Cardiology — MCQs
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Most common type of atrial septal defect is ___________
Which of the following is a new major Jones criterion in a high-risk population, according to the AHA & World Health Federation 2015 criteria?
Reversal of shunt is not possible in natural history of?
All are signs of impending Eisenmenger except –
Investigation of choice for valvular heart disease-
A 24-year-old woman notices pain in her left arm, made worse with use. She also has fatigue, fever, night sweats, and arthralgias. On examination, there are no palpable lymph nodes, and the joints and muscle strength are normal. The left radial pulse is absent, and there is a bruit over the left subclavian and common carotid arteries. Preliminary laboratory investigations reveal an elevated ESR and mild anemia. Which of the following vascular findings is most likely to be found in her?
Radiofrequency ablation treatment is most useful in:
Eisenmenger complex is common in adult in –
Cardiomyopathy is not a feature of
25-year-old female presented to emergency with palpitations and dizziness. ECG was done and was diagnosed supraventricular tachycardia. Her blood pressure was 60/40 mm Hg. First line of management for this patient is ?
Cardiology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1261: Most common type of atrial septal defect is ___________
- A. Ostium primum
- B. Endocardial cushion defect
- C. Endocardial hypertrophy
- D. Ostium secondum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ostium secondum*** - This is the **most common type of atrial septal defect (ASD)**, accounting for about **70% of all ASDs** [1]. - It results from an insufficient growth of the **septum secundum** or excessive resorption of the septum primum, causing an opening in the region of the **fossa ovalis** [1]. *Ostium primum* - This type of ASD is less common, making up about **15-20% of all ASDs**. - It is typically associated with other **endocardial cushion defects** [2], such as a cleft in the anterior leaflet of the **mitral valve**. *Endocardial cushion defect* - This is a broader category of congenital heart defects that includes **ostium primum ASDs**, ventricular septal defects, and common atrioventricular canals. - While an ostium primum ASD is an endocardial cushion defect, it is not the most common *type* of ASD overall. *Endocardial hypertrophy* - **Endocardial hypertrophy** refers to the thickening of the endocardium, which is the inner lining of the heart. - This is a **pathological response** to conditions like increased pressure or volume overload, and it is **not a type of atrial septal defect**.
Question 1262: Which of the following is a new major Jones criterion in a high-risk population, according to the AHA & World Health Federation 2015 criteria?
- A. Monoarthritis (Correct Answer)
- B. Polyarthritis
- C. Monoarthralgia
- D. Chorea
Explanation: ***Monoarthritis*** - In a **high-risk population**, the 2015 AHA guidelines for diagnosing **acute rheumatic fever** (ARF) include monoarthritis as a **major criterion**. [1] - This update acknowledges that in populations with a high burden of ARF, even a single joint involvement can be indicative of the disease. *Polyarthritis* - **Polyarthritis** has traditionally been a major Jones criterion and remains so; however, the question specifically asks for a *new* major criterion in high-risk populations. [1] - While relevant, it is not the specific *new* update for high-risk populations as monoarthritis is. *Monoarthralgia* - **Monoarthralgia** is considered a **minor criterion** in both low-risk and high-risk populations because it represents joint pain without inflammatory signs or objective findings. - Minor criteria alone are insufficient for diagnosing ARF without major criteria or evidence of preceding streptococcal infection. [1] *Chorea* - **Sydenham chorea** is a well-established **major Jones criterion** for ARF, recognized for its characteristic involuntary movements. [1] - It is not a *newly* added major criterion but rather a classical manifestation of ARF.
Question 1263: Reversal of shunt is not possible in natural history of?
- A. TOF (Correct Answer)
- B. PDA
- C. VSD
- D. ASD
Explanation: ***TOF*** - In **Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)**, the shunt is typically right-to-left from birth due to **pulmonary stenosis** and a large **VSD** [1]. - This fixed **right-to-left shunt** means that reversal to a left-to-right shunt does not occur naturally [1]. *PDA* - A **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)** typically features an initial **left-to-right shunt**. - However, if **pulmonary hypertension** develops, the shunt can reverse to become **right-to-left** (Eisenmenger syndrome), meaning reversal *is* possible. *VSD* - A **ventricular septal defect (VSD)** initially presents with a **left-to-right shunt** [2]. - Prolonged systemic-level pressures in the pulmonary arteries can lead to **pulmonary vascular disease** and eventual shunt reversal to **right-to-left** (Eisenmenger syndrome) [2]. *ASD* - An **atrial septal defect (ASD)** typically causes an initial **left-to-right shunt**. - Over time, significant **pulmonary hypertension** can develop, leading to shunt reversal to **right-to-left** (Eisenmenger syndrome), indicating reversal is possible.
Question 1264: All are signs of impending Eisenmenger except –
- A. Increased flow murmur across tricuspid & pulmonary valve (Correct Answer)
- B. Single S2
- C. Graham steel murmur
- D. Loud P2
Explanation: Increased flow murmur across tricuspid & pulmonary valve [1] - As pulmonary hypertension develops and the shunt reverses (right-to-left), flow across the tricuspid and pulmonary valves typically **decreases**, not increases. - Therefore, an increased flow murmur would be an atypical finding and would not signify impending Eisenmenger syndrome. *Single S2* - A single S2 is observed because **pulmonary hypertension** causes the P2 component to become loud and occur earlier, merging with the A2 sound. - This signifies increased pulmonary vascular resistance, an essential step towards Eisenmenger syndrome. *Graham steel murmur* - The Graham Steell murmur is a **diastolic murmur** indicative of **pulmonary regurgitation** secondary to severe pulmonary hypertension. - This murmur can develop as pulmonary artery pressures rise significantly, leading to Eisenmenger syndrome. *Loud P2* - A prominent or **loud P2** (pulmonary component of the second heart sound) is a direct consequence of elevated pulmonary artery pressure [1]. - This is a critical sign of developing pulmonary hypertension, reflecting the increased resistance in the pulmonary vasculature.
Question 1265: Investigation of choice for valvular heart disease-
- A. Nuclear Cardiac imaging
- B. Precordial Doppler
- C. 2 D- Echocardiography (Correct Answer)
- D. MRI
Explanation: ***2 D- Echocardiography*** - **Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE)** is the initial and most common investigation for valvular heart disease due to its non-invasiveness, accessibility, and ability to visualize valve morphology and function in real-time [1]. - It provides critical information on valve structure, leaflet motion, chamber dimensions, ventricular function, and pressure gradients, allowing diagnosis and assessment of severity [2]. *Nuclear Cardiac imaging* - Primarily used for assessing **myocardial perfusion** and viability, rather than direct visualization of valve structure and function. - While it can indirectly assess the impact of valvular disease on ventricular function, it does not provide detailed information about the valves themselves. *Precordial Doppler* - **Doppler echocardiography** is a component of a full echocardiogram, used to quantify blood flow velocities and pressure gradients across valves [1]. - However, "precordial Doppler" is not a standalone comprehensive investigation for valvular disease; it must be combined with 2D imaging for a complete assessment. *MRI* - **Cardiac MRI (CMR)** offers excellent anatomical detail and precise quantification of ventricular volumes and function, and can assess valvular regurgitation. - It is often used as a complementary study in specific cases, particularly for complex congenital heart disease or when echocardiography is inconclusive, but it is not the primary or initial investigation due to cost and accessibility.
Question 1266: A 24-year-old woman notices pain in her left arm, made worse with use. She also has fatigue, fever, night sweats, and arthralgias. On examination, there are no palpable lymph nodes, and the joints and muscle strength are normal. The left radial pulse is absent, and there is a bruit over the left subclavian and common carotid arteries. Preliminary laboratory investigations reveal an elevated ESR and mild anemia. Which of the following vascular findings is most likely to be found in her?
- A. low pressure in the legs and high pressure in the arms
- B. high pressure in the legs and low pressure in the arms (Correct Answer)
- C. high-pitched diastolic murmur
- D. normal blood pressure in both arms and legs
Explanation: ***High pressure in the legs and low pressure in the arms*** - Takayasu arteritis causes **stenosis** of the **aorta** and its major branches, leading to reduced blood flow and *low pressure* in the affected upper extremities [1]. - The *legs* often maintain more normal blood pressure because their arterial supply is typically less severely affected or distal to the significant stenoses, leading to a *discrepancy* where leg pressure is relatively higher [1]. *Low pressure in the legs and high pressure in the arms* - This pattern is characteristic of **coarctation of the aorta** *distal to the subclavian artery*, where blood flow to the lower extremities is restricted, resulting in *lower leg pressure*. - Although Takayasu arteritis can affect any major vessel, the symptoms here (absent radial pulse, bruits in subclavian/carotid) indicate primary involvement of the *upper body vasculature*, with relatively preserved lower body perfusion [1]. *High-pitched diastolic murmur* - A high-pitched diastolic murmur is a common finding in **aortic regurgitation**, which is not directly indicated by the patient's symptoms of **pain in the arm**, **absent radial pulse**, and **bruits**. - While Takayasu arteritis *can* lead to aortic root dilatation and aortic regurgitation in later stages, the primary vascular findings described relate to *arterial stenosis* and *reduced pulse pressure* in the upper limbs, not valvular dysfunction [1]. *Normal blood pressure in both arms and legs* - This finding would contradict the patient's symptoms of **arm pain**, an **absent radial pulse**, and **arterial bruits**, all of which suggest significant vascular compromise [1]. - Normal blood pressure and pulses would rule out any major arterial stenosis or occlusion, which is central to the diagnosis of **Takayasu arteritis** [1].
Question 1267: Radiofrequency ablation treatment is most useful in:
- A. Ventricular fibrillation
- B. Ventricular premature complex
- C. WPW syndrome (Correct Answer)
- D. Atrial fibrillation
Explanation: ***WPW syndrome*** - **Radiofrequency ablation** is highly effective in **Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome** by targeting and destroying the **accessory pathway** responsible for re-entry arrhythmias, thereby curing the condition [1]. - Patients with symptomatic WPW, especially those with **recurrent supraventricular tachycardias (SVTs)** or a high risk of sudden cardiac death, are excellent candidates for ablation. *Ventricular fibrillation* - **Ventricular fibrillation** is an immediate **life-threatening arrhythmia** requiring prompt **defibrillation** and often lacks a discrete, ablatable anatomical target that can be precisely modulated by radiofrequency ablation [2]. - It usually occurs in the setting of **structural heart disease** or acute **myocardial ischemia**, which are not directly treated by ablation. *Ventricular premature complex* - While radiofrequency ablation can be used for **highly symptomatic** and frequent **ventricular premature complexes (VPCs)**, it is generally considered after other medical therapies have failed, especially if structural heart disease is absent. - VPCs alone, without sustained arrhythmias or significant symptoms, are often managed **conservatively** or with antiarrhythmic medications rather than invasive ablation. *Atrial fibrillation* - **Atrial fibrillation** can be treated with radiofrequency ablation (pulmonary vein isolation), but it is generally performed for **symptomatic** and **refractory cases** after **antiarrhythmic drugs** have failed [1]. - The success rates can vary, and it is a more complex procedure compared to ablation for accessory pathways, often requiring repeat procedures.
Question 1268: Eisenmenger complex is common in adult in –
- A. Cushion defect
- B. ASD
- C. PDA
- D. VSD (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***VSD*** - A large, uncorrected **ventricular septal defect (VSD)** is the most common congenital heart defect to progress to **Eisenmenger syndrome** in adults. [1] - The bidirectional or right-to-left shunting through the VSD eventually leads to **pulmonary hypertension** and and systemic cyanosis. [1] *Cushion defect* - While **atrioventricular septal defects (AVSDs)**, or cushion defects, can lead to pulmonary hypertension, they are less common causes of Eisenmenger syndrome than VSDs in adults. [1] - They involve defects in both atrial and ventricular septa, often seen in individuals with **Down syndrome**. [1] *ASD* - **Atrial septal defects (ASDs)** typically involve left-to-right shunting, and while they can cause pulmonary hypertension over many decades, they rarely progress to full Eisenmenger syndrome due to the lower pressure differential between the atria. [1] - The elevated pulmonary pressures with ASD tend to be less severe and slower in onset compared to VSDs or PDAs. [1] *PDA* - A **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)** can lead to Eisenmenger syndrome, but it is less common in adults than VSDs because PDAs are often recognized and closed earlier in life. [1] - An uncorrected large PDA results in chronic left-to-right shunting, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and subsequent **pulmonary vascular disease**. [1]
Question 1269: Cardiomyopathy is not a feature of
- A. Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
- B. Friedreich's ataxia
- C. Lowe's syndrome (Correct Answer)
- D. Pompe disease
Explanation: ***Lowe's syndrome*** - **Lowe's syndrome** (oculocerebrorenal syndrome) is characterized by congenital cataracts, intellectual disability, and renal tubulopathy, but **not cardiomyopathy**. - The primary cardiac manifestations in Lowe's syndrome are **mitral valve prolapse** and left ventricular hypertrophy, but not a progressive cardiomyopathy as a defining feature. *Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy* - **Dilated cardiomyopathy** is a very common and significant feature of Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy, often leading to heart failure [1], [2]. - Cardiac involvement is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in these patients, with **fibrosis** being a common finding [1]. *Friedreich's ataxia* - **Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy** is a prominent and frequent complication of Friedreich's ataxia, affecting a majority of patients. - It can lead to heart failure, arrhythmias, and is a major cause of death in affected individuals. *Pompe disease* - Infantile-onset Pompe disease is characterized by severe **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy** due to the accumulation of glycogen in cardiac muscle. - Cardiac involvement is often life-threatening and a hallmark of the severe forms of the disease.
Question 1270: 25-year-old female presented to emergency with palpitations and dizziness. ECG was done and was diagnosed supraventricular tachycardia. Her blood pressure was 60/40 mm Hg. First line of management for this patient is ?
- A. Adenosine 12 mg IV
- B. Cardioversion (Correct Answer)
- C. Vagal manoeuvre
- D. Adenosine 6 mg IV
Explanation: ***Cardioversion*** - This patient presents with **supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)** and is **hemodynamically unstable** (blood pressure 60/40 mmHg), indicating the need for immediate intervention. - **Synchronized cardioversion** is the gold standard for unstable SVT as it rapidly restores sinus rhythm, preventing further deterioration. *Adenosine 12 mg IV* - While adenosine is a common treatment for stable SVT, the patient's **severe hypotension** makes it inappropriate as a first-line therapy. - Administering adenosine to an unstable patient could further worsen hypotension and lead to cardiac arrest. *Vagal manoeuvre* - **Vagal maneuvers** (e.g., Valsalva, carotid sinus massage) are effective first-line treatments for **stable SVT**. - However, they are **insufficient** for an unstable patient with profound hypotension, where rapid rhythm conversion is critical. *Adenosine 6 mg IV* - This is the **initial dose of adenosine** for stable SVT, but it is contraindicated in this hemodynamically unstable patient. - As with the 12 mg dose, adenosine can cause transient **heart block** and **hypotension**, which would be dangerous in an already hypotensive individual.
Practice by Chapter
Coronary Artery Disease and Angina
Practice Questions
Acute Coronary Syndromes
Practice Questions
Heart Failure
Practice Questions
Cardiac Arrhythmias
Practice Questions
Valvular Heart Diseases
Practice Questions
Cardiomyopathies
Practice Questions
Pericardial Diseases
Practice Questions
Congenital Heart Disease in Adults
Practice Questions
Hypertension and Hypertensive Emergencies
Practice Questions
Pulmonary Hypertension
Practice Questions
Non-invasive Cardiac Diagnostics
Practice Questions
Preventive Cardiology
Practice Questions
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