Sexual Offences and Abortion — MCQs

Sexual Offences and Abortion Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 191: Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code describes which of the following?

A. The definition of rape
B. The punishment for rape
C. Unnatural sexual offences (Correct Answer)
D. Assault

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)** historically deals with **unnatural sexual offences**, defined as "carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman, or animal." In the context of Forensic Medicine, this includes acts such as sodomy, buccal coitus (oral sex), and bestiality. **Why the correct answer is right:** Section 377 specifically criminalizes acts that do not involve penile-vaginal penetration. While the Supreme Court of India (Navtej Singh Johar vs. Union of India, 2018) decriminalized consensual homosexual acts between adults, the section remains on the books to prosecute **non-consensual** unnatural acts and **bestiality**. **Why the other options are wrong:** * **Option A & B:** The definition of **Rape** is described under **Section 375 IPC**, while the **Punishment for Rape** is detailed under **Section 376 IPC**. Following the 2013 Amendment, the definition of rape was broadened to include non-vaginal penetrations (oral, anal, or insertion of objects), but Section 377 remains the specific statute for "unnatural" classifications. * **Option D:** **Assault** or criminal force with intent to outrage the modesty of a woman is covered under **Section 354 IPC**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Section 377:** Remember the "Order of Nature" keyword. * **Medical Examination:** In cases of sodomy, look for **perianal findings** like the "funnel-shaped anus," loss of sphincter tone (laxity), and the presence of lubricant or semen. * **Age of Consent:** Under POCSO, the age of consent is **18 years**, regardless of the gender of the victim or the nature of the act. * **Section 376D:** Deals with Gang Rape. * **Section 376E:** Deals with punishment for repeat offenders.

Question 192: Telephone scotologia refers to which paraphilia?

A. Exhibitionism (Correct Answer)
B. Voyeurism
C. Frotteurism
D. Fetishism

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Telephone Scotologia** is a specific form of **Exhibitionism**. In this paraphilia, the individual (the scotophiliac) derives sexual arousal and gratification by making obscene, lewd, or sexually explicit phone calls to unsuspecting strangers. It is considered a "verbal" or "non-contact" form of exhibitionism because the perpetrator exposes their sexual thoughts or desires to a non-consenting victim to elicit a reaction of shock or fear. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Exhibitionism (Correct):** This involves the urge to expose one's genitals or sexual fantasies to unsuspecting strangers. Telephone scotologia is the telephonic variant of this behavior. * **B. Voyeurism:** Also known as "Peeping Tom" syndrome, this involves deriving pleasure from observing unsuspecting individuals who are naked, disrobing, or engaging in sexual activity. * **C. Frotteurism:** This involves seeking sexual arousal by touching or rubbing one's genitals against a non-consenting person, typically in crowded public places like buses or trains. * **D. Fetishism:** This involves the use of non-living objects (e.g., shoes, undergarments) or specific non-genital body parts as the primary source of sexual arousal. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Sadism:** Deriving pleasure from inflicting pain/humiliation on others. * **Masochism:** Deriving pleasure from receiving pain/humiliation. * **Bestiality (Zooerasty):** Sexual intercourse with animals (punishable under Section 377 IPC). * **Necrophilia:** Sexual attraction to or intercourse with corpses. * **Pyromania:** Sexual arousal derived from setting fires. * **Don Juanism:** A male's compulsive need to seduce many female partners (the female equivalent is **Nymphomania**).

Question 193: Disclosure of the identity of a rape victim is protected under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)?

A. Section 298A
B. Section 228A (Correct Answer)
C. Section 226A
D. Section 225A

Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Section 228A is Correct:** Section **228A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)** was specifically inserted to protect the social reputation and privacy of victims of certain sexual offences (including rape under Section 376). It prohibits the printing or publication of the name or any matter which may make known the identity of the victim. Violation of this section is a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment up to two years and a fine. *Note:* Identity can only be disclosed under specific circumstances, such as with the written authorization of the victim (if major) or the next of kin (if the victim is deceased/minor/unsound mind) to a specified authority. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Section 298A:** This section does not exist in the standard IPC. Section 298 deals with uttering words with deliberate intent to wound religious feelings. * **Section 226A:** This section is non-existent. Section 226 (now repealed) dealt with unlawful return from transportation. * **Section 225A:** This pertains to the omission to apprehend, or sufferance of escape, on the part of a public servant in cases not otherwise provided for. It is unrelated to victim identity. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Two-Finger Test:** The Supreme Court has banned the "Two-Finger Test" (Per Vaginal examination to check laxity), stating it violates the right to privacy and dignity of the victim. * **Section 164A CrPC:** Mandates the medical examination of a rape victim by a registered medical practitioner within 24 hours of receiving information. * **Consent:** For medical examination, informed written consent of the victim is mandatory. If the victim is under 18, consent from the guardian is required. * **Fresh Evidence:** Spermatozoa can remain motile in the vagina for up to 24 hours and non-motile for up to 3–5 days.

Question 194: An eleven-year-old victim of sexual assault is brought for medical examination. Which of the following actions is NOT required to be performed?

A. Consent should be taken from the patient. (Correct Answer)
B. The patient should be examined in the presence of a female attendant.
C. The patient should be given necessary emergency treatment.
D. All necessary forensic samples should be collected.

Explanation: ### Explanation The core concept in this question revolves around the **legal capacity to give consent** under Indian law (IPC and POCSO Act). **1. Why Option A is the correct answer:** According to **Section 90 of the IPC**, consent given by a child **under the age of 12 years** is not considered valid in the eyes of the law. Since the victim is eleven years old, she is legally incapable of providing informed consent. In such cases, consent must be obtained from the **parent or legal guardian**. If no guardian is available and the situation is an emergency, the doctor can proceed under the principle of "implied consent" to save the victim's life or health (Section 92 IPC), but the child's own consent is never legally sufficient. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option B:** Under **Section 164A of the CrPC**, a female victim must be examined by a female registered medical practitioner. If a male doctor must perform the examination, it is mandatory to have a **female attendant** present to maintain the victim's dignity and provide psychological comfort. * **Option C:** Medical ethics and the law dictate that **emergency medical care** (stabilization, wound care, or prophylaxis) must never be delayed for legal formalities or the collection of evidence. * **Option D:** Collection of forensic samples (semen swabs, DNA, clothing) is a standard protocol in sexual assault cases to ensure the chain of custody and aid in the conviction of the perpetrator. ### High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG: * **Age of Consent for Medical Exam:** 12 years (Section 90 IPC). * **Age of Consent for Sexual Intercourse:** 18 years (as per POCSO Act and Section 375 IPC). * **Mandatory Reporting:** Under the **POCSO Act**, any person (including doctors) who has apprehension that a sexual offence has been committed against a child **must** report it to the Special Juvenile Police Unit or local police. * **Two-Finger Test:** Strictly **banned** by the Supreme Court; performing it is considered misconduct.

Question 195: Which of the following is used in rape victims to determine rupture of the hymen and whether the rupture is recent or old?

A. Gaba rod
B. Gram rod
C. Cylinder rod
D. Glaister Keen rod (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Glaister Keen rod** (also known as a glass rod or hymen rod) is a specialized diagnostic tool used in forensic examinations of sexual assault victims. It is a thin, smooth glass rod with a bulbous tip. When inserted into the vaginal orifice, it allows the examiner to stretch the hymen gently. This stretching makes any tears, notches, or cicatrices (scars) more visible. * **Recent Rupture:** The edges of the tear appear red, swollen, and bleed on touch. * **Old Rupture:** The edges are pale, rounded, and show signs of epithelialization or scarring (carunculae myrtiformes). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Gaba rod:** This is a distractor term. GABA (Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid) is a neurotransmitter, but there is no "Gaba rod" used in forensic medicine. * **Gram rod:** This refers to the morphology of bacteria (Gram-positive/negative rods) observed during Gram staining in microbiology, unrelated to hymen examination. * **Cylinder rod:** This is a generic term and does not refer to any specific forensic instrument. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Carunculae Myrtiformes:** These are small, fleshy elevations representing the remnants of the hymen after childbirth (parturition). They are distinct from simple hymenal ruptures seen after first intercourse. * **Hymenal Variations:** Be aware of the **Imperforate hymen** (leads to hematocolpos) and **Cribriform hymen** (multiple small openings). * **Medical Opinion:** A ruptured hymen is **not** definitive proof of sexual intercourse, nor is an intact hymen proof of virginity (due to elastic/complaisant hymens). * **Consent:** In forensic cases, examination of the hymen must always be preceded by informed written consent from the victim (or guardian if under 18).

Question 196: What is the WHO definition of abortion?

A. Pregnancy termination or loss before 12 weeks of gestation
B. Pregnancy termination or loss before 20 weeks of gestation (Correct Answer)
C. Pregnancy termination or loss before 22 weeks of gestation
D. Pregnancy termination or loss before 24 weeks of gestation

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **World Health Organization (WHO)** defines abortion as the termination of pregnancy or the expulsion of an embryo or fetus weighing less than **500 grams** or before **20 completed weeks** (140 days) of gestation, counted from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). At this stage, the fetus is generally considered non-viable (incapable of independent extrauterine survival). **Analysis of Options:** * **Option B (Correct):** This aligns with the standard WHO definition based on the threshold of viability (20 weeks). * **Option A (Incorrect):** 12 weeks marks the end of the first trimester. While many spontaneous abortions occur here, it is not the upper limit of the definition. * **Option C (Incorrect):** 22 weeks is sometimes used in developed countries as the limit of viability due to advanced neonatal intensive care, but it is not the standard WHO definition for abortion. * **Option D (Incorrect):** 24 weeks is the legal limit for termination of pregnancy (MTP) in India under specific conditions (MTP Amendment Act 2021), but it does not define the biological/medical term "abortion." **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** 1. **MTP Act (India):** Termination is legal up to **20 weeks** with one doctor's opinion and up to **24 weeks** for specific categories (e.g., rape survivors, fetal abnormalities) with two doctors' opinions. 2. **Viability:** In India, for forensic purposes, viability is generally considered at **28 weeks** (7 lunar months), though medical advancements are pushing this earlier. 3. **Weight Criterion:** If the gestational age is unknown, a fetal weight of less than **500g** is the defining criteria for abortion. 4. **Criminal Abortion:** Any abortion performed outside the provisions of the MTP Act is punishable under **Sections 312-316 of the IPC**.

Question 197: Spermine in semen is detected by which test?

A. Barberio test (Correct Answer)
B. Florence test
C. ELISA
D. Agglutination inhibition

Explanation: ### Explanation The identification of semen in forensic investigations relies on detecting specific chemical constituents or morphological structures (spermatozoa). **1. Why Barberio Test is Correct:** The **Barberio test** is a microchemical test used to detect **spermine**, a polyamine found in high concentrations in human semen. When a suspected stain is treated with picric acid (Barberio reagent), it reacts with spermine to form characteristic **yellow, needle-shaped crystals** of spermine picrate. It is highly specific for human semen but can occasionally give false negatives if the stain is very old. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Florence Test:** This test detects **choline** (derived from lecithin). It uses a reagent containing iodine and potassium iodide to form dark brown, rhombic, or needle-shaped crystals of choline periodide. * **ELISA:** In forensic serology, ELISA is typically used to detect **p30 (Prostate-Specific Antigen/PSA)**. This is a highly sensitive and specific method for identifying semen even in vasectomized or azoospermic individuals. * **Agglutination Inhibition:** This is a serological technique used for **blood group substances** (secretor status) in semen or other body fluids, rather than detecting a specific chemical constituent like spermine. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Acid Phosphatase (AP) Test:** The best **screening/presumptive test** for semen. It remains positive even in azoospermic samples. * **Confirmatory Test:** Microscopic identification of **spermatozoa** (using Christmas Tree stain) is the only absolute proof of semen. * **Mnemonic:** **B**arberio = **S**permine (**BS**) | **F**lorence = **C**holine (**FC**). * **PSA (p30):** The most reliable marker for semen in the absence of spermatozoa.

Question 198: Teeth bite marks are which type of abrasion?

A. Pressure abrasion (Correct Answer)
B. Contusion
C. Graze abrasion
D. Linear abrasion

Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Pressure Abrasion is Correct:** Pressure abrasions (also known as crushing or impact abrasions) are caused by vertical pressure applied to the skin, resulting in the crushing of the superficial epidermal layers. In a **bite mark**, the teeth exert direct perpendicular pressure against the skin. This creates a "patterned injury" that mirrors the occlusal surfaces of the teeth. Because the force is static and compressive rather than sliding, it is classified as a pressure abrasion. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Contusion (Bruise):** While bite marks often have an associated contusion (due to the rupture of small vessels under the skin), the question asks specifically what type of *abrasion* it is. A contusion is a separate category of mechanical injury. * **Graze Abrasion:** These occur when the skin surface slides against a broad, rough surface (e.g., road rash). They are characterized by linear furrows and tags of epithelium at the end of the injury, which are absent in standard bite marks. * **Linear Abrasion:** Also known as a scratch, these are caused by a sharp or pointed object (like a fingernail) being drawn across the skin in a line. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Patterned Injury:** Bite marks are the classic example of patterned abrasions, which are of high medico-legal value for identifying a perpetrator (Forensic Odontology). * **Suction Marks:** Often found in the center of a bite mark (the "suckermouth" appearance), these are actually **intradermal hemorrhages** or petechiae caused by negative pressure. * **Time Sensitivity:** Bite marks on living individuals should be swabbed for saliva (DNA) and photographed within 24 hours, as they fade or distort quickly. * **Distance:** In forensic odontology, the distance between the maxillary canine teeth is often measured to differentiate between human and animal bites.

Question 199: A child is born 270 days after the death of the father. What is the legal status of the child?

A. Legitimate (Correct Answer)
B. Illegitimate
C. Bastard
D. None of the above

Explanation: This question pertains to the legal presumption of legitimacy as defined under **Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act (IEA)**. ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** According to Section 112 of the IEA, a child is considered **legitimate** if born during the continuance of a valid marriage or within **280 days** after its dissolution (by death or divorce), provided the mother remains unmarried. In this scenario, the child was born 270 days after the father's death. Since 270 days falls within the statutory limit of 280 days, the law presumes the deceased husband to be the biological father. This is a "conclusive proof" of legitimacy unless it can be proven that the parties had no access to each other at any time when the child could have been begotten. ### **Explanation of Incorrect Options** * **B & C (Illegitimate/Bastard):** These terms refer to a child born out of wedlock or beyond the legally prescribed period of gestation following the dissolution of marriage. Since the birth occurred within the 280-day window, these labels are legally incorrect. * **D (None of the above):** This is incorrect as the status is clearly defined by Indian law. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Maximum Legal Gestation:** In India, the legal limit for legitimacy is **280 days**. * **Medical vs. Legal Gestation:** While the average medical duration of pregnancy is 270–280 days (10 lunar months), courts may occasionally consider "protracted gestation" cases, though Section 112 remains the standard benchmark. * **DNA Profiling:** While Section 112 provides a strong presumption, the Supreme Court has ruled that DNA tests can be admitted to rebut this presumption, but only in exceptional cases where "non-access" is a primary point of contention. * **Nullity of Marriage:** Children born of void or voidable marriages are also considered legitimate in the eyes of the law (Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act).

Question 200: Legally, abortion is termination of pregnancy:

A. Before 6 weeks
B. Before 16 weeks
C. Before 26 weeks
D. None of the above (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **None of the above** because, in the eyes of the law, the definition of abortion differs significantly from the clinical/biological definition. **1. Why the correct answer is right:** Clinically, abortion is defined as the termination of pregnancy before the period of viability (traditionally 20–28 weeks). However, **legally**, the Indian Penal Code (IPC) does not specify a gestational age limit for the definition of "causing miscarriage" (Sections 312-316). Legally, abortion is the expulsion of the product of conception at **any period of gestation** before the full term is reached. Therefore, any fixed timeframe like 6, 16, or 26 weeks is legally incorrect as an absolute definition. **2. Why the other options are wrong:** * **Options A, B, and C:** These are arbitrary timeframes. While the **Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act** (amended in 2021) allows for legal termination up to **24 weeks** for specific categories of women (and beyond 24 weeks in cases of substantial fetal abnormalities), these limits define the *legality of the procedure*, not the *definition of the act* itself. **3. High-Yield Facts for NEET-PG:** * **IPC Section 312:** Deals with causing miscarriage with consent (unless done in good faith to save the mother's life). * **IPC Section 313:** Causing miscarriage without the woman's consent (punishable by life imprisonment). * **MTP Act 2021 Update:** * Up to 20 weeks: Opinion of **one** registered medical practitioner (RMP). * 20–24 weeks: Opinion of **two** RMPs (for specific categories like rape survivors, minors, etc.). * Beyond 24 weeks: Requires approval from a **State-level Medical Board** for substantial fetal anomalies. * **Quick Tip:** If a question asks for the "Clinical definition," the answer is usually <20 weeks; if it asks for the "Legal definition," it is "at any time before full term."

Practice by Chapter

Sexual Assault Examination

Practice Questions

Rape Investigation

Practice Questions

Child Sexual Abuse

Practice Questions

Collection of Biological Evidence

Practice Questions

DNA Testing in Sexual Offences

Practice Questions

False Allegations

Practice Questions

Medical Termination of Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Criminal Abortion

Practice Questions

Complications of Abortion

Practice Questions

Sexual Perversions

Practice Questions

Legal Aspects of Sexual Offences

Practice Questions

Victim Support and Rehabilitation

Practice Questions

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