Clinical Manifestations and Presentation of Diseases Practice Questions

Q: In a patient there is dyspnea in upright position which is relieved in supine position, Diagnosis ?

Platypnea. ***Platypnea*** - **Platypnea** is defined as **dyspnea that worsens in an upright position** and improves when lying down. - This condition is often associated with **hepatopulmonary syndrome**, **intracardiac shunts** (e.g., patent foramen ovale), or **pulmonary arteriovenous malformations**, where gravity affects blood flow and gas exchange. *Tachypnea* - **Tachypnea** refers to an **abnormally rapid rate of breathing**. - It describes the *rate* of respiration, not its variation with body position. *Orthopnea* - **Orthopnea** is **dyspnea that occurs when lying flat** and is relieved by sitting or standing up [1]. - It is often seen in conditions like **heart failure**, where fluid redistribution to the lungs is exacerbated in the supine position [2]. *Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea* - **Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)** is characterized by **sudden, severe shortness of breath at night** that awakens the person from sleep [2]. - It is typically caused by **left-sided heart failure** and is relieved by sitting upright or standing, which is the opposite of the described scenario.

Q: In which condition is Serum Amyloid Associated (SAA) protein most commonly found?

Chronic inflammatory states. ***Chronic inflammatory states*** [1][2] - Serum amyloid-associated protein is elevated in response to **chronic inflammation**, such as in rheumatic diseases and infections [1][2]. - It serves as a **biomarker** indicating systemic inflammation and is part of the **acute-phase response** [1]. *Chronic renal failure* - While renal failure can lead to amyloidosis, it is not a direct cause of serum amyloid-associated protein elevation. - **Renal impairment** is more associated with a decrease in clearance rather than production of amyloid proteins. *Alzheimer's disease* - Although amyloid plaques are a hallmark of Alzheimer's, they are related to **A-beta peptide**, not serum amyloid-associated protein. - Alzheimer's pathology primarily involves **neurodegeneration** rather than inflammatory response. *Malignant hypertension* - Malignant hypertension primarily affects the **vascular system** and does not directly involve the production of serum amyloid-associated protein. - It is characterized by end-organ damage, rather than a state of chronic inflammation. *Chronic inflammatory conditions like RA, TB & leprosy, osteomyelitis, ankylosing spondylitis, IBD, bronchiectasis, some tumors* [1][2] - While these conditions can be associated with systemic inflammation, they are too specific and do not comprehensively encompass the broader concept of **chronic inflammatory states**. - This option fails to highlight that serum amyloid-associated protein is a marker for **various chronic inflammatory states** beyond just those listed [1].

Q: What will the aspirated synovial fluid in a case of septic arthritis typically show?

Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes. ***Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes*** - **Septic arthritis** is characterized by an acute infection within the joint, leading to a profound inflammatory response with a significant influx of **neutrophils** (polymorphonuclear leukocytes) into the synovial fluid. - A synovial leukocyte count greater than **50,000 cells/mm³** with over **75% neutrophils** is highly suggestive of septic arthritis. *Clear and straw-colored fluid* - This description typically corresponds to **normal synovial fluid** or fluid from a mild **non-inflammatory condition**, which is not consistent with bacterial infection. - Normal synovial fluid is usually **transparent**, indicating the absence of significant cellular debris or inflammatory cells. *Low viscosity fluid* - While septic synovial fluid can have reduced viscosity due to the breakdown of **hyaluronic acid** by bacterial enzymes and inflammatory mediators, this characteristic alone is not the most definitive diagnostic feature. - Reduced viscosity is also observed in other inflammatory conditions, making it less specific than direct cellular analysis for diagnosing infection. *Cloudy or purulent fluid* - The presence of **cloudy** or **purulent (pus-like)** fluid *is* often seen in septic arthritis, reflecting the high cell count and protein content. - However, this is a **gross visual observation**, and a more precise and diagnostic indicator is the microscopic finding of markedly increased **polymorphonuclear leukocytes**.

Q: Match stick test is positive in ?

Leprosy. ***Leprosy*** - The **matchstick test** is a simple neurological examination used to detect **nerve damage** in leprosy, specifically **sensory loss** [1]. - A positive test indicates the patient cannot perceive the touch or pain from a matchstick, commonly due to damage to superficial nerves caused by *Mycobacterium leprae* [1]. *Rhinophyma* - This condition is characterized by **sebaceous gland hypertrophy** and **fibrosis** of the nose, often associated with rosacea. - It does not involve nerve damage or sensory loss that would be assessed by a matchstick test. *Rhinoscleroma* - Rhinoscleroma is a **chronic granulomatous bacterial infection** of the upper respiratory tract. - While it causes significant tissue destruction and structural changes, it is not primarily associated with the sensory neuropathies that the matchstick test evaluates. *P. vesticolor* - *Pityriasis versicolor* is a **superficial fungal infection** of the skin, causing discolored patches. - This condition is a dermatological issue and does not involve nerve damage or sensory deficits, making the matchstick test irrelevant.

Q: Lovibond profile sign is seen in ?

Nail clubbing. Nail clubbing - The Lovibond profile sign (Lovibond's angle or profile sign) is a clinical finding where the angle between the nail plate and the proximal nail fold straightens or becomes greater than 180 degrees. - This sign is a key indicator of nail clubbing, which is often associated with underlying systemic conditions such as respiratory or cardiac diseases [1]. Koilonychia (spoon nails) - Koilonychia presents as concave or spoon-shaped nails, where the nail plate is depressed centrally with everted edges [1]. - This condition is typically associated with iron deficiency anemia and does not involve an alteration of the Lovibond angle. Platynochia (flat nails) - Platynochia refers to nails that are unusually flat without the normal convex curvature. - This is a descriptive term for nail shape and is not specifically evaluated by the Lovibond profile sign. Onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed) - Onycholysis is the detachment of the nail plate from the nail bed, usually starting at the distal free edge. - This condition is unrelated to the angle of the nail and the nail fold, which are assessed by the Lovibond profile sign.

Q: Which of the following is a symptom of protein deficiency?

Flaky paint like skin. ***Flaky paint like skin*** - This dermatological manifestation, known as **"flaky paint" dermatosis** or **crazy pavement dermatosis**, is a classic sign of **severe protein-energy malnutrition** (PEM), particularly **kwashiorkor**. - It results from **altered skin keratinization** and **desquamation** due to inadequate protein synthesis, leading to patches of hyperpigmentation and peeling skin that resemble peeling paint. *Glossitis* - **Glossitis**, or inflammation of the tongue, is primarily associated with deficiencies of **B vitamins** (especially B12, folate, niacin, and riboflavin) and **iron deficiency**. - While protein deficiency can broadly affect cell turnover, glossitis is not a primary or specific symptom directly attributable to it. *Nail change* - Various **nail changes** can indicate nutritional deficiencies, but they are more commonly linked to deficiencies in **iron** (e.g., koilonychia or "spoon nails"), **zinc** (e.g., Beau's lines, white spots), or certain **vitamins**. - While chronic malnutrition can impact nail health, there isn't a specific, characteristic nail change solely indicative of protein deficiency. *Cherry like skin* - "Cherry-like skin" is not a recognized dermatological symptom associated with any specific nutritional deficiency in medical literature. - Skin manifestations like **cherry angiomas** are benign vascular proliferations and are generally not linked to nutritional status.

Q: Acute orchitis is characterized by all of the following except:

Decreased blood flow. ***Decreased blood flow*** - **Acute orchitis** is an inflammatory process that typically leads to increased blood flow (hyperemia) to the affected testis due to the inflammatory response. - Decreased blood flow would be more characteristic of conditions like **testicular torsion**, which is an emergent condition causing ischemia. *Increased local temperature* - **Inflammation** is characterized by the classic signs of rubor (redness) and calor (heat), leading to an **increased local temperature** in the affected area. - This is a common finding in acute orchitis due to the inflammatory response. *Erythematous scrotum* - The inflammatory process in orchitis causes **vasodilation** and increased vascular permeability, leading to redness and swelling of the overlying scrotal skin. - An **erythematous scrotum** is a typical clinical sign of acute orchitis. *Raised TLC* - **TLC (Total Leukocyte Count)** is often elevated in cases of acute infection or inflammation, such as orchitis. - A **raised TLC** indicates a systemic inflammatory response to the infection.

Q: What is the primary clinical feature of Henoch-Schonlein purpura?

Skin rash characterized by palpable purpura. ***Skin rash characterized by palpable purpura*** - **Palpable purpura** is the hallmark cutaneous manifestation of **Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)**, a small-vessel vasculitis [1]. - This rash typically appears on the **lower extremities and buttocks**, reflecting the deposition of IgA in vessel walls [1]. *Abdominal pain due to vasculitis* - While **abdominal pain** is a common feature of HSP due to gastrointestinal vasculitis, it is not considered the primary clinical feature [1]. - Gastrointestinal involvement can manifest with pain, bleeding, and intussusception, but the **skin rash** is more consistently present and diagnostic. *Joint pain associated with the condition* - **Arthralgia** or **arthritis** (joint pain) is seen in a significant number of HSP patients, particularly in the knees and ankles. - However, it is a secondary manifestation, and not the **defining primary sign** of the disease. *Kidney involvement in the disease* - **Renal involvement**, presenting as hematuria and proteinuria, occurs in about one-third of HSP cases and can lead to serious long-term complications. - Despite its significance for prognosis, **kidney disease** is a later and not universally present feature, making the rash the most critical initial diagnostic clue.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

Autosomal recessive inheritance. ***High risk of malignancy*** - Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is primarily associated with **benign hamartomatous polyps**, not a **high risk of malignancy**, which distinguishes it from other syndromes. - Although patients may develop cancers [1], the syndrome itself does not inherently denote a high malignancy risk like other syndromes such as familial adenomatous polyposis. *Autosomal dominant* - This syndrome is indeed **autosomal dominant**, caused by mutations in the STK11 gene. - Families with this condition typically show **vertical transmission**, characteristic of autosomal dominant inheritance. *Hamartomatous polyp* - Individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome develop **hamartomatous polyps**, which are a hallmark feature of the condition [1]. - These polyps can occur in the gastrointestinal tract and are benign lesions rather than adenomatous type seen in other syndromes [1]. *Mucocutaneous pigmentation* - Mucocutaneous pigmentation, such as **freckling around the lips and buccal mucosa**, is a key clinical feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. - This pigmentation usually appears in childhood and is often a distinguishing sign of the syndrome.

Q: Which of the following statements about lymphedema precox is false?

More common in men. ***More common in men*** - Lymphedema praecox, also known as **Meige disease**, is significantly more common in **women** than in men. - The female-to-male ratio for lymphedema praecox is approximately **4:1**. *Affects the legs* - **Lymphedema praecox** predominantly affects the **lower extremities**, leading to swelling and discomfort in the legs. - This condition is characterized by **edema** of the ankles and feet, which can progress upwards. *2-35yrs of age* - Lymphedema praecox is defined by its onset, which typically occurs between **puberty and 35 years of age**. - This age range distinguishes it from **congenital lymphedema** (onset before age 2) and lymphedema tarda (onset after age 35). *Typically unilateral (affects one side)* - While lymphedema can eventually become bilateral, it commonly presents as **unilateral swelling** in one leg initially. - Over time, the condition may progress to affect the other limb, but the initial presentation is often **asymmetrical**.

Question 1

In a patient there is dyspnea in upright position which is relieved in supine position, Diagnosis ?

Accepted Answer

Platypnea

Answer

Tachypnea

Answer

Orthopnea

Answer

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

Question 2

In which condition is Serum Amyloid Associated (SAA) protein most commonly found?

Accepted Answer

Chronic inflammatory states

Answer

Alzheimer's disease

Answer

Malignant hypertension

Answer

Chronic renal failure

Answer

Acute myocardial infarction

Question 3

What will the aspirated synovial fluid in a case of septic arthritis typically show?

Accepted Answer

Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes

Answer

Clear and straw-colored fluid

Answer

Low viscosity fluid

Answer

Cloudy or purulent fluid

Question 4

Match stick test is positive in ?

Accepted Answer

Leprosy

Answer

Rhinophyma

Answer

P. versicolor

Answer

Rhinoscleroma

Question 5

Lovibond profile sign is seen in ?

Accepted Answer

Nail clubbing

Answer

Koilonychia (spoon nails)

Answer

Platynochia (flat nails)

Answer

Onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed)

Question 6

Which of the following is a symptom of protein deficiency?

Accepted Answer

Flaky paint like skin

Answer

Cherry like skin

Answer

Glossitis

Answer

Nail change

Question 7

Acute orchitis is characterized by all of the following except:

Accepted Answer

Decreased blood flow

Answer

Increased local temperature

Answer

Erythematous scrotum

Answer

Raised TLC

Question 8

What is the primary clinical feature of Henoch-Schonlein purpura?

Accepted Answer

Skin rash characterized by palpable purpura

Answer

Abdominal pain due to vasculitis

Answer

Joint pain associated with the condition

Answer

Kidney involvement in the disease

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Autosomal recessive inheritance

Answer

Mucocutaneous pigmentation

Answer

Autosomal dominant

Answer

Hamartomatous polyp

Question 10

Which of the following statements about lymphedema precox is false?

Accepted Answer

More common in men

Answer

Affects the legs

Answer

2-35yrs of age

Answer

Typically unilateral (affects one side)

Clinical Manifestations and Presentation of Diseases — MCQs

Clinical Manifestations and Presentation of Diseases — MCQs

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