Cardiology Practice Questions

Q: Duroziez's sign is associated with which of the following conditions?

Aortic Regurgitation. ***Aortic Regurgitation*** - **Duroziez's sign** is a characteristic **systolic and diastolic bruit** heard over the femoral artery, indicative of significant **aortic regurgitation**. [1], [2] - This sign occurs due to the rapid antegrade and retrograde flow of blood during systole and diastole, respectively, caused by the incompetent aortic valve. [2] *Tricuspid Regurgitation* - **Tricuspid regurgitation** is primarily associated with **holosystolic murmur** best heard at the left lower sternal border, often increasing with inspiration (Carvallo's sign). - It does not produce arterial bruits like Duroziez's sign. *Pericardial effusion* - **Pericardial effusion** is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which can lead to distant heart sounds, **pulsus paradoxus**, and electrical alternans on ECG. - It does not involve vascular bruits in peripheral arteries. *Mitral Stenosis* - **Mitral stenosis** classically presents with a **diastolic rumble** and an **opening snap**, typically heard at the apex. - It is a left-sided heart valve condition that does not cause peripheral arterial bruits.

Q: Which one of the following is not an early complication of acute myocardial infarction?

Dressler's syndrome. ***Dressler's syndrome*** - **Dressler's syndrome** (post-myocardial infarction syndrome) is a **late complication** of acute myocardial infarction, typically occurring weeks to months after the event. - It is an **immune-mediated pericarditis**, characterized by chest pain, fever, and pericardial effusion, but is not seen immediately following an MI. *Papillary muscle dysfunction* - **Papillary muscle dysfunction** or rupture can occur as an **early complication** due to ischemia and necrosis of the muscle, leading to **mitral regurgitation** [1]. - This usually manifests within hours to days of the infarct, especially in **inferior MIs** affecting the posterior papillary muscle. *Ventricular septal defect* - A **ventricular septal defect (VSD)** is an **early mechanical complication** resulting from necrosis and rupture of the interventricular septum. - It typically presents within the **first week** after an MI, causing a new **holosystolic murmur** and signs of heart failure. *Pericarditis* - **Early pericarditis** (within a few days of MI) results from inflammation overlying the necrotic myocardial tissue [1]. - It presents with **pleuritic chest pain** that improves with leaning forward and a **pericardial friction rub**, and is distinct from Dressler's syndrome.

Q: A patient with first-degree heart block presents with dizziness. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

Observation and investigation of other causes. ***Observation and investigation of other causes*** - **First-degree heart block** is usually **asymptomatic** and benign, rarely causing dizziness or other symptoms. - The dizziness experienced by the patient is likely due to another underlying condition and warrants **further investigation** rather than direct intervention for the heart block [2], [3]. *Pacemaker insertion* - **Pacemaker insertion** is reserved for **symptomatic heart blocks** of higher degrees (e.g., Mobitz II or complete heart block) or those with significant hemodynamic compromise [1]. - Given that first-degree heart block is typically asymptomatic, inserting a pacemaker would be an **overtreatment** and unnecessary for this condition alone. *Isoprenaline* - **Isoprenaline** is a **beta-agonist** that increases heart rate and AV conduction, sometimes used in certain bradyarrhythmias. - However, for first-degree heart block, which is generally benign, pharmacologic intervention with agents like **isoprenaline** is not typically indicated and carries risks of adverse effects [2]. *Atropine* - **Atropine** is an anticholinergic drug used to **increase heart rate** by blocking vagal stimulation of the SA and AV nodes. - While it can improve AV conduction, it is not indicated for **asymptomatic first-degree heart block** or when symptoms like dizziness are unlikely to be directly caused by the block itself.

Q: Which of the following is not typically used for secondary prevention of myocardial infarction?

Warfarin. ***Warfarin*** - While Warfarin is an **anticoagulant**, its primary role is in preventing *thromboembolism* in conditions like **atrial fibrillation** [1] or **mechanical heart valves**, not routinely for general **secondary prevention of MI** unless specific indications exist. - Unlike the other options, it doesn't directly address the underlying plaque rupture or reduce the workload of the heart in the typical post-MI patient. *Aspirin* - **Aspirin** is a cornerstone of secondary prevention after MI due to its **antiplatelet** effects, which help prevent future clot formation [2]. - It reduces the risk of recurrent MI, stroke, and cardiovascular death by inhibiting **platelet aggregation** [2]. *Statins* - **Statins** are crucial for secondary prevention as they aggressively lower **LDL cholesterol** levels, stabilizing existing plaques and preventing further plaque progression. - They have pleiotropic effects beyond lipid lowering, including **anti-inflammatory** and **endothelial function improvement**. *Beta blockers* - **Beta blockers** reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate and contractility, which helps prevent recurrent ischemic events and improves survival post-MI [3]. - They are particularly beneficial in patients with **left ventricular dysfunction** or **hypertension** following an MI [1].

Q: Wide pulse pressure is seen in all except which of the following?

Aortic stenosis. **Aortic stenosis** - In **aortic stenosis**, there is a fixed obstruction to left ventricular outflow, leading to a compensatory increase in systolic pressure to overcome the stenotic valve [2]. - The **reduced stroke volume** and impaired flow through the rigid valve cause a lower pulse pressure, often resulting in a **narrow pulse pressure**. *PDA (Patent Ductus Arteriosus)* - In **PDA**, blood flows from the aorta to the pulmonary artery during systole and diastole, causing a decrease in diastolic pressure. - This creates a **run-off phenomenon**, leading to a **wide pulse pressure** due to high systolic and low diastolic pressures. *Aortic Regurgitation* - **Aortic regurgitation** involves blood flowing back into the left ventricle during diastole, causing a rapid fall in diastolic pressure [1]. - The increased stroke volume from the left ventricle leads to a high systolic pressure, resulting in a **wide pulse pressure** [1]. *A.V. malformation (Arteriovenous Malformation)* - An **AV malformation** creates a shunt where arterial blood flows directly into the venous system, bypassing the capillary bed. - This leads to a **decrease in peripheral resistance** and an increased cardiac output, causing a higher systolic pressure and a lower diastolic pressure, thereby producing a **wide pulse pressure**.

Q: Becks triad is seen in

Cardiac tamponade. ***Cardiac tamponade*** - **Beck's triad** is a set of three clinical signs associated with acute cardiac tamponade: **hypotension**, **jugular venous distension (JVD)**, and **muffled heart sounds**. [1] - These signs result from the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which compresses the heart and impairs its ability to fill. [1] *Constrictive pericarditis* - While it can manifest with JVD and signs of right heart failure, **muffled heart sounds** and acute **hypotension** as part of Beck's triad are not typical for its chronic nature. [2] - It involves a rigid, fibrotic pericardium that restricts diastolic filling, often with a **pericardial knock** rather than muffled sounds. [2] *Restrictive cardiomyopathy* - This condition involves impaired ventricular relaxation and filling, leading to signs of heart failure, including JVD. [3] - However, it does not typically present with the acute, severe **hypotension** or **muffled heart sounds** characteristic of cardiac tamponade. [3] *None of the options* - This option is incorrect as cardiac tamponade is the condition associated with Beck's triad.

Q: Among the following emerging risk factors, which is considered the most important predisposing factor for coronary artery disease?

↑ Lipoprotein(a). ***↑ Lipoprotein(a)*** - **Lipoprotein(a) [Lp(a)]** is an **independent and causal risk factor** for **Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)**, with its elevated levels strongly associated with increased cardiovascular risk. - Its proatherogenic and prothrombotic properties, attributed to its structural similarity to **LDL** and **plasminogen**, make it a particularly potent emerging risk factor. *Homocysteinemia* - While **elevated homocysteine levels** are associated with increased risk of **atherosclerosis** and **thrombosis**, the evidence for it as an independent causal risk factor for **CAD** is weaker compared to Lp(a). - Its contribution to **CAD** risk is often considered in the context of other traditional risk factors and may be influenced by nutrient deficiencies like **folate** and **B vitamins**. *↑ Fibrinogen* - **Elevated fibrinogen levels** are a marker of **inflammation** and are associated with an increased risk of **CAD** due to its role in **blood coagulation** and **platelet aggregation** [1]. - However, fibrinogen is considered more of a **risk marker** and a component of the inflammatory response rather than a primary, independent causal factor like Lp(a). *↑ plasminogen activator inhibitors 1* - **Elevated plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 (PAI-1)** levels promote a **prothrombotic state** by inhibiting **fibrinolysis**, which can contribute to the development of **CAD**. - While important in the pathophysiology of **thrombosis**, it is generally considered a downstream mediator in the context of vascular injury and inflammation, rather than the most significant emerging predisposing factor compared to Lp(a).

Q: In the context of ventricular tachycardia, what do extra systoles appear as on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?

QRS complex. ***QRS complex*** - Extra systoles, particularly **premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)**, originate in the ventricles and result in a **wide and bizarre QRS complex** on an ECG [2]. - The QRS complex represents **ventricular depolarization**, and in ventricular tachycardia, the *ventricular activity* dominates the ECG tracing [2]. *P wave* - The **P wave** represents **atrial depolarization** and is typically either absent or dissociated from the QRS complex in ventricular tachycardia [1], [2]. - Its presence or absence helps differentiate supraventricular from ventricular arrhythmias. *T wave* - The **T wave** represents **ventricular repolarization**, which typically follows the QRS complex [1]. - While it will be present, it often appears abnormal or discordant in ventricular tachycardia due to the altered ventricular depolarization. *R wave* - The **R wave** is part of the QRS complex, specifically the first positive deflection. - While an R wave is present within the QRS complex of an extrasystole, referring to the entire **QRS complex** is more accurate as it encompasses the complete ventricular depolarization in an abnormal morphology.

Q: Digitalis is used in mitral stenosis to control the ventricular rate when the patient develops which condition?

Atrial fibrillation. ***Atrial fibrillation*** - **Digitalis** (digoxin) is effective in **slowing the ventricular rate** in atrial fibrillation by increasing vagal tone and prolonging the refractory period of the AV node. - In **mitral stenosis**, an uncontrolled rapid ventricular rate due to atrial fibrillation can significantly reduce cardiac output and worsen symptoms. *Right ventricular failure* - While digitalis can improve contractility, its primary role in **RV failure** is not rate control; diuretics and afterload reduction are more commonly used. - A patient with isolated right ventricular failure due to mitral stenosis would not directly benefit from digitalis for rate control. *Acute pulmonary edema* - **Acute pulmonary edema** requires rapid diuresis, oxygen, and vasodilators to reduce preload and afterload. - Digitalis has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line treatment for acute pulmonary edema, especially if the cause is not related to a rapid ventricular rate. *Myocarditis* - **Myocarditis** is an inflammation of the heart muscle, and digitalis is generally avoided due to concerns about potentially worsening arrhythmias and myocardial damage in an inflamed heart. - Treatment for myocarditis focuses on supportive care and addressing the underlying cause, not rate control with digitalis unless specific arrhythmias develop.

Q: Which of the following statements about atrial myxomas is correct?

Most commonly found in the Left Atrium.. ***Most commonly found in the Left Atrium.*** - **Atrial myxomas** are typically found in the **left atrium** (approximately 75-80% of cases), often attached to the **interatrial septum** near the fossa ovalis. - Their presence in the left atrium can lead to **obstruction of the mitral valve**, causing symptoms mimicking mitral stenosis [1]. *More prevalent in males.* - **Atrial myxomas** are more common in **females** than males, with a female-to-male ratio of approximately 2:1. - This higher prevalence in women is a consistent finding in epidemiological studies of cardiac myxomas [2]. *Most myxomas are hereditary.* - The vast majority of **atrial myxomas** are **sporadic** (non-hereditary), accounting for about 90-95% of cases. - A small percentage (5-10%) are part of a familial syndrome known as **Carney complex**, which is an autosomal dominant disorder. *Distant metastasis is commonly observed.* - **Atrial myxomas** are generally **benign tumors** and do not metastasize to distant sites. - While they can embolize fragments, leading to systemic effects, these are not true metastases.

Question 1

Duroziez's sign is associated with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Aortic Regurgitation

Answer

Pericardial effusion

Answer

Tricuspid Regurgitation

Answer

Mitral Stenosis

Question 2

Which one of the following is not an early complication of acute myocardial infarction?

Accepted Answer

Dressler's syndrome

Answer

Pericarditis

Answer

Papillary muscle dysfunction

Answer

Ventricular septal defect

Question 3

A patient with first-degree heart block presents with dizziness. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

Accepted Answer

Observation and investigation of other causes

Answer

Pacemaker insertion

Answer

Isoprenaline

Answer

Atropine

Question 4

Which of the following is not typically used for secondary prevention of myocardial infarction?

Accepted Answer

Warfarin

Answer

Aspirin

Answer

Statins

Answer

Beta blockers

Question 5

Wide pulse pressure is seen in all except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Aortic stenosis

Answer

Aortic Regurgitation

Answer

PDA

Answer

A.V. malformation

Question 6

Becks triad is seen in

Accepted Answer

Cardiac tamponade

Answer

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Answer

Constrictive pericarditis

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

Among the following emerging risk factors, which is considered the most important predisposing factor for coronary artery disease?

Accepted Answer

↑ Lipoprotein(a)

Answer

Homocysteinemia

Answer

↑ Fibrinogen

Answer

↑ plasminogen activator inhibitors 1

Question 8

In the context of ventricular tachycardia, what do extra systoles appear as on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?

Accepted Answer

QRS complex

Answer

P wave

Answer

T wave

Answer

R wave

Question 9

Digitalis is used in mitral stenosis to control the ventricular rate when the patient develops which condition?

Accepted Answer

Atrial fibrillation

Answer

Right ventricular failure

Answer

Acute pulmonary edema

Answer

Myocarditis

Question 10

Which of the following statements about atrial myxomas is correct?

Accepted Answer

Most commonly found in the Left Atrium.

Answer

More prevalent in males.

Answer

Most myxomas are hereditary.

Answer

Distant metastasis is commonly observed.

Cardiology — MCQs

Cardiology — MCQs

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