Critical Care — MCQs
On this page
What is the maximum possible score in the APACHE II scoring system?
Which of the following statements is true or false regarding the CPR technique? 1. Can be given irrespective of rib fracture. 2. An adult chest compression : breath remains 30 : 2 and does not change to 15 : 2 even if 2nd rescuer present. 3. In infants ratio change from 30 : 2 to 15 : 2 when 2nd rescuer arrives. 4. Chest compression at rate of 100 - 120 / min on adults and 90 per minute in infants.
Which of the following is the best method to assess the adequacy of fluid replacement?
A patient presents to the ER after an RTA. What is the best way to differentiate cardiac tamponade from tension pneumothorax?
When resuscitating a patient in shock which of the following is not an adequate parameter to predict end point of resuscitation?
False about neurogenic shock
Best solution to be used in hypovolemic shock is:
A patient in shock comes to you in the trauma ward. You examine him and decide not to give him vasoconstrictors. Which type of shock is your patient having?
In a post-burn patient, which of the following is true?
A patient aged 24 years is said to have 'severe hypothermia' requiring intensive care management, if his core body temperature is-
Critical Care Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: What is the maximum possible score in the APACHE II scoring system?
- A. 71 (Correct Answer)
- B. 61
- C. 41
- D. 51
Explanation: ***71*** - The **APACHE II (Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II)** scoring system includes 12 physiological variables, age, and chronic health status. - Each physiological variable can contribute a maximum of 4 points, age up to 6 points, and chronic health conditions up to 5 points. The sum results in a maximum possible score of **71** (12 × 4 + 6 + 5 = 48 + 6 + 5 = 71). *61* - This score is lower than the actual maximum possible score, which accounts for optimal scoring across all components including physiological variables, age, and chronic health. - A score of 61 would imply lower maximum points for some components or fewer components overall than the APACHE II system utilizes. *41* - This score is significantly less than the maximum possible score for APACHE II and does not reflect the full range of points achievable across its various physiological and non-physiological parameters. - Obtaining a score of 41 would mean that a patient is critically ill, but not at the highest level of severity as defined by the system's maximum score. *51* - While 51 represents a very high and severe score in the APACHE II system, it is not the theoretical maximum. - The calculation considers 12 physiological parameters (each max 4 points), an age component (max 6 points), and a chronic health component (max 5 points), leading to a sum greater than 51.
Question 102: Which of the following statements is true or false regarding the CPR technique? 1. Can be given irrespective of rib fracture. 2. An adult chest compression : breath remains 30 : 2 and does not change to 15 : 2 even if 2nd rescuer present. 3. In infants ratio change from 30 : 2 to 15 : 2 when 2nd rescuer arrives. 4. Chest compression at rate of 100 - 120 / min on adults and 90 per minute in infants.
- A. a, b are true & c, d are false
- B. a, c, d are true & b is false
- C. a is false and b, c, d are true
- D. b, c are true & a, d are false (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***b, c are true & a, d are false*** - Statement 'b' is true because the **compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR remains 30:2** regardless of the number of rescuers, focusing on minimal interruptions to chest compressions [1]. - Statement 'c' is true as the ratio for infant CPR changes from **30:2 for a single rescuer to 15:2 with two rescuers** to improve ventilation effectiveness in a smaller patient. *a, b are true & c, d are false* - Statement 'a' is false because **rib fractures are a known complication of CPR** and should be managed, but CPR should still be administered to save a life, even if fractures occur. - Statement 'd' is false because the recommended **chest compression rate for both adults and infants is 100-120 compressions per minute**, not 90 per minute for infants [1]. *a, c, d are true & b is false* - Statement 'a' is false; although rib fractures can occur during CPR, it's not a reason to withhold compressions. - Statement 'd' is false; the chest compression rate for infants is the same as adults, **100-120 compressions per minute** [1]. *a is false and b, c, d are true* - Statement 'a' is false because chest compressions should still be performed even if rib fractures are suspected or occur during CPR, as the priority is life-saving circulation. - Statement 'd' is false as the **recommended compression rate for infants is 100-120 per minute**, consistent with adult guidelines, not 90 per minute [1].
Question 103: Which of the following is the best method to assess the adequacy of fluid replacement?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Decrease in thirst
- C. Increased PaO2
- D. Increase in urine output (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increase in urine output*** - An **increasing urine output** (typically above 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr in adults) is a reliable indicator that **renal perfusion** is improving and the body's fluid status is normalizing, especially in hypovolemic states. - This reflects restored **circulating volume** and adequate **organ perfusion**, which is the primary goal of fluid replacement. *Blood pressure* - While an increase in **blood pressure** can indicate improved fluid status, it is a relatively late and often conserved compensatory mechanism; the body can maintain blood pressure even with significant fluid deficits. - Blood pressure can be influenced by many factors other than fluid status, such as **vasoactive medications** or underlying cardiac conditions, making it less specific than urine output. *Decrease in thirst* - A decrease in thirst might indicate subjective improvement, but it is a **subjective symptom** and not an objective, quantifiable measure of adequate fluid replacement or organ perfusion [1]. - Thirst can be influenced by psychological factors and may not accurately reflect the body's true **hydration status** or the adequacy of fluid resuscitation, especially in critically ill patients [2]. *Increased PaO2* - An increase in **PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood)** primarily reflects improved oxygenation and ventilation, not necessarily the adequacy of fluid replacement. - While severe hypovolemia can compromise tissue oxygen delivery, an increase in PaO2 alone is not a direct or primary indicator of successful volume resuscitation; it's more specific to **respiratory function**.
Question 104: A patient presents to the ER after an RTA. What is the best way to differentiate cardiac tamponade from tension pneumothorax?
- A. Raised JVP
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Tracheal shift
- D. Presence of breath sounds (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Presence of breath sounds** - In **tension pneumothorax**, breath sounds will be **absent** or severely diminished on the affected side due to lung collapse and air trapping. - In **cardiac tamponade**, breath sounds will typically be **present and symmetrical** as lung function is not directly impaired. *Raised JVP* - Both **cardiac tamponade** and **tension pneumothorax** can cause a **raised JVP** due to impaired venous return to the heart [1]. - Therefore, raised JVP on its own is **not a differentiating factor** between these two conditions. *Increased heart rate* - **Tachycardia** is a common compensatory mechanism in both **cardiac tamponade** and **tension pneumothorax** due to decreased cardiac output and hypovolemia/shock. - This symptom will not help distinguish between the two emergencies. *Tracheal shift* - **Tracheal deviation away** from the affected side is a classic, but often late, sign of **tension pneumothorax** as the mediastinum is pushed by the accumulating air. - **Cardiac tamponade** typically does **not cause tracheal shift**, as the pressure is localized to the pericardium and does not directly displace the trachea.
Question 105: When resuscitating a patient in shock which of the following is not an adequate parameter to predict end point of resuscitation?
- A. Mixed venous oxygen saturation
- B. Base deficit
- C. Lactate
- D. Blood pressure (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Blood pressure*** - While essential for initial assessment and guiding treatment, **blood pressure** can be maintained within normal limits even in significant shock states due to compensatory mechanisms [1]. - Blood pressure alone does not reflect **tissue perfusion** or cellular oxygenation, which are the true endpoints of resuscitation [1]. *Mixed venous oxygen saturation* - **Mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2)** reflects the balance between oxygen delivery and consumption, providing insight into global tissue oxygenation. - A low SvO2 indicates inadequate oxygen delivery relative to demand, making it a valuable target for guiding resuscitation. *Base deficit* - **Base deficit** is a measure of metabolic acidosis and reflects the severity of tissue hypoperfusion and anaerobic metabolism. - Normalization of base deficit indicates correction of metabolic derangements and improved tissue perfusion. *Lactate* - **Lactate** is a product of anaerobic metabolism, which occurs when tissues are not adequately perfused or oxygenated. - Elevated lactate levels indicate tissue hypoperfusion, and serial measurements are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of resuscitation and predicting outcomes.
Question 106: False about neurogenic shock
- A. Raised JVP (Correct Answer)
- B. Decreased cardiac output
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypotension
Explanation: ***Raised JVP*** - In neurogenic shock, **venous capacitance increases** due to loss of sympathetic tone, leading to **venous pooling in the periphery** and a **decreased central venous pressure** and JVP, not a raised JVP. - A raised JVP usually indicates **fluid overload** or **right heart failure**, which are not primary features of neurogenic shock. *Decreased cardiac output* - The **loss of sympathetic tone** in neurogenic shock leads to widespread vasodilation, which **decreases venous return** and subsequently **reduces preload** [1]. - A decrease in preload directly results in a **reduced stroke volume** and thus a **decreased cardiac output**. *Bradycardia* - Neurogenic shock often results from high spinal cord injury, which **disrupts sympathetic innervation** to the heart while leaving **parasympathetic innervation intact**. - This imbalance causes unopposed vagal activity, leading to **bradycardia** [1]. *Hypotension* - The primary mechanism of hypotension in neurogenic shock is **widespread peripheral vasodilation** due to the loss of **sympathetic vasomotor tone**. - This vasodilation leads to a **significant drop in systemic vascular resistance (SVR)**, causing severe hypotension [1].
Question 107: Best solution to be used in hypovolemic shock is:
- A. Ringer's Lactate solution. (Correct Answer)
- B. Darrow's solution.
- C. 5% dextrose.
- D. 0.9% Nacl.
Explanation: ***Ringer's Lactate solution*** - This **isotonic crystalloid solution** is commonly used in hypovolemic shock because its electrolyte composition is similar to that of human plasma. [2] - The **lactate** component is metabolized by the liver to bicarbonate, which helps to buffer acidosis often associated with shock. [2] *Darrow's solution* - Darrow's solution is a **hypertonic solution** containing high concentrations of potassium, primarily used for severe dehydration and significant potassium deficits, not initial fluid resuscitation in hypovolemic shock. - Its high potassium content can be dangerous in patients with **renal impairment** or who are already hyperkalemic. *5% dextrose* - **5% dextrose in water (D5W)** is an initially isotonic solution, but the dextrose is quickly metabolized, making it effectively a hypotonic solution. [2] - It is primarily used to provide **free water** and is not effective for volume expansion in hypovolemic shock as it does not stay in the intravascular space. [2] *0.9% Nacl* - **0.9% normal saline** is an isotonic crystalloid often used for volume resuscitation but has a higher chloride content than plasma, which can lead to **hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis** with large volumes. [1], [2] - While it expands the intravascular space, Ringer's Lactate is often preferred in situations of significant blood loss or acidosis due to its more balanced electrolyte profile and buffering capacity. [2]
Question 108: A patient in shock comes to you in the trauma ward. You examine him and decide not to give him vasoconstrictors. Which type of shock is your patient having?
- A. Cardiogenic shock
- B. Distributive shock (Correct Answer)
- C. Neurogenic shock
- D. Hemorrhagic shock
Explanation: ***Distributive shock*** - Distributive shock, particularly **septic shock**, often presents with **peripheral vasodilation** and a low systemic vascular resistance. - Administering additional **vasoconstrictors** in this context could worsen tissue perfusion if not carefully titrated, as the primary issue is maldistribution of blood flow rather than inadequate vascular tone alone. *Cardiogenic shock* - In **cardiogenic shock**, there is **myocardial dysfunction** leading to decreased cardiac output. - **Vasoconstrictors** may be used cautiously to maintain systemic perfusion pressure and improve coronary perfusion, although inotropes are often prioritized. *Neurogenic shock* - **Neurogenic shock** is a form of distributive shock caused by the **loss of sympathetic tone** due to spinal cord injury, leading to widespread vasodilation [1]. - **Vasoconstrictors** are a primary treatment in neurogenic shock to restore vascular tone and increase blood pressure [1]. *Hemorrhagic shock* - **Hemorrhagic shock** results from **significant blood loss**, leading to decreased circulating volume and reduced cardiac output. - The immediate priority is **fluid resuscitation** and **stopping the bleeding**, but vasoconstrictors are not typically the primary treatment and can worsen perfusion in some vascular beds [1].
Question 109: In a post-burn patient, which of the following is true?
- A. Hypokalemic alkalosis
- B. Hyperkalemic alkalosis
- C. Hypokalemic acidosis
- D. Hyperkalemic acidosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ### Hyperkalemic acidosis - **Massive cell destruction** in severe burns leads to the release of intracellular potassium, causing **hyperkalemia** [1]. - **Metabolic acidosis** often results from tissue hypoperfusion, anaerobic metabolism, and accumulation of lactic acid due to shock and organ dysfunction [1]. *Hypokalemic alkalosis* - This condition is characterized by **low potassium levels** and **elevated pH**, which are not typical early responses to severe burns. - Would more likely be seen with significant **gastrointestinal losses** or certain diuretic use. *Hyperkalemic alkalosis* - While hyperkalemia can occur, the burn injury process typically leads to **acidosis** rather than alkalosis due to tissue damage and hypoperfusion. - This combination is generally contradictory as **severe hyperkalemia** is often accompanied by acidosis. *Hypokalemic acidosis* - **Hypokalemia** is not an immediate finding in severe burns; instead, **hyperkalemia** is expected due to cellular lysis. - Although **acidosis** is common, the potassium derangement described here is inconsistent with acute burn pathophysiology.
Question 110: A patient aged 24 years is said to have 'severe hypothermia' requiring intensive care management, if his core body temperature is-
- A. <25degC
- B. <28degC (Correct Answer)
- C. <32degC
- D. <35degC
Explanation: ***<28degC*** - Core body temperatures falling below **28°C** are classified as severe hypothermia, as per most clinical guidelines [1], [2]. - This level of hypothermia requires **intensive care management** due to the high risk of severe complications like **cardiac arrhythmias**, especially **ventricular fibrillation** [2]. *<25degC* - While a core temperature of less than **25°C** is certainly a critical medical emergency, it falls under the category of **profound hypothermia**, which is even more severe than general severe hypothermia. - At this temperature, the risk of **cardiac arrest** and multi-organ failure is exceptionally high, and it represents an extreme rather than the general threshold for severe. *<32degC* - A core body temperature between **28°C and 32°C** is classified as **moderate hypothermia** [2]. - While requiring medical attention and monitoring, it is generally not deemed "severe" enough to immediately necessitate the same level of intensive critical care intervention as temperatures below 28°C. *<35degC* - A core body temperature between **32°C and 35°C** is classified as **mild hypothermia**. - At this stage, the body's compensatory mechanisms are often still active, and initial management typically involves passive or active external rewarming, without immediate intensive care.
Practice by Chapter
Shock Syndromes and Management
Practice Questions
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Practice Questions
Mechanical Ventilation Principles
Practice Questions
Hemodynamic Monitoring
Practice Questions
Nutrition in Critical Illness
Practice Questions
Sedation and Analgesia in ICU
Practice Questions
Multi-organ Dysfunction Syndrome
Practice Questions
Acid-Base and Electrolyte Disturbances
Practice Questions
Toxicologic Emergencies
Practice Questions
Neurological Emergencies in ICU
Practice Questions
Renal Replacement Therapy
Practice Questions
End-of-Life Care in ICU
Practice Questions
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free