Cardiology — MCQs

Cardiology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1441: Which of the following is a key component of primary prevention in coronary artery disease?

A. Lipid-lowering therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Anticoagulation
C. Diuretic use
D. Calcium channel blockers

Explanation: ***Lipid-lowering therapy*** - **Statins** and other lipid-lowering agents are crucial for primary prevention by reducing **LDL cholesterol**, a major risk factor for atherosclerosis and **CAD** [1]. - Lowering cholesterol levels can prevent the formation and progression of **atherosclerotic plaques**, thereby reducing the risk of cardiovascular events in individuals without established CAD [2]. *Anticoagulation* - **Anticoagulation** prevents blood clot formation and is generally used in **secondary prevention** for individuals with established vascular disease or conditions like **atrial fibrillation** [3]. - It is not a primary strategy for preventing the initial development of **coronary artery disease** itself. *Diuretic use* - **Diuretics** primarily reduce **fluid volume** and **blood pressure**, which are important for managing conditions like **hypertension** or **heart failure**. - While controlling hypertension is part of CAD prevention, diuretics are not a direct or primary mechanism for preventing the underlying **atherosclerotic process**. *Calcium channel blockers* - **Calcium channel blockers** are used to treat conditions like **hypertension**, **angina**, and **arrhythmias** by relaxing blood vessels and reducing cardiac workload. - While they help manage symptoms and risk factors, they do not directly prevent the development of **atherosclerosis** in the same way **lipid-lowering therapy** does.

Question 1442: In a patient with acute chest pain and elevated troponin levels, but normal coronary arteries on angiography, what condition should be considered?

A. Myocardial infarction
B. Coronary artery spasm
C. Myocarditis (Correct Answer)
D. Pericarditis

Explanation: ***Myocarditis*** - **Myocarditis** can present with **acute chest pain** and elevated **cardiac troponins** due to myocardial injury, even with normal coronary arteries [1]. - The inflammation of the **heart muscle** itself is the primary pathology, leading to cell death and troponin release [1]. *Myocardial infarction* - This diagnosis typically requires evidence of **myocardial ischemia** due to an obstructed coronary artery [2]. - While troponin levels are elevated, the presence of **normal coronary arteries** on angiography rules out type 1 myocardial infarction [2]. *Coronary artery spasm* - This condition, also known as **Prinzmetal's angina**, can cause chest pain and troponin elevation due to transient coronary artery constriction. - However, the question implies a more sustained myocardial injury that is better explained by direct myocyte damage from inflammation rather than transient spasm. *Pericarditis* - **Pericarditis** causes **chest pain** and can be associated with inflammatory markers, but it typically does not lead to significant elevations in **cardiac troponins** [1]. - Troponin elevation in pericarditis is usually mild and often indicates concomitant **myocarditis** (myopericarditis) rather than isolated pericardial inflammation [1].

Question 1443: A 70-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnea and a diastolic decrescendo murmur best heard at the left sternal border. Which imaging study is most likely to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A. Transthoracic echocardiogram (Correct Answer)
B. Chest X-ray
C. CT chest
D. MRI of the chest

Explanation: Transthoracic echocardiogram - A **transthoracic echocardiogram** is the gold standard for diagnosing and assessing the severity of valvular heart diseases like **aortic regurgitation**, which is suggested by the **diastolic decrescendo murmur** best heard at the left sternal edge and **dyspnea** [1]. - It allows for direct visualization of the **aortic valve** structure, leaflet motion, and quantification of regurgitant flow [1]. *Chest X-ray* - A **chest X-ray** is useful for assessing **cardiomegaly** or **pulmonary congestion** secondary to heart failure, but it does not provide detailed information about valve function. - While it might show signs of conditions like an **enlarged cardiac silhouette** in long-standing aortic regurgitation, it cannot confirm the specific valvular lesion. *CT chest* - **CT scans** are excellent for visualizing **aortic anatomy** and detecting **aortic calcification** or **aneurysms**, which can cause aortic regurgitation. - However, CT is less effective than echocardiography for directly assessing the **dynamic flow** across the aortic valve and quantifying the severity of regurgitation. *MRI of the chest* - **Cardiac MRI** can provide highly detailed anatomical and functional information about the heart and great vessels, including precise quantification of **regurgitant volumes** and **ventricular function** [2]. - While it is a powerful tool, it is typically reserved for cases where echocardiography is inconclusive or for further characterization, not usually as the initial diagnostic imaging for suspected valvular heart disease [2].

Question 1444: A 60-year-old female with a history of hypertension presents with symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Which of the following physiological changes is most likely contributing to her symptoms?

A. Increased left ventricular preload (Correct Answer)
B. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
C. Decreased pulmonary artery pressure
D. Increased right atrial pressure

Explanation: ***Increased left ventricular preload*** - In **left-sided heart failure**, the left ventricle's ability to pump blood effectively is compromised, leading to **blood backing up** into the left atrium and pulmonary circulation [1]. - This increased volume of blood returning to a failing ventricle results in **elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure and volume** (preload), contributing to pulmonary congestion and symptoms like dyspnea [2]. *Decreased systemic vascular resistance* - **Decreased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)** would typically lead to a reduction in afterload, making it easier for the heart to pump blood, rather than causing left-sided heart failure [2]. - While medications for heart failure might aim to decrease SVR, it is not a primary physiological cause of the failure itself. *Decreased pulmonary artery pressure* - **Decreased pulmonary artery pressure** would indicate less resistance in the pulmonary circulation, which would alleviate symptoms of left-sided heart failure, not contribute to them. - Left-sided heart failure typically causes **increased pulmonary artery pressure** due to back-up of blood [1]. *Increased right atrial pressure* - **Increased right atrial pressure** is a hallmark of **right-sided heart failure**, indicating blood congestion in the systemic circulation [1]. - While left-sided failure can eventually lead to right-sided failure, high right atrial pressure isn't the primary physiological change contributing to *left-sided* heart failure symptoms.

Question 1445: A 70-year-old man with a history of heart disease presents with severe dyspnea and orthopnea. His chest X-ray shows pulmonary edema. What is the most likely underlying physiological cause?

A. Left ventricular failure (Correct Answer)
B. Right ventricular failure
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Chronic bronchitis

Explanation: ***Left ventricular failure*** - This leads to increased pressure in the **pulmonary veins and capillaries**, forcing fluid into the interstitial spaces and alveoli, causing **pulmonary edema** [1]. - The patient's symptoms of **dyspnea** and **orthopnea** are classic indicators of this fluid accumulation in the lungs [1]. *Right ventricular failure* - Primarily causes **systemic venous congestion**, leading to symptoms like peripheral edema, ascites, and hepatomegionly. - While it can occur secondary to left heart failure, it would not directly cause **pulmonary edema** as the primary physiological cause [2]. *Pulmonary embolism* - A **pulmonary embolism** typically causes acute dyspnea and hypoxemia, but usually does not result in diffuse **pulmonary edema** on chest X-ray [3]. - It involves occlusion of pulmonary arteries, which can lead to **pulmonary infarction** but not generalized fluid extravasation. *Chronic bronchitis* - Characterized by chronic cough with sputum production and airflow obstruction, but does not directly cause acute, severe **pulmonary edema**. - While it can contribute to dyspnea, the acute onset of severe dyspnea with radiographic pulmonary edema points to a more acute cardiac etiology.

Question 1446: In a clinical study assessing the impact of lifestyle changes on hypertension, which outcome measure would be the most appropriate to evaluate effectiveness?

A. Patient self-reported wellness
B. Blood pressure measurement (Correct Answer)
C. Frequency of exercise
D. Dietary intake logs

Explanation: ***Blood pressure measurement*** - The primary definition of **hypertension** is elevated blood pressure [4]. Therefore, changes in blood pressure are direct and **objective measures** of the intervention's success [2]. - **Systolic and diastolic blood pressure** readings directly reflect the disease state and its improvement or worsening [1]. *Patient self-reported wellness* - While important for overall patient experience, **wellness is subjective** and not a direct, quantifiable measure of hypertension control. - It can be influenced by various factors unrelated to blood pressure and may not accurately reflect the physiological changes. *Frequency of exercise* - **Frequency of exercise** is an **intervention component**, not an outcome measure of the disease itself. - Increased exercise may lead to lower blood pressure, but the exercise frequency itself doesn't quantify the **effectiveness of reducing hypertension**. *Dietary intake logs* - Similar to exercise frequency, **dietary intake logs** assess adherence to the intervention, not the direct outcome on the disease. - While diet significantly impacts hypertension, the logs serve as a measure of **compliance with the lifestyle change**, not the physiological response of blood pressure [3].

Question 1447: A patient with no past medical history presents to the clinic complaining of recurrent palpitations. An EKG reveals paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). What is the first-line treatment?

A. Vagal maneuvers (Correct Answer)
B. Intravenous beta-blockers
C. Oral calcium channel blockers
D. Electrical cardioversion

Explanation: Vagal maneuvers - **Vagal maneuvers** (e.g., Valsalva, carotid sinus massage) are the **first-line treatment** for hemodynamically stable PSVT due to their non-invasive nature and rapid onset of action [1]. - They work by increasing **vagal tone**, which slows conduction through the AV node, often terminating the re-entrant circuit responsible for PSVT [1]. *Intravenous beta-blockers* - **Intravenous beta-blockers** (e.g., metoprolol, esmolol) are effective in slowing the heart rate and can terminate PSVT, but are considered **second-line** after vagal maneuvers fail in stable patients [2]. - They are more commonly used if vagal maneuvers are unsuccessful or contraindicated, or in patients with ongoing symptoms [2]. *Oral calcium channel blockers* - **Oral calcium channel blockers** (e.g., diltiazem, verapamil) are an option for *long-term rhythm control or rate control* in recurrent PSVT but are not appropriate for acute termination in the clinic setting. - **Intravenous calcium channel blockers** can be used acutely if vagal maneuvers fail, but not the oral formulation. *Electrical cardioversion* - **Electrical cardioversion** is reserved for **hemodynamically unstable** patients with PSVT (e.g., hypotension, altered mental status, acute heart failure, ongoing ischemia) or when pharmacological and vagal maneuvers fail. - It involves delivering a synchronized electrical shock to reset the heart's rhythm and is not the initial treatment for stable patients.

Question 1448: A 50-year-old woman complains of pain in her right lower limb. The pain worsens with walking and improves with rest. This condition is most likely due to obstruction in which artery?

A. Femoral artery (Correct Answer)
B. Popliteal artery
C. Anterior tibial artery
D. Posterior tibial artery

Explanation: ***Femoral artery*** - Pain in the **right lower limb** that worsens with walking and improves with rest is a classic symptom of **intermittent claudication**, indicating peripheral artery disease (PAD) [1]. - The **femoral artery** is the most common site of obstruction causing claudication in the thigh and calf due to its prominent role in supplying blood to the lower limb [1]. *Popliteal artery* - Obstruction of the **popliteal artery** would typically cause claudication specifically in the **calf muscle**, as this artery is distal to the femoral artery and supplies the lower leg directly [1]. - While it can cause claudication, it is less common as the primary site of obstruction for general lower limb pain compared to the femoral artery in broad presentations. *Anterior tibial artery* - Obstruction of the **anterior tibial artery** would primarily affect blood flow to the **anterior compartment of the lower leg** and the dorsum of the foot. - This would result in claudication felt more specifically in the **shin** or foot rather than the entire lower limb. *Posterior tibial artery* - Obstruction of the **posterior tibial artery** would largely impact the **posterior compartment of the lower leg** and the plantar aspect of the foot. - Symptoms would manifest as pain in the **calf or sole of the foot**, and less likely as generalized lower limb pain.

Question 1449: What is the preferred treatment for a patient diagnosed with acute pericarditis?

A. High-dose antibiotics
B. NSAIDs and colchicine (Correct Answer)
C. Anticoagulation
D. Immediate pericardiocentesis

Explanation: ***NSAIDs and colchicine*** - **NSAIDs (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs)** are the cornerstone of treatment for acute pericarditis, as they reduce **inflammation** and pain [1]. - **Colchicine** is recommended in combination with NSAIDs to reduce the risk of **recurrences** and shorten the duration of symptoms [1]. *High-dose antibiotics* - **Antibiotics** are only indicated if the pericarditis is caused by a **bacterial infection**, which is rare and not the typical presentation of acute pericarditis [1]. - Their use in non-bacterial pericarditis would be ineffective and potentially lead to **adverse effects**. *Anticoagulation* - **Anticoagulation** is generally contraindicated in acute pericarditis due to an increased risk of **hemorrhagic complications**, particularly if there is also concomitant pericardial effusion. - It does not address the underlying **inflammatory process** of pericarditis. *Immediate pericardiocentesis* - **Pericardiocentesis** is reserved for cases of **cardiac tamponade** (significant hemodynamic compromise due to pericardial effusion) or for diagnostic purposes in resistant cases, not as an initial treatment for uncomplicated acute pericarditis. - Performing this procedure unnecessarily carries risks such as **cardiac puncture** or bleeding.

Question 1450: A 45-year-old man with severe chest pain radiating to the back is found to have a widened mediastinum on chest X-ray. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Aortic dissection (Correct Answer)
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Esophageal rupture

Explanation: ***Aortic dissection*** - The combination of **sudden, severe chest pain radiating to the back** and a **widened mediastinum** on chest X-ray are classic signs of aortic dissection [1]. - This condition involves a tear in the **aortic intima**, allowing blood to flow between the layers of the aortic wall [1]. *Myocardial infarction* - While it causes **severe chest pain**, it typically presents as a **pressure-like** or **squeezing sensation** and is not usually associated with a widened mediastinum. - The pain is usually localized to the **anterior chest** and may radiate to the left arm or jaw, rather than primarily to the back in this fashion [2]. *Pulmonary embolism* - Presents with **chest pain and dyspnea**, but the pain is often **pleuritic** (worse with breathing) and not typically described as radiating to the back. - A **widened mediastinum** is not a typical finding in pulmonary embolism; instead, a V/Q scan or CT pulmonary angiogram would be diagnostic. *Esophageal rupture* - Can cause **severe retrosternal pain** and may rarely lead to a widened mediastinum due to mediastinitis or hematoma, but it's typically associated with **retching or vomiting** (Boerhaave syndrome) and not explicitly radiating to the back as acutely as described. - The pain from esophageal rupture is distinct from the **tearing pain** of an aortic dissection.

Practice by Chapter

Coronary Artery Disease and Angina

Practice Questions

Acute Coronary Syndromes

Practice Questions

Heart Failure

Practice Questions

Cardiac Arrhythmias

Practice Questions

Valvular Heart Diseases

Practice Questions

Cardiomyopathies

Practice Questions

Pericardial Diseases

Practice Questions

Congenital Heart Disease in Adults

Practice Questions

Hypertension and Hypertensive Emergencies

Practice Questions

Pulmonary Hypertension

Practice Questions

Non-invasive Cardiac Diagnostics

Practice Questions

Preventive Cardiology

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free

Cardiology — MCQs

Cardiology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?