Venerology — MCQs

Venerology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 101: Jarisch Herxheimer reaction is commonly seen in which stage of syphilis?

A. Early syphilis (Correct Answer)
B. Late congenital syphilis
C. Latent syphilis
D. Syphilis of the cardiovascular system

Explanation: The **Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction (JHR)** is an acute febrile response that occurs following the initiation of effective antimicrobial therapy (classically Penicillin) for spirochetal infections, most notably syphilis. ### **Why Early Syphilis is the Correct Answer** The reaction is triggered by the rapid release of lipoproteins, pyrogens, and cytokines (such as TNF-α, IL-6, and IL-8) from the lysis of a high burden of spirochetes (*Treponema pallidum*). * **Early syphilis** (Primary and Secondary stages) is characterized by a **high bacterial load** [2]. * JHR occurs in approximately **70–90% of patients with Secondary syphilis** and about 50% of those with Primary syphilis. * In contrast, late stages have a much lower density of organisms, making the reaction less frequent [2]. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options** * **B & C (Late Congenital and Latent Syphilis):** These stages have a significantly lower treponemal burden compared to the secondary stage [2]. While JHR can occur, the incidence is much lower [1]. * **D (Cardiovascular Syphilis):** This is a form of tertiary syphilis [2]. While JHR is rare here, it can be life-threatening if it occurs (e.g., causing coronary ostial narrowing or aortic rupture), but it is not the "most common" stage for the reaction. ### **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls** * **Clinical Features:** Fever, chills, headache, myalgia, and exacerbation of the syphilitic rash. * **Timing:** Usually starts within **2–8 hours** of treatment and resolves spontaneously within 24 hours [1]. * **Management:** It is **not** an allergic reaction to penicillin. Treatment is symptomatic (NSAIDs/Antipyretics). Do not stop the antibiotic. * **Prevention:** In cases of neurosyphilis or cardiovascular syphilis, **Corticosteroids** may be used to prevent a severe reaction. * **Other Diseases:** JHR is also seen in Borreliosis (Lyme disease/Relapsing fever) and Leptospirosis [1].

Question 102: A 19-year-old male develops painless penile ulcers 9 days after sexual intercourse. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Chancroid
B. Herpes
C. Chancre (Correct Answer)
D. Traumatic ulcer

Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of a **painless penile ulcer** following an incubation period of approximately 9–90 days (average 3 weeks) is the classic hallmark of **Primary Syphilis**, where the lesion is termed a **Chancre**. **Why Chancre is correct:** A chancre is the primary lesion of syphilis caused by *Treponema pallidum*. Key diagnostic features include its **painless** nature, indurated (hard) base, clean floor, and associated non-tender, rubbery regional lymphadenopathy. An incubation period of 9 days fits within the typical window for syphilis. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Chancroid:** Caused by *Haemophilus ducreyi*, these ulcers are characteristically **painful**, soft, and often have a ragged, undermined edge with a necrotic base ("You *do cry* with Ducreyi"). * **Herpes (Genitalis):** Caused by HSV-2, this typically presents as multiple, **painful**, superficial vesicles that rupture to form ulcers. They are often preceded by prodromal tingling. * **Traumatic ulcer:** These occur immediately after the insult (no 9-day incubation) and are usually painful with an irregular shape based on the mechanism of injury. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Investigation of Choice:** Dark-ground microscopy (DGM) is the gold standard for early primary syphilis (chancre) to visualize motile spirochetes. * **Serology:** VDRL/RPR may be negative in the first 1–2 weeks of the chancre appearing (window period). * **Treatment:** Injection Benzathine Penicillin G (2.4 million units IM) is the first-line treatment. * **Painful vs. Painless:** Remember the mnemonic: **S**yphilis is **S**ilent (Painless); **C**hancroid is **C**utting (Painful).

Question 103: A 27-year-old man develops a painless 1-cm sore on his penis. It appears ulcerated with a raised margin and minimal serous exudates. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnosis?

A. biopsy
B. Gram stain
C. serology (Correct Answer)
D. ultrasound

Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of a **painless, indurated ulcer with a raised margin** and minimal exudate on the genitalia is the classic description of a **Hard Chancre**, the hallmark of **Primary Syphilis** caused by *Treponema pallidum* [1]. **Why Serology is the correct answer:** In modern clinical practice, diagnosis relies on serological testing [1]. This is divided into: 1. **Nonspecific (Nontreponemal) tests:** VDRL and RPR (used for screening and monitoring treatment response) [1]. 2. **Specific (Treponemal) tests:** FTA-ABS and TPHA (used for confirmation) [1]. While **Dark-field microscopy** was historically the gold standard for early lesions, it is often unavailable or technically demanding. Therefore, serology remains the most appropriate and practical next step for diagnosis in the NEET-PG context. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Biopsy:** Not indicated for suspected syphilis unless the lesion is atypical or fails to heal, as it is invasive and non-specific. * **Gram stain:** *T. pallidum* is a spirochete and does not take up Gram stain; it requires silver stains (e.g., Warthin-Starry) or dark-field microscopy. * **Ultrasound:** Has no role in the diagnosis of a cutaneous genital ulcer. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Incubation Period:** 9–90 days (Average 3 weeks). * **Painful vs. Painless:** Syphilis (Painless) vs. Chancroid (Painful/Soft Chancre). * **Window Period:** Serology may be negative in the first 1–2 weeks of the chancre; if clinical suspicion is high, repeat testing is necessary [1]. * **Treatment:** Benzathine Penicillin G (2.4 million units IM) is the drug of choice.

Question 104: A 30-year-old sexually active pregnant female with a history of SLE has a positive VDRL test. What is the next best step?

A. Consider the VDRL positive as a biological false positive and take no further action.
B. Initiate contact tracing.
C. Treat the patient for syphilis.
D. Perform an FTA-ABS test. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Explanation **1. Why Option D is Correct:** The VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) test is a **non-treponemal screening test** that detects non-specific antibodies (reagin) against cardiolipin. Because it is not specific to *Treponema pallidum*, it has a high rate of **Biological False Positives (BFP)**. In this clinical scenario, the patient has **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)** and is **pregnant**—both are classic conditions known to cause BFP in VDRL tests [1]. Therefore, a positive screening result must always be confirmed with a **specific treponemal test**, such as the **FTA-ABS** (Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption) or TPHA, to differentiate true syphilis from a false positive. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** One cannot assume it is a false positive without confirmation. If the patient truly has syphilis, untreated infection can lead to devastating **congenital syphilis**. * **Option B:** Contact tracing is an essential public health step, but it is only initiated *after* a definitive diagnosis of syphilis is confirmed. * **Option C:** Treatment (usually Penicillin G) is indicated only after confirmation. Starting treatment based solely on a VDRL in an SLE patient is premature and may lead to unnecessary medical intervention. **3. NEET-PG Clinical Pearls:** * **BFP Causes (Mnemonic: STOP BFP):** **S**LE, **T**uberculosis, **O**ld age, **P**regnancy, **B**ertiary (IV) drug use, **F**ever (Malaria/Leprosy), **P**olyarteritis nodosa [1]. * **Screening vs. Confirmation:** Always use a non-treponemal test (VDRL/RPR) for screening and monitoring treatment response (titers fall), and a treponemal test (FTA-ABS/TPHA) for lifetime confirmation (remains positive for life) [1]. * **Pregnancy:** Syphilis screening is mandatory in the first trimester of all pregnancies. If confirmed, **Penicillin G** is the only recommended treatment to prevent vertical transmission.

Question 105: Bubos with multiple sinuses discharging into inguinal lymph nodes are seen in which condition?

A. Chancroid
B. Granuloma Inguinale
C. Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV) (Correct Answer)
D. Syphilis

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: C. Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)** **Why it is correct:** Lymphogranuloma Venereum is caused by **Chlamydia trachomatis (serovars L1, L2, L3)**. The hallmark of the "inguinal syndrome" in LGV is painful, inflammatory lymphadenopathy (buboes). These buboes often involve both the inguinal and femoral nodes, separated by the inguinal ligament—a clinical sign known as the **Groove Sign**. As the infection progresses, the buboes undergo suppuration and form **multiple discharging sinuses** (often described as a "pepper pot" appearance) [1]. This chronic inflammation can eventually lead to lymphatic obstruction and elephantiasis of the genitalia. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **A. Chancroid:** Caused by *Haemophilus ducreyi*. While it presents with painful buboes, they are typically **unilocular** (single) and tend to rupture into a single large ulcerated area rather than multiple chronic sinuses [1]. * **B. Granuloma Inguinale (Donovanosis):** Caused by *Klebsiella granulomatis*. This condition is characterized by **painless, beefy-red ulcers** that bleed on touch. It does not involve true lymphadenopathy; instead, it causes "pseudobuboes" (granulomatous nodules in the subcutaneous tissue) [1]. * **C. Syphilis:** Primary syphilis presents with a painless chancre and **painless, firm, non-suppurative** regional lymphadenopathy. They do not form discharging sinuses. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Groove Sign:** Pathognomonic for LGV (though present in only 15-20% of cases). * **Donovan Bodies:** Safety-pin appearance in tissue smears, diagnostic for Granuloma Inguinale. * **School of Fish Appearance:** Characteristic Gram stain finding for Chancroid. * **Esthiomene:** Chronic hypertrophic ulceration and edema of the vulva seen in late-stage LGV. * **Treatment of choice for LGV:** Doxycycline (100 mg BID for 21 days).

Question 106: The oral lesion of syphilis that is highly infective is a:

A. Gumma
B. Koplik spot
C. Mucous patch (Correct Answer)
D. Tabes dorsalis

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Mucous patch**. Syphilis, caused by the spirochete *Treponema pallidum*, progresses through distinct clinical stages. 1. **Why Mucous Patch is correct:** Mucous patches are a hallmark of **Secondary Syphilis** [1]. They appear as painless, shallow, grayish-white ulcerations on the oral mucosa, tongue, or tonsils. These lesions contain an extremely high concentration of spirochetes, making them **highly infectious** through direct contact or saliva. Along with *Condyloma lata*, they represent the peak of infectivity during the secondary stage [1]. 2. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Gumma (Option A):** These are granulomatous lesions characteristic of **Tertiary Syphilis**. While destructive to local tissue (e.g., perforation of the hard palate), they contain very few spirochetes and are considered **non-infectious**. [1] * **Koplik spot (Option B):** These are pathognomonic for **Measles (Rubeola)**, not syphilis. They appear as small white spots on a buccal mucosal background of erythema, typically opposite the lower second molars. * **Tabes dorsalis (Option C):** This is a clinical form of **Neurosyphilis** (Tertiary stage) involving the degeneration of the posterior columns of the spinal cord. It is a neurological manifestation, not an oral lesion. [1] **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Primary Syphilis:** Characterized by the **Chancre** (painless, indurated ulcer). [1] * **Secondary Syphilis:** Known as "The Great Imitator." Features include a generalized maculopapular rash (involving palms/soles), generalized lymphadenopathy, and **Snail-track ulcers** (another name for coalesced mucous patches). [1] * **Infectivity:** The most infectious stages are Primary and Secondary. * **Drug of Choice:** Parenteral **Benzathine Penicillin G** remains the gold standard for all stages.

Question 107: Bilateral symmetrical maculopapular rash on palms and soles is a feature of which of the following?

A. Primary syphilis (Correct Answer)
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Congenital syphilis

Explanation: The presence of a **bilateral, symmetrical maculopapular rash on the palms and soles** is a classic hallmark of **Secondary Syphilis**. ### **Explanation of Options:** * **Secondary Syphilis (Correct Answer):** This stage occurs 4–10 weeks after the initial infection. It represents the hematogenous spread of *Treponema pallidum*. The characteristic rash is non-pruritic, coppery-red, and involves the palms and soles (a rare site for most other rashes). Other features include generalized lymphadenopathy and condyloma lata. * **Primary Syphilis:** Characterized by a **painless chancre** at the site of inoculation. It is a localized stage and does not present with a generalized rash. * **Tertiary Syphilis:** Occurs years after infection. It is characterized by **gummas** (granulomatous lesions), cardiovascular syphilis (aortitis), or neurosyphilis (Tabes dorsalis). * **Congenital Syphilis:** While it can present with skin lesions (bullous eruptions or "pemphigus syphiliticus"), the specific bilateral symmetrical maculopapular rash described is the textbook presentation of the acquired secondary stage. ### **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **The "Great Imitator":** Syphilis is known as the "Great Imitator" because its rash can mimic many dermatological conditions. 2. **Palmar/Sole Rash Differential:** Always consider Secondary Syphilis, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease, and Erythema Multiforme. 3. **Condyloma Lata:** These are highly infectious, moist, flat-topped papules found in intertriginous areas during the secondary stage. 4. **Screening vs. Confirmatory:** Use **VDRL/RPR** for screening (non-specific) and **FTA-ABS/TPHA** for confirmation (specific). VDRL titers are also used to monitor treatment response.

Question 108: Syphilitic gumma is seen in which stage of syphilis?

A. Primary Syphilis
B. Secondary Syphilis
C. Tertiary Syphilis (Correct Answer)
D. Quaternary Syphilis

Explanation: **Explanation:** Syphilis, caused by the spirochete *Treponema pallidum*, progresses through distinct clinical stages if left untreated. The **Syphilitic Gumma** is the hallmark lesion of **Tertiary Syphilis** (Late Syphilis) [1]. **Why Tertiary Syphilis is correct:** Tertiary syphilis occurs years (3–15+) after the initial infection. A gumma is a chronic, granulomatous lesion characterized by a center of coagulative necrosis surrounded by lymphocytes, plasma cells, and epithelioid cells [1]. These lesions are non-infectious and represent a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction to the spirochetes. They commonly affect the skin, bones, and liver (hepar lobatum). **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Primary Syphilis:** Characterized by the **Chancre**—a solitary, painless, indurated ulcer at the site of inoculation, usually accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy [1]. * **Secondary Syphilis:** Known as the "Great Imitator," it presents with systemic features like generalized lymphadenopathy, **condyloma lata**, and a maculopapular rash involving the palms and soles [1]. * **Quaternary Syphilis:** This is an obsolete term sometimes historically used to describe neurosyphilis; however, in modern medical classification, neurosyphilis and cardiovascular syphilis are categorized under Tertiary Syphilis [1]. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gumma Location:** Most common site is the skin and skeletal system; the **palate** and **nasal septum** are frequently involved, leading to perforation. * **Argyll Robertson Pupil:** "The Prostitute's Pupil" (accommodates but does not react to light) is a classic finding in Tertiary Syphilis (Tabes Dorsalis). * **Screening vs. Confirmatory:** VDRL/RPR are non-specific screening tests; **FTA-ABS** and **TPHA** are specific treponemal tests used for confirmation. * **Treatment:** Benzathine Penicillin G remains the drug of choice for all stages.

Question 109: Which statement regarding gonococcal urethritis is true?

A. Symptoms are more severe in females than in males. (Correct Answer)
B. The rectum and prostate are resistant to gonococci.
C. Most patients present with symptoms of dysuria.
D. Single dose of ciprofloxacin is effective in treatment.

Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Option A is Correct:** In **Gonococcal Urethritis**, the clinical presentation differs significantly between genders. In males, the infection is typically acute and symptomatic (90% of cases), characterized by profuse purulent discharge [2]. However, in **females**, the infection is often **asymptomatic or minimally symptomatic** initially. When symptoms do occur, they are frequently more severe due to complications like **Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)**, which can lead to chronic pelvic pain, ectopic pregnancy, and infertility. Thus, while males are more likely to *notice* symptoms, the clinical *severity* and long-term morbidity are higher in females. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option B:** The rectum and prostate are **not resistant**. Prostatitis is a known local complication in males, and proctitis occurs frequently in both genders [3]. * **Option C:** While dysuria occurs, the **hallmark presentation** of gonococcal urethritis is a **profuse, thick, yellowish-green purulent urethral discharge** [2]. Dysuria is more characteristic of non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU). * **Option D:** Ciprofloxacin is **no longer recommended** due to widespread resistance (*Quinolone-resistant N. gonorrhoeae* or QRNG). The current CDC/WHO recommendation is a single dose of **Ceftriaxone (IM)** [1]. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Organism:** *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* (Gram-negative intracellular diplococci in neutrophils). * **Incubation Period:** Short (2–7 days) [2]. * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Culture on **Thayer-Martin Medium**. * **Co-infection:** Always treat for *Chlamydia trachomatis* (usually with Azithromycin or Doxycycline) as co-infection is common. * **Disseminated Gonococcal Infection (DGI):** Presents with the triad of tenosynovitis, dermatitis, and polyarthralgia.

Question 110: After initiating treatment for syphilis, how can the response to treatment be best assessed?

A. FTA-ABS
B. VDRL (Correct Answer)
C. TPHA
D. Immobilisation test

Explanation: **Explanation:** The assessment of treatment response in syphilis relies on distinguishing between **treponemal** and **non-treponemal** tests. **Why VDRL is the correct answer:** The **VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory)** and **RPR** are non-treponemal tests that measure IgG and IgM antibodies against cardiolipin-cholesterol-lecithin antigen [1]. These tests are **quantitative** (reported as titers, e.g., 1:32). Because these titers correlate with disease activity, they are used to monitor treatment. A successful response is typically defined as a **four-fold decline** in titers (e.g., from 1:32 to 1:8) within 6–12 months. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **FTA-ABS (Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption) & TPHA (T. pallidum Hemagglutination Assay):** These are specific treponemal tests. Once a patient tests positive, these tests usually remain positive for life (**"treponemal memory"**), regardless of treatment. Therefore, they cannot be used to differentiate between an active infection and a past treated infection. * **Immobilisation Test (TPI):** Historically the "gold standard" for specificity, it is complex, expensive, and no longer used in routine clinical practice. Like other treponemal tests, it does not reliably track treatment response. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Prozone Phenomenon:** A false-negative VDRL result due to excessively high antibody titers (seen in secondary syphilis) [1]. It is corrected by diluting the serum. * **Biological False Positive (BFP):** Conditions like SLE, leprosy, malaria, and pregnancy can cause a positive VDRL but a negative FTA-ABS [1]. * **Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction:** An acute febrile reaction occurring within 24 hours of starting syphilis treatment (usually Penicillin) due to the release of endotoxins from dying spirochetes. * **Neurosyphilis:** CSF-VDRL is the specific test for diagnosis, but it is not sensitive.

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Syphilis

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Gonorrhea

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Chlamydial Infections

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Chancroid and Other Genital Ulcers

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Genital Herpes

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Human Papillomavirus Infections

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HIV and STIs

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Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

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STI Screening and Prevention

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Partner Notification and Treatment

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Sexually Transmitted Enteric Infections

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Special Populations Management

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Venerology — MCQs

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