Infectious Diseases Practice Questions

Q: What is the most common site of abdominal tuberculosis?

Ileocecal junction. ***Ileocecal junction*** - The **ileocecal junction** is the most common site for abdominal tuberculosis due to its rich lymphoid tissue (Peyer's patches) and physiological stasis. - Tuberculous infection at this site can lead to **mucosal ulceration**, stricture formation, and mass lesions. *Colon* - While the colon can be affected by abdominal tuberculosis, it is **less common** than the ileocecal region. - Colonic involvement often presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. *Small intestine* - Though other parts of the small intestine can be involved, the **distal ileum** and its junction with the cecum are disproportionately affected. - Involvement of the jejunum and duodenum is less frequent. *Rectum* - **Rectal involvement** in abdominal tuberculosis is rare and typically occurs in conjunction with more extensive colonic or disseminated disease. - Symptoms may include tenesmus, rectal bleeding, or fistula formation.

Q: A patient, who is a known case of HIV with a CD4 count of 200 cells/cu.mm, presents with 5 days of cough and high-grade fever without chills and rigors. There is no history of diarrhoea, vomiting, or nuchal rigidity. Chest x-ray is normal. What treatment will you give?

Co-trimoxazole only. ***Co-trimoxazole only*** - The patient has a CD4 count of 200 cells/cu.mm with cough and fever and a normal chest X-ray, all of which are highly suggestive of **Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)**, even without classic infiltrates. Therefore, **co-trimoxazole** (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) is the first-line treatment [1]. - In a patient with HIV and a CD4 count below 200, **PJP prophylaxis** with co-trimoxazole should also be considered [2], and its empirical treatment is indicated in this scenario. *Co-trimoxazole + steroids* - While co-trimoxazole is the correct treatment for PJP, **steroids** are typically reserved for patients with more severe disease, indicated by **hypoxia** (PaO2 35 mmHg) or diffuse interstitial infiltrates on chest imaging, neither of which are described here [1]. - Adding steroids without clear indications could increase the risk of side effects in an immunocompromised patient. *Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid + Azithromycin* - This combination targets typical **bacterial community-acquired pneumonia**, which is less likely given the patient's HIV status, low CD4 count, and normal chest X-ray. - This regimen would not effectively treat **PJP**, which is the most probable diagnosis in this immunocompromised setting. *Antitubercular treatment* - While tuberculosis is common in HIV patients, the normal chest X-ray makes pulmonary tuberculosis less likely, especially without other classic symptoms like night sweats, weight loss, or hemoptysis. In patients with CD4 counts below 200, the clinical presentation of TB differences substantially from those without HIV [1]. - **Antitubercular treatment** would not address the immediate concern of possible PJP, which can rapidly progress if untreated.

Q: A person presents to the hospital with fever and chills. Fever profile is ordered and is found to be negative for malaria and dengue. Rk39 test is found to be positive. What is the treatment of choice?

Amphotericin B. Amphotericin B - A positive RK39 test suggests visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar), especially with fever and chills in an endemic area [1]. - Amphotericin B (specifically liposomal Amphotericin B) is a highly effective and often the drug of choice for treating visceral leishmaniasis, particularly in severe cases or regions with antimonial resistance. Dapsone - Dapsone is primarily used in the treatment of leprosy and بعض forms of dermatitis (e.g., dermatitis herpetiformis). - It has no significant role in treating leishmaniasis. Hydroxychloroquine - Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial drug also used for certain autoimmune diseases like lupus and rheumatoid arthritis [2]. - It is ineffective against leishmaniasis. Griseofulvin - Griseofulvin is an antifungal medication used to treat dermatophyte infections (e.g., ringworm of the skin, hair, or nails). - It has no activity against Leishmania parasites.

Q: A 35-year-old patient with a history of dysentery for 6 weeks complains of pain in the right upper abdomen. On ultrasound, a hypoechoic hyperdense lesion is seen in the liver. Identify the condition based on the given image?

Amoebic liver abscess. ***Amoebic liver abscess*** - The history of **dysentery** (often caused by *Entamoeba histolytica*) 6 weeks prior strongly points to an amoebic infection. - The presence of a **hypoechoic, hyperdense lesion** in the liver on ultrasound is characteristic of an amoebic liver abscess, which is a common extraintestinal manifestation of amoebiasis. *Hemangioma* - A hemangioma is a **benign vascular tumor** of the liver, typically asymptomatic and discovered incidentally. - It would not be causally linked to a recent history of dysentery. *Pyogenic liver abscess* - While a pyogenic (bacterial) liver abscess can also present as an abscess on imaging, a **clear history of dysentery** strongly favors an amoebic cause. - Pyogenic abscesses are often associated with other sources of infection like biliary obstruction or diverticulitis. *Hydatid cyst* - A hydatid cyst is caused by the parasite **_Echinococcus granulosus_** and is more common in endemic regions. - Although it appears as a cystic lesion, it is not directly linked to a history of dysentery as its mode of transmission differs.

Q: A 35-year-old patient with a history of dysentery for 6 weeks complains of pain in the right upper abdomen. On ultrasound, a hypoechoic hyperdense lesion is seen in the liver. Identify the condition based on the given image?

Amoebic liver abscess. ***Amoebic liver abscess*** - The patient's history of **dysentery** (amoebic colitis) 6 weeks prior strongly points to an amoebic infection, as *Entamoeba histolytica* can spread from the colon to the liver via the portal vein. - The ultrasound finding of a **hypoechoic lesion** in the liver is characteristic of an abscess, and in the context of recent dysentery, it is highly suggestive of an amoebic liver abscess. *Hydatid cyst* - Hydatid cysts are caused by *Echinococcus granulosus* and are typically seen in patients with a history of **sheep herding** or exposure to dogs. - Ultrasound findings often show **daughter cysts** or a "water lily" sign, which are not described here or evident in the image. *Hemangioma* - Hemangiomas are the **most common benign liver tumors** and are typically **hyperechoic** on ultrasound, unlike the hypoechoic lesion described. - They are usually **asymptomatic** and not associated with a history of dysentery or acute pain. *Pyogenic liver abscess* - While a pyogenic liver abscess can present as a hypoechoic lesion on ultrasound and cause pain, it is typically associated with **biliary tract infection**, diverticulitis, or other sources of bacterial infection, not usually dysentery alone. - Pyogenic abscesses are often **multiple** and frequently occur in the setting of conditions like cholangitis or appendicitis.

Q: An ICU patient is suffering from Rhinovirus infection. How do we treat the patient?

Supportive care only. ***Supportive care only*** - **Rhinovirus** is a common cause of the **common cold**, and there is no specific antiviral treatment available for it. [1] - Management focuses on alleviating symptoms such as fever, congestion, and cough to ensure patient comfort and prevent secondary complications, especially in an ICU setting. *Piperacillin + Tazobactam + Azithromycin* - This combination is a broad-spectrum antibiotic regimen (piperacillin/tazobactam is an extended-spectrum penicillin, and azithromycin is a macrolide) targeting bacterial infections. [2] - **Rhinovirus is a virus**, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections, making this an inappropriate treatment. *Clarithromycin* - **Clarithromycin** is a macrolide antibiotic primarily used to treat bacterial infections, such as respiratory tract infections caused by **atypical bacteria** or community-acquired pneumonia. [2] - It has no activity against **Rhinovirus**, a common cold virus. *Cephalosporin + Ganciclovir* - **Cephalosporins** are a class of beta-lactam antibiotics used for various bacterial infections. [2] - **Ganciclovir** is an antiviral agent specifically used to treat **cytomegalovirus (CMV)** infections, not Rhinovirus.

Q: During the discharge of a COVID patient treated with steroids and remdesivir, which of the following will you inform him about? 1. Repeat RT-PCR after 7 days of discharge 2. Watch for the persistence of Anosmia 3. Watch for headache and nasal discharge 4. Monitor glucose levels 5. Watch for Sinusitis symptoms

3,4 and 5. **3, 4, and 5** - For patients treated with **steroids**, it is crucial to monitor **glucose levels** due to the potential for steroid-induced hyperglycemia [1]. - Symptoms like **headache** and **nasal discharge** (and by extension **sinusitis symptoms**) could indicate conditions like **mucormycosis**, a serious fungal infection seen in immunocompromised COVID-19 patients, especially those having received steroids. *1, 3, and 4* - A **repeat RT-PCR after 7 days** of discharge is generally not recommended as per current guidelines, as viral shedding can persist without infectivity. - While monitoring for headache, nasal discharge, and glucose levels is appropriate, omitting the direct vigilance for **sinusitis symptoms** is less comprehensive. *2, 3, and 4* - While **anosmia** (loss of smell) can persist post-COVID, it is primarily a lingering symptom of the infection itself and typically resolves spontaneously, not usually requiring specific discharge instructions for monitoring its persistence to prevent complications. - The focus should be on new or worsening symptoms that might indicate post-COVID complications or secondary infections. *1, 2, 3, 4, and 5* - Including **repeat RT-PCR** and solely "watch for the persistence of Anosmia" without emphasizing resolution or specific actions makes this option less pertinent for discharge advice. - The priority for discharge instructions should be preventable complications and warning signs of serious conditions.

Q: A forest officer develops the lesion as shown in the image. Which of the following is not a differential to consider?

KFD. ***KFD*** - **Kyasanur Forest Disease** (KFD) is a viral hemorrhagic fever, but it does **not** typically present with a **skin lesion** or eschar like the one shown. - KFD is characterized by fever, headache, myalgia, and gastrointestinal symptoms, with hemorrhagic manifestations in severe cases, but not a primary cutaneous lesion. *Cutaneous anthrax* - **Cutaneous anthrax** commonly presents as an **eschar**, often with surrounding edema and vesicles, which can resemble the lesion in the image. - Exposure through handling infected animal products or contact with contaminated soil is common, aligning with a forest officer's occupation. *Scrub typhus* - **Scrub typhus** characteristically causes an **eschar** (tache noire) at the bite site of the chigger mite. - The lesion in the image, an ulcer with a central black crust, is highly suggestive of such an eschar seen in rickettsial infections. *Healing brown recluse spider bite* - A **brown recluse spider bite** can cause a **necrotic ulcer** with a central dark eschar as the wound heals, fitting the appearance of the lesion. - The profession of a forest officer increases the likelihood of exposure to spiders in their natural habitat.

Q: In HIV-positive patients with gonorrhea, which of the following statements is TRUE regarding management?

Standard treatment protocols are followed. ***Standard treatment protocols are followed*** - Current guidelines from organizations like the **CDC** recommend the same treatment regimens for gonorrhea in both HIV-positive and HIV-negative individuals. - **Ceftriaxone** plus **azithromycin** is the standard empiric therapy, and its efficacy is maintained in HIV-positive patients. *Prophylactic antifungals should be added* - There is **no evidence** to support routine prophylactic antifungal administration during gonorrhea treatment in HIV-positive patients. - Antifungals are prescribed only when there is a concurrent **fungal infection**. *Treatment duration should be extended* - **Standard duration** of therapy is sufficient, as HIV infection does not typically alter the bactericidal activity of recommended antibiotics against *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*. - Extending treatment duration without clinical indication can contribute to **antibiotic resistance**. *Higher doses of antibiotics are required* - **Standard antibiotic dosages** for gonorrhea are effective in HIV-positive individuals because pharmacokinetic studies generally show similar drug concentrations and efficacy. - **Increasing doses** without specific rationale can lead to higher toxicity risks and does not improve outcomes.

Question 1

What is the most common site of abdominal tuberculosis?

Accepted Answer

Ileocecal junction

Answer

Colon

Answer

Small intestine

Answer

Rectum

Question 2

A patient, who is a known case of HIV with a CD4 count of 200 cells/cu.mm, presents with 5 days of cough and high-grade fever without chills and rigors. There is no history of diarrhoea, vomiting, or nuchal rigidity. Chest x-ray is normal. What treatment will you give?

Accepted Answer

Co-trimoxazole only

Answer

Co-trimoxazole + steroids

Answer

Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid + Azithromycin

Answer

Antitubercular treatment

Question 3

A person presents to the hospital with fever and chills. Fever profile is ordered and is found to be negative for malaria and dengue. Rk39 test is found to be positive. What is the treatment of choice?

Accepted Answer

Amphotericin B

Answer

Dapsone

Answer

Hydroxychloroquine

Answer

Griseofulvin

Question 4

A 35-year-old patient with a history of dysentery for 6 weeks complains of pain in the right upper abdomen. On ultrasound, a hypoechoic hyperdense lesion is seen in the liver. Identify the condition based on the given image?

Accepted Answer

Amoebic liver abscess

Answer

Hemangioma

Answer

Pyogenic liver abscess

Answer

Hydatid cyst

Question 5

A 35-year-old patient with a history of dysentery for 6 weeks complains of pain in the right upper abdomen. On ultrasound, a hypoechoic hyperdense lesion is seen in the liver. Identify the condition based on the given image?

Accepted Answer

Amoebic liver abscess

Answer

Hydatid cyst

Answer

Hemangioma

Answer

Pyogenic liver abscess

Question 6

An ICU patient is suffering from Rhinovirus infection. How do we treat the patient?

Accepted Answer

Supportive care only

Answer

Piperacillin + Tazobactam + Azithromycin

Answer

Clarithromycin

Answer

Cephalosporin + Ganciclovir

Question 7

During the discharge of a COVID patient treated with steroids and remdesivir, which of the following will you inform him about?

1. Repeat RT-PCR after 7 days of discharge
2. Watch for the persistence of Anosmia
3. Watch for headache and nasal discharge
4. Monitor glucose levels
5. Watch for Sinusitis symptoms

Accepted Answer

3,4 and 5

Answer

1,3 and 4

Answer

2,3 and 4

Answer

1,2,3,4 and 5

Question 8

A forest officer develops the lesion as shown in the image. Which of the following is not a differential to consider?

Accepted Answer

KFD

Answer

Cutaneous anthrax

Answer

Scrub typhus

Answer

Healing brown recluse spider bite

Question 9

In HIV-positive patients with gonorrhea, which of the following statements is TRUE regarding management?

Accepted Answer

Standard treatment protocols are followed

Answer

Prophylactic antifungals should be added

Answer

Treatment duration should be extended

Answer

Higher doses of antibiotics are required

Question 10

A 42-year-old man with a history of gout and hypertension presents to his family physician with a complaint of increased left knee pain over the past 2 days. He also reports swelling and redness of the left knee and is unable to bear weight on that side. He denies any prior surgery or inciting trauma to the knee. His temperature is 97.0°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 137/98 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals a left knee that is erythematous, swollen, warm-to-touch, and extremely tender to palpation and with attempted flexion/extension movement. His left knee range of motion is markedly reduced compared to the contralateral side. Joint aspiration of the left knee is performed with synovial fluid analysis showing turbid fluid with a leukocyte count of 95,000/mm^3, 88% neutrophils, and a low glucose. Gram stain of the synovial fluid is negative. Results from synovial fluid culture are pending. Which of the following is the best treatment regimen for this patient?

Accepted Answer

Vancomycin and ceftazidime

Answer

Ceftriaxone

Answer

Piperacillin-tazobactam

Answer

Indomethacin and colchicine

Answer

Acetaminophen and ibuprofen

Infectious Diseases — MCQs

Infectious Diseases — MCQs

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