seen in:
Incubation period of LGV:
Secondary syphilis is characterised by all except (choose the MOST appropriate answer)
A 40-year-old female with multiple sexual partners presented with fever, rash, and articular symptoms. Migratory arthritis and tenosynovitis of knees, hands, wrists, feet, and ankles were noticed during clinical examination. Synovial fluid leukocyte count was 12,000/ml and culture was sterile. The patient has been successfully treated with injection ceftriaxone 1 g Q24 hours for 7 days. What was the diagnosis in this setting?
False about syphilis is :
Syphilis
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Gonorrhea
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Chlamydial Infections
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Chancroid and Other Genital Ulcers
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Genital Herpes
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Human Papillomavirus Infections
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HIV and STIs
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Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
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STI Screening and Prevention
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Partner Notification and Treatment
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Sexually Transmitted Enteric Infections
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Special Populations Management
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