Clinical Manifestations and Presentation of Diseases — MCQs

A 17-year-old woman with no comorbidities presents with numbness and paraesthesia of the fingers along with the characteristic finding as shown in the image below. She has no history of smoking or history of other illnesses. She mentions the episodes occur when she is under excess stress or during cold temperatures. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Q57

A patient on long-term hydrochlorothiazide therapy presents with features of neuropathy, heart failure, and symmetrical tingling sensations. Which of the following nutrient deficiencies is most likely responsible?

Q58

Which is correct about the sign shown?

Q59

Which of the following will best describe this patient?

Q60

A specific clinical sign is characterized by spasm of hand muscles upon inflating a blood pressure cuff. What is this sign called?

Clinical Manifestations and Presentation of Diseases Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 51: What is the level of serum potassium at which paralysis is a possible complication of hypokalemia?

A. 2.0 mEq/L
B. 2.5 mEq/L (Correct Answer)
C. 3.0 mEq/L
D. 3.5 mEq/L

Explanation: Explanation: Hypokalemia is defined as a serum potassium level <3.5 mEq/L. The clinical manifestations of hypokalemia correlate directly with the severity of the depletion and the rate of decline. 1. Why 2.5 mEq/L is the correct answer: Muscular manifestations typically begin when serum potassium falls below 3.0 mEq/L (causing weakness and fatigue). However, frank paralysis (ascending flaccid paralysis) and rhabdomyolysis are classic complications seen when levels drop to ≤2.5 mEq/L. At this critical level, the resting membrane potential of myocytes becomes severely hyperpolarized, impairing the ability of muscles to contract [1] and leading to profound muscle necrosis and respiratory failure. 2. Analysis of Incorrect Options: * 3.5 mEq/L: This is the lower limit of normal. Patients are usually asymptomatic. * 3.0 mEq/L: At this level (mild-to-moderate hypokalemia), patients typically experience generalized muscle weakness, myalgia, and constipation (due to ileus), but not overt paralysis [1]. * 2.0 mEq/L: While paralysis certainly occurs at this level, 2.5 mEq/L is the clinically recognized threshold where this life-threatening complication first becomes a significant risk. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG: * ECG Changes: Look for T-wave flattening, prominent U-waves, ST-segment depression, and prolonged QU intervals. * Muscle Involvement: Hypokalemia causes ascending paralysis (similar to GBS) but spares the cranial nerves. * Refractory Hypokalemia: If potassium levels do not rise despite supplementation, check Magnesium levels [1]. Hypomagnesemia inhibits ROMK channels, leading to continued potassium wasting in the urine. * Common Cause: In India, look for a history of chronic diarrhea or diuretic use (Thiazides/Loop diuretics).

Question 52: Which of the following statements about syncope is false?

A. Another term for fainting
B. Is transient reversible loss of consciousness
C. Caused by altered circulation
D. None of the above (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** Syncope is a clinical syndrome characterized by a **transient, self-limited loss of consciousness (TLOC)** and postural tone [1]. The underlying pathophysiology is a period of **temporary cerebral hypoperfusion** [1]. * **Option A is true:** "Fainting" is the common layperson's term for syncope. In medical terminology, they are synonymous. * **Option B is true:** By definition, syncope must be transient and reversible [2]. The onset is usually rapid, the duration is short (typically seconds to a few minutes), and recovery is spontaneous and complete without the need for electrical or chemical cardioversion [2], [3]. * **Option C is true:** The root cause of syncope is "altered circulation"—specifically, a sudden drop in systemic blood pressure that leads to a critical decrease in cerebral blood flow [1]. This can be due to neural mediation (vasovagal), orthostatic hypotension, or cardiac causes (arrhythmias or structural disease) [2]. Since all the provided statements (A, B, and C) accurately describe syncope, **Option D (None of the above)** is the correct choice. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Pathophysiology:** A cessation of cerebral blood flow for merely **6–8 seconds** or a systolic BP drop to **<60 mmHg** is sufficient to cause syncope. * **Red Flags:** Syncope occurring during exertion, while supine, or associated with palpitations/chest pain suggests a **cardiac etiology** (higher mortality) [2]. * **Vasovagal Syncope:** The most common type, often preceded by a prodrome (nausea, pallor, diaphoresis) [2]. * **Differential Diagnosis:** Always distinguish syncope from seizures (post-ictal state present) and vertigo (no loss of consciousness) [3].

Question 53: What is the most likely diagnosis in this 50-year-old woman?

A. Metastasis (Correct Answer)
B. Onychomycosis
C. Psoriasis
D. Thromboangiitis obliterans

Explanation: ***Metastasis*** - **Subungual metastasis** in a 50-year-old woman often presents as a **pigmented nail lesion** or **nail dystrophy**, commonly from **breast**, **lung**, or **melanoma** primaries. - The **acral location** and patient's age group make metastatic disease more likely than benign conditions, requiring urgent **biopsy** for diagnosis. *Onychomycosis* - Fungal nail infections typically cause **yellow-white discoloration** and **nail thickening** starting from the distal edge. - Usually affects **multiple nails** and responds to **KOH testing** showing fungal elements, unlike the presentation of metastasis. *Psoriasis* - Nail psoriasis presents with **nail pitting**, **oil drop sign**, and **onycholysis** (nail separation from bed). - Often associated with **skin plaques** and **joint involvement**, which would be evident on examination. *Thromboangiitis obliterans* - **Buerger's disease** primarily affects **young male smoers** and involves **digital ischemia** and **ulceration**. - Presents with **claudication**, **Raynaud's phenomenon**, and **gangrene** rather than isolated nail changes.

Question 54: What is the most likely diagnosis in this 50-year-old woman?

A. Metastasis (Correct Answer)
B. Onychomycosis
C. Psoriasis
D. Thromboangiitis obliterans

Explanation: ***Metastasis*** - **Subungual metastases** in a 50-year-old woman often present as **nail bed destruction** with rapid progression and **digital pain**. - Common primary sites include **lung**, **breast**, and **melanoma**, which can metastasize to the nail bed causing characteristic **nail dystrophy**. *Onychomycosis* - Typically presents with **gradual thickening** and **yellow-brown discoloration** of the nail, not rapid destruction. - Usually affects **multiple nails** and responds to **antifungal therapy**, unlike metastatic lesions. *Psoriasis* - Nail psoriasis shows characteristic **pitting**, **oil spots**, and **onycholysis** with well-defined borders. - Often associated with **skin plaques** and **joint involvement** rather than destructive nail bed lesions. *Thromboangiitis obliterans* - Primarily affects **young male smoers** and causes **digital ischemia** and **gangrene**. - Presents with **claudication** and **ulcerations** rather than isolated nail bed destruction in middle-aged women.

Question 55: What nutritional deficiency is commonly associated with a chronic alcoholic presenting with a pruritic, eczematous rash on the neck and dorsum of the hands?

A. Vit D
B. Vit C
C. Vit B3 (Correct Answer)
D. Vit B1

Explanation: ***Vit B3*** - This presentation is classic for **pellagra**, the syndrome caused by **niacin (Vitamin B3)** deficiency, characterized by the 3 Ds: **Dermatitis**, **Diarrhea**, and **Dementia** [1], [2]. - The described **pruritic, eczematous rash** on sun-exposed areas (neck, hands, often called Casal's necklace if circumferential on the neck) is the typical **photosensitive dermatitis** associated with pellagra [1], [2]. *Vit B1* - Deficiency in **thiamine (B1)** causes **Beriberi** or **Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome**, which primarily affects the nervous and cardiovascular systems [3], [4]. - Clinical features include **ataxia**, **ophthalmoplegia**, and high-output heart failure, but not this characteristic eczematous rash [3], [4]. *Vit D* - Deficiency leads to defective bone mineralization, causing **Rickets** in children and **Osteomalacia** in adults (resulting in bone pain and fractures). - While common in alcoholics, **Vitamin D** deficiency is not the cause of the specific, widespread, photosensitive eczematous rash described. *Vit C* - **Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)** deficiency causes **Scurvy**, which presents with symptoms related to impaired collagen synthesis. - Hallmark features include **gingival bleeding**, **perifollicular hemorrhages**, and **impaired wound healing**, without the specific photosensitive dermatitis seen in pellagra.

Question 56: A 17-year-old woman with no comorbidities presents with numbness and paraesthesia of the fingers along with the characteristic finding as shown in the image below. She has no history of smoking or history of other illnesses. She mentions the episodes occur when she is under excess stress or during cold temperatures. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. b. Buerger's disease
B. c. Atherosclerosis
C. d. Peripheral arterial disease
D. a. Raynaud's phenomenon (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Raynaud's phenomenon*** (Keep the correct option at the top and the incorrect options in the order they are provided in the input) - The clinical picture of episodic digital **numbness**, paraesthesia, and color changes specifically triggered by **cold temperatures** or **stress** is pathognomonic for Raynaud's phenomenon. - Given the patient's young age (17) and lack of underlying illness (no comorbidities), this is strongly suggestive of **Primary Raynaud's phenomenon** (Raynaud's disease). *Buerger's disease* - **Buerger's disease** (Thromboangiitis obliterans) is highly associated with heavy **tobacco use**, which conflicts with the patient's history of no smoking. - This condition involves inflammation and thrombosis of medium and small arteries, typically leading to more severe fixed ischemia, ulcers, and **gangrene**, rather than transient vasospastic episodes. *Atherosclerosis* - **Atherosclerosis** is a fixed obstruction due to plaque buildup and is extremely rare in a healthy, young 17-year-old patient. - When present, it causes symptoms like **intermittent claudication** or rest pain, which are constant and exertional, unlike the acute, episodic nature of vasospasm. *Peripheral arterial disease* - **Peripheral arterial disease (PAD)** typically refers to occlusive disease (often atherosclerotic) that leads to reduced blood flow, causing symptoms that worsen with **exertion**. - Unlike Raynaud's, PAD does not typically cause acute, reversible, triphasic color changes in response to **cold** or emotional stress.

Question 57: A patient on long-term hydrochlorothiazide therapy presents with features of neuropathy, heart failure, and symmetrical tingling sensations. Which of the following nutrient deficiencies is most likely responsible?

A. Thiamine (Correct Answer)
B. Vitamin B12
C. Zinc
D. Selenium

Explanation: Thiamine - The combination of **neuropathy** (symmetrical tingling sensations) and **heart failure** (cardiomyopathy) is the classic manifestation of **Beriberi**, caused by Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency [1]. - **Wet Beriberi** causes high-output **cardiac failure**, while **Dry Beriberi** is responsible for **symmetrical peripheral neuropathy** [1]. *Selenium* - Selenium deficiency causes **Keshan disease**, which is characterized by **cardiomyopathy**, but the simultaneous presentation of specific symmetrical peripheral neuropathy is less common. - Deficiency can also lead to muscle pain and weakness, but often does not perfectly match this triad. *Vitamin B12* - Deficiency causes **Subacute Combined Degeneration** (neuropathy and myelopathy) and **megaloblastic anemia**, but severe acute heart failure is not a defining feature. - Neuropathy typically involves a mix of sensory, motor, and central nervous system signs, but the heart failure component is missing. *Zinc* - Zinc deficiency primarily causes **acrodermatitis enteropathica** (dermatitis), impaired wound healing, and immune dysfunction. - It is not a common cause of either **heart failure** or widespread peripheral neuropathy.

Question 58: Which is correct about the sign shown?

A. Hypokalemia (Correct Answer)
B. Hypomagnesemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypophosphatemia

Explanation: ***Hypokalemia*** - The image depicts **tetany** which is a state of sustained muscle contraction often characterized by carpal spasms, known as **Trousseau's sign** or **obstetrician's hand**. This can be caused by severe hypokalemia. - While hypocalcemia is a classic cause of tetany, severe **hypokalemia** can also lead to muscle weakness, paralysis, and tetany due to its impact on muscle membrane excitability. *Hypomagnesemia* - **Hypomagnesemia** can cause tetany and muscle spasms, often mimicking hypocalcemia, as magnesium plays a role in calcium regulation so it can be a co-factor - However, the image alone does not provide enough specific clinical context to definitively differentiate hypomagnesemia from other electrolyte imbalances leading to tetany and the listed options include hypokalemia which is a more classic cause related to the appearance of weakness and spasm. *Hyponatremia* - **Hyponatremia** primarily affects neurological function, leading to symptoms like confusion, seizures, and coma due to **cerebral edema**. - It does not typically cause tetany or carpal spasms of this nature; muscle weakness or cramps might occur but not the sustained contraction shown. *Hypophosphatemia* - **Hypophosphatemia** can cause muscle weakness, respiratory failure, and neurological symptoms like confusion and seizures. - While severe cases can lead to various neuromuscular issues, **tetany** in the form of carpal spasm is not a typical or direct manifestation of isolated hypophosphatemia.

Question 59: Which of the following will best describe this patient?

A. Fever, weight loss, night sweats and elevated ESR (Correct Answer)
B. Rusty sputum with gram positive diplococci
C. Acute dyspnea, elevated JVP and long history of air travel
D. Acute dyspnea, pink frothy sputum and mid-diastolic rumble

Explanation: ***Fever, weight loss, night sweats and elevated ESR*** - The CT scan shows numerous **small, diffuse nodules** throughout both lung fields, consistent with **miliary tuberculosis (TB)**. - The systemic symptoms of **fever, weight loss, night sweats**, and an **elevated ESR** are classic constitutional symptoms of disseminated TB. *Rusty sputum with gram positive diplococci* - This description is characteristic of **Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcal pneumonia)**. - Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with lobar consolidation on imaging, not diffuse miliary nodules. *Acute dyspnea, elevated JVP and long history of air travel* - This constellation of symptoms (acute dyspnea, elevated JVP) and risk factor (long history of air travel) strongly suggests **pulmonary embolism (PE)**. - Imaging findings for PE would typically include a filling defect in the pulmonary arteries, rather than diffuse nodularity. *Acute dyspnea, pink frothy sputum and mid-diastolic rumble* - These symptoms point towards **left-sided heart failure (acute pulmonary edema)**, often associated with **mitral stenosis** (suggested by the mid-diastolic rumble). - Pulmonary edema on CT would show ground-glass opacities, septal thickening, and pleural effusions, not diffuse nodular infiltrates.

Question 60: A specific clinical sign is characterized by spasm of hand muscles upon inflating a blood pressure cuff. What is this sign called?

A. Chvostek sign
B. Kernig sign
C. Trousseau sign (Correct Answer)
D. Babinski sign

Explanation: ***Trousseau sign*** - This sign is characterized by the induction of **carpal spasm** (flexion of the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, extension of the interphalangeal joints, and adduction of the thumb) by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for 3-5 minutes. - It is a classic clinical sign of **hypocalcemia**, indicating increased neuromuscular irritability. *Chvostek sign* - This sign involves twitching of the **facial muscles** elicited by tapping on the facial nerve just anterior to the ear. - It is also a clinical sign of **hypocalcemia** but affects facial nerves rather than hand muscles. *Kernig sign* - This sign is a diagnostic maneuver for **meningitis** or **subarachnoid hemorrhage**. - It involves pain and resistance to extension of the knee when the patient's hip is flexed to 90 degrees. *Babinski sign* - This sign is an indicator of **upper motor neuron lesion** or damage to the **corticospinal tract**. - It involves dorsiflexion of the great toe and fanning of the other toes when the sole of the foot is firmly stroked.

Practice by Chapter

Approach to Common Symptoms (Fever, Pain, Fatigue)

Practice Questions

Constitutional Symptoms and Their Differential Diagnosis

Practice Questions

Syncope and Presyncope

Practice Questions

Dizziness and Vertigo

Practice Questions

Dyspnea and Respiratory Distress

Practice Questions

Chest Pain Evaluation

Practice Questions

Abdominal Pain Assessment

Practice Questions

Headache Classification and Management

Practice Questions

Weight Loss and Cachexia

Practice Questions

Edema and Fluid Retention

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free