Infectious Diseases — MCQs
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A 70-year-old male presented with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, headache, malaise, persistent fever for 2 weeks, and constipation. On examination, a characteristic rash was observed on the trunk and chest. His vital signs were BP 120/70 mm Hg and HR 65 bpm. Examination revealed hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood culture was negative; however, a bone marrow culture showed a Gram-negative organism that ferments glucose with acid production, reduces nitrates, does not ferment lactose, and is motile by means of flagella. What is the drug of choice if the isolated organism is a multi-drug resistant variety?
The endotoxin of which of the following Gram-negative bacteria does not play a significant role in the pathogenesis of the natural disease?
Which of the following types of hepatitis is associated with an immune-mediated vasculitis characterized by p-ANCA antibodies?
A patient who underwent renal transplantation 2 months ago presents with difficulty breathing. Chest X-ray shows bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia. What is the probable etiologic agent?
Which of the following is NOT a feature of arthritis in acute rheumatic fever?
Lady Windermere's syndrome is associated with which of the following organisms?
A 56-year-old man presents with intermittent fevers and malaise for the past 2 weeks, with no other localizing symptoms. Two months prior, he underwent valve replacement surgery for a bicuspid aortic valve, receiving a mechanical valve with an uncomplicated postoperative course. On examination, his temperature is 38°C, blood pressure is 124/80 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and head and neck are normal. Auscultation reveals a 3/6 systolic ejection murmur, a mechanical second heart sound, and a 2/6 early diastolic murmur. Lungs are clear and skin examination is normal. Three sets of blood cultures and an urgent echocardiogram are performed. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
Mild steatorrhea is caused by which of the following?
A 38-year-old AIDS patient presents with a one-week history of fever and increasing headache. He also reports photophobia, nausea, and weakness. His past medical history is significant for Pneumocystis pneumonia, and his CD4 count is 89. Current medications include trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole and indinavir. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals 4 WBCs, and budding encapsulated yeast forms grow on Sabouraud's agar. What is the accurate description of the morphology of the infectious form of the organism responsible for this patient's illness?
Which of the following statements about HIV is incorrect?
Infectious Diseases Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 301: A 70-year-old male presented with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, headache, malaise, persistent fever for 2 weeks, and constipation. On examination, a characteristic rash was observed on the trunk and chest. His vital signs were BP 120/70 mm Hg and HR 65 bpm. Examination revealed hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood culture was negative; however, a bone marrow culture showed a Gram-negative organism that ferments glucose with acid production, reduces nitrates, does not ferment lactose, and is motile by means of flagella. What is the drug of choice if the isolated organism is a multi-drug resistant variety?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Moxifloxacin
- C. Ceftriaxone (Correct Answer)
- D. Ceftazidime
Explanation: ### Explanation **Diagnosis: Enteric Fever (Typhoid Fever)** The clinical presentation of prolonged fever (2 weeks), abdominal pain, constipation, hepatosplenomegaly, and the characteristic **"Rose spots"** (rash on the trunk) is classic for Enteric fever [1]. The presence of **relative bradycardia** (Faget’s sign)—HR 65 bpm despite a persistent fever—is a high-yield diagnostic clue. The microbiology findings (Gram-negative, motile, non-lactose fermenter, glucose fermenter) confirm *Salmonella Typhi*. **1. Why Ceftriaxone is Correct:** While Ciprofloxacin was historically the drug of choice (DOC), widespread resistance (Nalidixic acid-resistant *S. Typhi* or NARST) has shifted the treatment paradigm. For **Multi-Drug Resistant (MDR)** typhoid—defined as resistance to chloramphenicol, ampicillin, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole—and for cases with fluoroquinolone resistance, **Third-generation Cephalosporins (Ceftriaxone)** are the current **Drug of Choice**. They provide excellent bactericidal activity and have low failure rates. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Ciprofloxacin:** Formerly the DOC, it is now avoided as initial empirical therapy in many regions due to high rates of fluoroquinolone resistance. * **Moxifloxacin:** While a potent fluoroquinolone, it is not the standard of care for MDR typhoid compared to Ceftriaxone. * **Ceftazidime:** Although a 3rd-generation cephalosporin, it is primarily used for *Pseudomonas* infections and is less effective/standardized for *S. Typhi* than Ceftriaxone. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Bone marrow culture (highest sensitivity, ~90%), especially if blood cultures (positive in 1st week) are negative. * **Widal Test:** Significant only after the 2nd week (not reliable in the first week). * **Carrier State:** *Salmonella* persists in the **gallbladder** (chronic carriers). * **Drug of Choice for Carriers:** Ciprofloxacin (for 4–6 weeks) or Cholecystectomy if stones are present. * **Azithromycin:** Often used for uncomplicated typhoid or as an alternative to Ceftriaxone in MDR cases.
Question 302: The endotoxin of which of the following Gram-negative bacteria does not play a significant role in the pathogenesis of the natural disease?
- A. Escherichia coli
- B. Klebsiella spp.
- C. Vibrio cholerae (Correct Answer)
- D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation: **Explanation:** The pathogenesis of bacterial diseases generally involves either **endotoxins** (Lipopolysaccharide/LPS found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria) or **exotoxins** (secreted proteins). **Why Vibrio cholerae is the correct answer:** While *Vibrio cholerae* is a Gram-negative bacterium and possesses endotoxin (LPS) in its cell wall, this endotoxin plays **no significant role** in the clinical manifestation of Cholera. The natural disease is caused almost entirely by the **Cholera Toxin (Choleragen)**, a potent **exotoxin** [1]. This A-B type toxin increases intracellular cAMP, leading to the massive secretion of water and electrolytes into the intestinal lumen, resulting in "rice-water" stools [1]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Escherichia coli & Klebsiella spp.:** These are classic Enterobacteriaceae. In conditions like neonatal sepsis, UTI, or pneumonia caused by these organisms, the release of **LPS (Endotoxin)** into the bloodstream triggers the release of cytokines (TNF-α, IL-1), leading to septic shock and systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). * **Pseudomonas aeruginosa:** This organism utilizes a combination of virulence factors. While it produces Exotoxin A, its **endotoxin** is a major contributor to the pathogenesis of Pseudomonas-induced septicemia and shock. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Endotoxin (LPS):** The toxic component is **Lipid A**. It is heat-stable and encoded by chromosomal genes. * **Vibrio cholerae:** The toxin is encoded by a bacteriophage (**CTXφ**). Stool dark-field microscopy shows the typical ‘shooting star’ motility of V. cholerae [1]. * **Key Distinction:** Endotoxins typically cause fever and shock; Exotoxins (like Cholera toxin) usually have specific pharmacological actions without necessarily causing fever.
Question 303: Which of the following types of hepatitis is associated with an immune-mediated vasculitis characterized by p-ANCA antibodies?
- A. Hepatitis A
- B. Hepatitis B (Correct Answer)
- C. Hepatitis C
- D. Hepatitis D
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Hepatitis B**. This association is a classic high-yield concept in medical pathology and clinical medicine. **1. Why Hepatitis B is correct:** Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is strongly associated with **Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)**, a systemic necrotizing vasculitis of medium and small-sized arteries. PAN is an immune-complex mediated disease where HBsAg-anti-HBs complexes deposit in vessel walls, leading to inflammation [1]. While PAN is classically "pauci-immune" (meaning ANCA is usually negative), a specific subset of patients—particularly those with microscopic polyangiitis or certain variants of PAN—can demonstrate **p-ANCA (perinuclear Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies)** positivity. Approximately 10–30% of patients with PAN are chronic carriers of HBV. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Hepatitis A:** This is an acute, self-limiting infection transmitted via the fecal-oral route [2]. It is not associated with chronic immune-complex mediated vasculitides. * **Hepatitis C:** HCV is most famously associated with **Mixed Cryoglobulinemia** (Type II and III), which presents with the triad of purpura, arthralgia, and weakness. While it causes vasculitis, it is not typically associated with p-ANCA. * **Hepatitis D:** HDV requires the presence of HBV to replicate. While it increases the severity of liver disease, the specific association with p-ANCA vasculitis is primarily attributed to the underlying HBV infection. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **PAN Presentation:** Look for "string of beads" appearance on angiography, hypertension (renal artery involvement), and mononeuritis multiplex. * **HCV vs. HBV:** If the question mentions **Cryoglobulins**, think **HCV**. If it mentions **PAN or p-ANCA**, think **HBV** [1]. * **Rule of Thumb:** PAN characteristically **spares the lungs**, unlike other ANCA-associated vasculitides like Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA).
Question 304: A patient who underwent renal transplantation 2 months ago presents with difficulty breathing. Chest X-ray shows bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia. What is the probable etiologic agent?
- A. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) (Correct Answer)
- B. Histoplasma capsulatum
- C. Candida species
- D. Pneumocystis jirovecii
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Option: A. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** In the context of solid organ transplantation (SOT), the timing of infection is a critical diagnostic clue. CMV is the **most common opportunistic viral pathogen** occurring in the "middle period" (1–6 months post-transplant). During this window, the effects of intense induction immunosuppression are maximal. CMV typically presents as a systemic syndrome (fever, neutropenia) or tissue-invasive disease, most commonly **interstitial pneumonitis**, which manifests as bilateral diffuse infiltrates on chest X-ray. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Histoplasma capsulatum:** While it can cause interstitial pneumonia, fungal infections like Histoplasmosis are geographically restricted and less common than CMV in the early post-transplant period unless there is specific environmental exposure or reactivation. * **C. Candida species:** Candida typically causes mucocutaneous infection (thrush) or line-associated candidemia. It is an extremely rare cause of interstitial pneumonia; pulmonary involvement usually presents as multiple small abscesses via hematogenous spread. * **D. Pneumocystis jirovecii (PJP):** PJP presents similarly with bilateral interstitial infiltrates. However, due to the universal use of **TMP-SMX prophylaxis** in the first 6–12 months post-transplant, the incidence of PJP has significantly declined, making CMV the more probable diagnosis in a modern clinical setting. **NEET-PG Clinical Pearls:** * **Timeline Rule:** * *<1 month:* Post-operative bacterial/surgical site infections. * *1–6 months:* Opportunistic infections (CMV, BK virus, PJP, Toxoplasma). * *6 months:* Community-acquired infections. * **CMV Diagnosis:** Look for **"Owl’s eye" intranuclear inclusion bodies** on histopathology. * **Treatment of choice:** Intravenous **Ganciclovir** (or Valganciclovir for prophylaxis/mild cases). * **Most common organ affected by CMV in SOT:** The transplanted organ itself (e.g., hepatitis in liver transplant) or the lungs (pneumonitis).
Question 305: Which of the following is NOT a feature of arthritis in acute rheumatic fever?
- A. Elevated ASO titer
- B. Joint deformities are common sequels (Correct Answer)
- C. Dramatic response to aspirin
- D. Involvement of large joints
Explanation: The arthritis of Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF) is characteristically **non-deforming**. Even without treatment, the inflammation typically resolves within 1–5 weeks without leaving any residual joint damage or chronic sequelae. This distinguishes it from other inflammatory conditions like Rheumatoid Arthritis, which leads to joint erosion and permanent deformity. ### **Analysis of Options** * **A. Elevated ASO titer:** This is a diagnostic requirement [1]. According to the **Jones Criteria**, evidence of a preceding Group A Streptococcal (GAS) infection (e.g., elevated/rising Antistreptolysin O titer) is essential for diagnosis [1]. * **C. Dramatic response to aspirin:** The response to salicylates (Aspirin) or NSAIDs is so rapid and complete (usually within 48 hours) that if a patient does not respond, the diagnosis of ARF should be reconsidered. * **D. Involvement of large joints:** ARF typically presents as a **migratory polyarthritis** affecting large joints such as the knees, ankles, elbows, and wrists. Small joints are rarely involved. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Jaccoud’s Arthropathy:** While ARF is non-deforming, a rare condition called Jaccoud’s arthropathy (painless loosening of ligaments) can occur after recurrent attacks, but it is functional rather than erosive. * **Jones Criteria (Revised):** Arthritis is a **Major Criterion**. In high-risk populations, even monoarthritis or polyarthralgia can be considered a major criterion. * **Inverse Relationship:** There is often an inverse relationship between the severity of arthritis and the severity of carditis; patients with severe arthritis often have milder carditis [1]. * **Treatment:** Aspirin remains the drug of choice for arthritis, while corticosteroids are reserved for severe carditis.
Question 306: Lady Windermere's syndrome is associated with which of the following organisms?
- A. Treponema pallidum
- B. Listeria monocytogenes
- C. Non-tuberculous mycobacteria (Correct Answer)
- D. Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Lady Windermere’s Syndrome** is a specific clinical presentation of pulmonary infection caused by **Non-Tuberculous Mycobacteria (NTM)**, most commonly *Mycobacterium avium complex* (MAC) [1]. The syndrome typically occurs in elderly, immunocompetent women who do not have pre-existing lung disease. The underlying pathophysiology is linked to **voluntary cough suppression**. Historically, it was observed in women who, for social reasons, refrained from coughing and expectorating. This leads to the stagnation of secretions in the dependent lobes (specifically the **right middle lobe** or the lingula), creating a nidus for NTM infection. Radiologically, it is characterized by bronchiectasis and tree-in-bud nodules. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Treponema pallidum:** The causative agent of Syphilis; it is associated with aortitis and neurosyphilis, not chronic pulmonary NTM infections. * **B. Listeria monocytogenes:** A gram-positive rod causing meningitis and sepsis, particularly in neonates, the elderly, and the immunocompromised. * **D. Chlamydia trachomatis:** A common cause of STIs and trachoma; it does not cause the chronic bronchiectatic pattern seen in this syndrome. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classic Patient Profile:** Elderly female, thin habitus, often associated with skeletal abnormalities like pectus excavatum or scoliosis. * **Commonest Organism:** *Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare* (MAC) [1]. * **Radiology Hallmark:** Bronchiectasis and nodules specifically involving the **Right Middle Lobe (RML)** or the **Lingula**. * **Treatment:** Long-term multi-drug therapy (typically Macrolides, Ethambutol, and Rifampin).
Question 307: A 56-year-old man presents with intermittent fevers and malaise for the past 2 weeks, with no other localizing symptoms. Two months prior, he underwent valve replacement surgery for a bicuspid aortic valve, receiving a mechanical valve with an uncomplicated postoperative course. On examination, his temperature is 38°C, blood pressure is 124/80 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and head and neck are normal. Auscultation reveals a 3/6 systolic ejection murmur, a mechanical second heart sound, and a 2/6 early diastolic murmur. Lungs are clear and skin examination is normal. Three sets of blood cultures and an urgent echocardiogram are performed. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
- A. Staphylococcus aureus
- B. Staphylococcus epidermidis (Correct Answer)
- C. Streptococcus viridans
- D. Enterococci
Explanation: ### Explanation This patient presents with **Prosthetic Valve Endocarditis (PVE)**. The timing of presentation after valve replacement is the most critical factor in identifying the likely causative organism. **1. Why Staphylococcus epidermidis is correct:** PVE is classified into three categories based on the time elapsed since surgery [1]: * **Early PVE (<2 months):** Usually due to perioperative contamination. The most common organism is **Coagulase-negative Staphylococci (CoNS)**, specifically *Staphylococcus epidermidis*. * **Intermediate PVE (2–12 months):** Also predominantly caused by *S. epidermidis* and *S. aureus*. * **Late PVE (>12 months):** Resembles native valve endocarditis, commonly caused by *Streptococcus viridans*. Since this patient is exactly 2 months post-op, he falls into the early-to-intermediate window where **Staphylococcus epidermidis** is the most frequent pathogen. The new diastolic murmur suggests aortic regurgitation, a sign of valve dysfunction due to infection [2]. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Staphylococcus aureus:** While a common cause of acute endocarditis and early PVE, it typically presents with a more fulminant, rapidly progressive clinical course compared to the subacute presentation (2 weeks of malaise) seen here [3]. * **Streptococcus viridans:** This is the leading cause of **Late PVE** (>1 year post-surgery) and native valve endocarditis [3]. It is less likely in the immediate post-operative period. * **Enterococci:** These are common causes of endocarditis following GI or GU procedures but are less common than Staphylococci in early prosthetic valve infections [3]. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common cause of Early PVE:** *Staph. epidermidis* (CoNS). * **Most common cause of Native Valve Endocarditis (NVE):** *Streptococcus viridans* [3]. * **Most common cause in IV drug users:** *Staphylococcus aureus* (often involving the Tricuspid valve) [3]. * **Culture-negative Endocarditis:** Most commonly due to prior antibiotic use or HACEK organisms. * **Duke’s Criteria:** Remember that "New Valvular Regurgitation" is a Major Criterion, while a pre-existing murmur is not [2].
Question 308: Mild steatorrhea is caused by which of the following?
- A. Trichomonas vaginalis
- B. Giardia (Correct Answer)
- C. E. histolytica
- D. Entamoeba coli
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Giardia lamblia** is the correct answer because it primarily infects the upper small intestine (duodenum and jejunum) [2]. The pathophysiology involves the trophozoites adhering to the intestinal mucosa via a ventral sucking disc [2]. This leads to the **blunting of villi** and the **malabsorption of fats**, resulting in characteristic foul-smelling, greasy, non-bloody stools known as **steatorrhea**. Unlike invasive pathogens, *Giardia* causes a functional deficiency of enzymes (like disaccharidases) and interferes with bile salt activity, further contributing to fat malabsorption. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Trichomonas vaginalis:** This is a flagellated protozoan that causes urogenital infections (vaginitis/urethritis), not intestinal disease. It is a common cause of "strawberry cervix." * **Entamoeba histolytica:** This organism causes amoebic dysentery [1]. It invades the colonic mucosa, leading to "flask-shaped ulcers" and bloody diarrhea (hematochezia), rather than malabsorptive steatorrhea [1]. * **Entamoeba coli:** This is considered a non-pathogenic commensal of the human colon. Its presence in stool indicates fecal-oral contamination but does not cause clinical disease or steatorrhea. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Drug of Choice:** Tinidazole (single dose) or Metronidazole. * **Diagnosis:** Stool microscopy (cysts/trophozoites) or the **String Test (Entero-test)** if stool samples are negative. * **Risk Factors:** Common in travelers ("Traveler’s Diarrhea"), hikers (drinking unfiltered stream water), and individuals with **IgA deficiency** [2][3]. * **Morphology:** Trophozoites have a characteristic "falling leaf" motility and a "monkey face" appearance on staining.
Question 309: A 38-year-old AIDS patient presents with a one-week history of fever and increasing headache. He also reports photophobia, nausea, and weakness. His past medical history is significant for Pneumocystis pneumonia, and his CD4 count is 89. Current medications include trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole and indinavir. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals 4 WBCs, and budding encapsulated yeast forms grow on Sabouraud's agar. What is the accurate description of the morphology of the infectious form of the organism responsible for this patient's illness?
- A. Broad-based, budding yeasts
- B. Budding yeasts in a pseudohyphae
- C. Cylindrical arthroconidia
- D. Encapsulated budding yeasts (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: D. Encapsulated budding yeasts** **Concept:** The patient is an immunocompromised individual (AIDS, CD4 count <100) presenting with subacute meningitis (fever, headache, photophobia). The CSF finding of **budding encapsulated yeast** on Sabouraud’s agar is pathognomonic for ***Cryptococcus neoformans***. Unlike most fungi, *Cryptococcus* is a monomorphic yeast [1] (not dimorphic) that possesses a thick **polysaccharide capsule**, which is its primary virulence factor. This capsule is visualized using **India Ink** (negative staining) and is the basis for the Cryptococcal Antigen (CrAg) test. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Broad-based, budding yeasts:** This describes ***Blastomyces dermatitidis***. While it causes fungal pneumonia and can disseminate, it is typically seen in specific geographic regions (e.g., Great Lakes) and lacks the prominent capsule seen in *Cryptococcus*. * **B. Budding yeasts in a pseudohyphae:** This describes ***Candida albicans***. While *Candida* can cause systemic infection, it typically presents as thrush or esophagitis in AIDS patients [1]; it does not have a polysaccharide capsule. * **C. Cylindrical arthroconidia:** This describes ***Coccidioides immitis***. In tissue, it forms spherules containing endospores; arthroconidia are the infectious form found in the environment/soil. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Diagnosis:** The most sensitive screening test is the **Cryptococcal Antigen (CrAg)** in CSF or serum (Latex agglutination). India Ink is classic but less sensitive (~50-80%). * **CSF Findings:** Characteristically shows **low WBC count** (minimal inflammation) and high opening pressure. * **Treatment:** Induction with **Amphotericin B + Flucytosine**, followed by maintenance therapy with **Fluconazole**. * **Pathology:** On H&E stain, it shows "soap bubble" lesions in the brain parenchyma (Virchow-Robin spaces). Mucicarmine or PAS stains can be used to highlight the capsule.
Question 310: Which of the following statements about HIV is incorrect?
- A. PML is caused by JC virus.
- B. CNS lymphoma is the most common CNS tumor.
- C. CMV is the most common cause of retinitis.
- D. The most common cause of seizures in HIV patients is Candida. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: The correct answer is **D** because it is a false statement. In HIV-infected patients, **Toxoplasmosis** (caused by *Toxoplasma gondii*) is the most common cause of focal brain lesions and seizures [1]. **Candida** typically causes mucosal infections (oral thrush or esophagitis) but is an extremely rare cause of CNS pathology or seizures in HIV patients [2]. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. PML is caused by JC virus:** This is **correct**. Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) is a demyelinating disease caused by the reactivation of the JC polyomavirus, typically occurring when CD4 counts fall below 200 cells/mm³. It presents with non-enhancing white matter lesions on MRI. * **B. CNS lymphoma is the most common CNS tumor:** This is **correct**. Primary CNS Lymphoma (PCNSL) is the most frequent malignancy of the CNS in AIDS patients. It is strongly associated with the **Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)** [1]. * **C. CMV is the most common cause of retinitis:** This is **correct**. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis is the leading cause of blindness in AIDS patients, usually occurring when the CD4 count is <50 cells/mm³. It classically presents with a "pizza-pie" appearance (hemorrhage and exudates) on fundoscopy. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common CNS mass lesion:** Toxoplasmosis (shows ring-enhancing lesions on CT/MRI) [1]. * **Most common cause of meningitis:** *Cryptococcus neoformans* (diagnosed via India Ink or CrAg test). * **Differentiating Toxoplasmosis vs. Lymphoma:** Toxoplasmosis lesions are usually multiple and respond to pyrimethamine/sulfadiazine; Lymphoma is often a single lesion and EBV DNA positive in CSF [1]. * **Drug of choice for Toxoplasmosis:** Pyrimethamine + Sulfadiazine + Folinic acid [1].
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Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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Fever of Unknown Origin
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HIV/AIDS and Related Infections
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Tuberculosis and Mycobacterial Diseases
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Tropical and Parasitic Infections
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Viral Infections (Hepatitis, Herpes, etc.)
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Healthcare-Associated Infections
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Fungal Infections
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Sepsis and Septic Shock
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Infection in Immunocompromised Hosts
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Emerging and Re-emerging Infections
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Antimicrobial Resistance
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Vaccination Principles
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