Global Health Perspectives in Dermatology — MCQs
A 42-year-old Bengali male presents with painless nodules over the face. The face is erythematous, and the surface of some of the large nodules is discolored. He gives a history of an insect bite in the past while he went to the jungle for work. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Transmission assessment survey is for?
FALSE about Leprosy eradication programme is ?
Which of the following procedures is not typically covered by the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB) for reimbursement of surgery done by a non-governmental organization (NGO) eye hospital?
Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
Lines of Blaschko are related to?
A 22-year-old woman presents with multiple tender, erythematous nodules on her shins that developed over the past week. She reports having a sore throat 2 weeks ago. She also complains of joint pain and fatigue. Physical examination reveals raised, red, tender nodules on the anterior surface of both legs. Her temperature is 38.2°C. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Which of the following is the MOST characteristic feature of skin tags (acrochordons)?
A 20-year-old male with no history of any sexual contact presents with following lesions on his penis. What is the diagnosis?
Dermatological manifestation of which of the following diseases?
Global Health Perspectives in Dermatology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 42-year-old Bengali male presents with painless nodules over the face. The face is erythematous, and the surface of some of the large nodules is discolored. He gives a history of an insect bite in the past while he went to the jungle for work. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Chronic Fungal infections
- B. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis (Correct Answer)
- C. Cutaneous tuberculosis
- D. Leprosy
Explanation: ***Cutaneous Leishmaniasis*** - The presentation of **painless erythematous nodules** on the face, especially in a person with a history of **insect bites** and exposure to a **jungle environment** (where sandflies, vectors of Leishmania, are common), strongly suggests cutaneous leishmaniasis. - The discoloration of the surface of large nodules is also consistent with the typical appearance of **chronic cutaneous leishmaniasis lesions**. *Chronic Fungal infections* - While chronic fungal infections can cause skin nodules, they typically present with features like **scaling, itching, or satellite lesions**, which are not described here. - The specific history of **insect bites** and geographical context points away from common fungal etiologies. *Cutaneous tuberculosis* - Cutaneous tuberculosis can manifest as nodules (**lupus vulgaris** or **scrofuloderma**), but these are often associated with other signs of tuberculosis, such as **pulmonary involvement** or **lymph nodal enlargement**, and typically have a slower progression. - The history of **insect bite** is not a primary risk factor for cutaneous tuberculosis. *Leprosy* - Leprosy, particularly **lepromatous leprosy**, can cause extensive facial nodules, but these are often associated with **nerve involvement** leading to sensory loss, and the lesions tend to be diffusely infiltrative rather than discrete, discolored nodules. - The rapid onset or history of a single insect bite is less characteristic of leprosy, which has a very **long incubation period**.
Question 2: Transmission assessment survey is for?
- A. Plasmodium falciparum
- B. Plasmodium vivax
- C. Leishmania donovani
- D. Wuchereria bancrofti (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Wuchereria bancrofti*** - The **Transmission Assessment Survey (TAS)** is explicitly designed by the World Health Organization (WHO) to determine if **lymphatic filariasis (LF)**, primarily caused by *Wuchereria bancrofti*, has been successfully eliminated as a public health problem. - It uses specific thresholds of **microfilaria prevalence** in endemic areas to decide when mass drug administration (MDA) can be stopped. *Plasmodium falciparum* - This parasite causes **falciparum malaria**, and its transmission is assessed through methods like **malaria indicator surveys (MIS)**, entomological surveys, and case detection rates, not TAS. - The goal for *Plasmodium falciparum* is **malaria control** and elimination, but it doesn't utilize the TAS methodology. *Plasmodium vivax* - This parasite causes **vivax malaria**, similarly assessed by malaria-specific surveys and surveillance, including **passive and active case detection**, not a TAS for lymphatic filariasis. - While efforts are made for *Plasmodium vivax* elimination, it requires different diagnostic and surveillance strategies due to its hypnozoite stage. *Leishmania donovani* - This parasite is responsible for **visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)**, and its transmission is monitored through surveillance of human cases, vector control assessment, and serological surveys. - The elimination program for **kala-azar** in endemic areas uses **different indicators and survey methods** than the TAS for lymphatic filariasis.
Question 3: FALSE about Leprosy eradication programme is ?
- A. Disability limitation
- B. Health education
- C. Long term multi drug therapy (Correct Answer)
- D. Early detection of cases
Explanation: ***Long term multi drug therapy*** - Leprosy eradication programs emphasize **short-term, highly effective multi-drug therapy (MDT)**, not long-term. - The standard duration for paucibacillary leprosy is 6 months and for multibacillary leprosy is 12 months, which is considered short-term given the chronic nature of the disease. *Disability limitation* - This is a crucial component of leprosy programs, focusing on preventing and managing **nerve damage** and its consequences. - Interventions include **early detection of nerve impairment**, protective footwear, and physio-occupational therapy to minimize permanent disabilities. *Health education* - **Health education** is essential for successful eradication, as it increases public awareness, reduces stigma, and promotes early reporting of symptoms. - It also educates patients on the importance of **adherence to MDT** and self-care practices. *Early detection of cases* - **Early detection and prompt treatment** of leprosy cases are fundamental to preventing transmission and reducing the burden of the disease. - This helps to interrupt the chain of infection and prevent the development of severe disabilities.
Question 4: Which of the following procedures is not typically covered by the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB) for reimbursement of surgery done by a non-governmental organization (NGO) eye hospital?
- A. Cataract surgery
- B. Pan retinal photocoagulation for diabetic retinopathy
- C. Syringing and probing of the nasolacrimal duct (Correct Answer)
- D. Trabeculectomy surgery
Explanation: ***Syringing and probing of the nasolacrimal duct*** - While important for lacrimal drainage issues, procedures like **syringing and probing** are generally considered minor and less vision-restoring compared to the major surgeries targeted by the **NPCB**. - The **NPCB** focuses on interventions for leading causes of blindness, primarily **cataract** and other significant vision-threatening conditions, which this procedure typically isn't. *Cataract surgery* - **Cataract surgery** is a cornerstone of the **NPCB's** efforts, as cataracts are the leading cause of reversible blindness. - Reimbursement for **cataract surgery** is a primary objective to improve access and reduce the burden of blindness. *Pan retinal photocoagulation for diabetic retinopathy* - **Diabetic retinopathy** is a major cause of preventable blindness, and **pan retinal photocoagulation (PRP)** is a key intervention to preserve vision. - The **NPCB** includes procedures for **diabetic retinopathy** management due to its significant public health impact. *Trabeculectomy surgery* - **Trabeculectomy** is a surgical procedure for **glaucoma**, which is another significant cause of irreversible blindness. - The **NPCB** includes interventions for **glaucoma** given its severe vision-threatening nature and the need for surgical management in many cases.
Question 5: Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
- A. Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1 (Correct Answer)
- B. Statements 1 and 2 are correct and 2 is the correct explanation for 1
- C. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- D. Statement 1 is incorrect
Explanation: ***Correct: Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1*** **Analysis of Statement 1:** - A 59-year-old patient with **flaccid bullae** and **suprabasal acantholytic split** on histopathology is the classic presentation of **Pemphigus vulgaris** - The flaccid (easily ruptured) nature of bullae distinguishes it from tense bullae seen in bullous pemphigoid - The suprabasal location of the split (just above the basal layer) with acantholysis (loss of cell-to-cell adhesion) is pathognomonic - **Statement 1 is CORRECT** ✓ **Analysis of Statement 2:** - The **"row of tombstones" or "tombstone appearance"** is indeed a diagnostic histopathological feature of Pemphigus vulgaris - This appearance results from basal keratinocytes remaining attached to the basement membrane while suprabasal cells separate due to acantholysis - The intact basal cells standing upright resemble a row of tombstones - **Statement 2 is CORRECT** ✓ **Does Statement 2 explain Statement 1?** - Statement 2 describes a **histopathological appearance** (tombstone pattern) that is a **consequence** of the suprabasal split - However, it does NOT explain the **underlying cause** of the flaccid bullae or the suprabasal split - The true explanation involves **IgG autoantibodies against desmoglein 3 (and desmoglein 1)**, which attack intercellular adhesion structures (desmosomes), causing **acantholysis** - Therefore, **Statement 2 does NOT explain Statement 1** ✗ *Incorrect: Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1* - While both statements describe features of Pemphigus vulgaris, the tombstone appearance is a descriptive finding, not an explanatory mechanism *Incorrect: Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect* - Both statements are medically accurate descriptions of Pemphigus vulgaris features *Incorrect: Statement 1 is incorrect* - Statement 1 correctly describes the cardinal clinical and histopathological features of Pemphigus vulgaris
Question 6: Lines of Blaschko are related to?
- A. Keratinocytes (Correct Answer)
- B. Blood vessels
- C. Nerves
- D. Bones
Explanation: ***Keratinocytes*** - **Lines of Blaschko** represent the migratory pathways of embryonic cells, primarily **keratinocytes**, in the skin. - These lines are not visible under normal conditions but become apparent in various **genetic skin disorders** where abnormal cells follow these specific patterns. *Blood vessels* - While blood vessels are extensively present in the skin, they do not follow the specific **migratory patterns** described by the Lines of Blaschko. - Their arrangement is more related to **vascular networks** and anatomical supply rather than embryonic cell migration. *Nerves* - **Nerves** in the skin have specific distributions, often following dermatomal patterns, which are distinct from the **Lines of Blaschko**. - Nerve distribution is related to their segmental origin from the **spinal cord**, not the migratory paths of epidermal cells. *Bones* - **Bones** are part of the skeletal system and are not found in the skin, making them unrelated to the **Lines of Blaschko**. - These lines describe epidermal cell migration, which is a feature of the **integumentary system**.
Question 7: A 22-year-old woman presents with multiple tender, erythematous nodules on her shins that developed over the past week. She reports having a sore throat 2 weeks ago. She also complains of joint pain and fatigue. Physical examination reveals raised, red, tender nodules on the anterior surface of both legs. Her temperature is 38.2°C. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Cellulitis
- B. Erythema nodosum (Correct Answer)
- C. Sweet syndrome
- D. Superficial thrombophlebitis
Explanation: ***Erythema nodosum*** - The presentation of **tender, erythematous nodules on the shins**, following a preceding **sore throat**, with associated **joint pain and fatigue**, is highly characteristic of **erythema nodosum**. - It is a form of **panniculitis** typically triggered by infections (e.g., streptococcal pharyngitis), medications, or systemic diseases. *Cellulitis* - Characterized by a **warm, erythematous, swollen area** with poorly defined borders, often accompanied by pain and fever, but typically presents as a diffuse skin infection rather than distinct nodules. - While fever is present, the **nodular nature** of the lesions and their bilateral, symmetrical distribution are less consistent with cellulitis. *Sweet syndrome* - Also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis, it presents with **tender erythematous plaques or nodules** and **fever**, but typically has a more prominent **neutrophilic infiltrate** histologically. - Lesions of Sweet syndrome often appear on the **upper extremities, face, or neck**, and while it can affect the shins, the clinical picture here is more classic for erythema nodosum, especially given the history of sore throat. *Superficial thrombophlebitis* - Presents as a **palpable, tender, erythematous cord** along the course of a superficial vein, often with localized swelling and warmth. - The lesions are typically **linear or cord-like**, not discrete nodules scattered over the shins, and are directly related to a thrombosed vein.
Question 8: Which of the following is the MOST characteristic feature of skin tags (acrochordons)?
- A. They commonly occur on the neck and axilla.
- B. They have malignant potential.
- C. They are associated with seborrhoeic keratosis.
- D. They are typically pedunculated. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***They are typically pedunculated.*** - **Skin tags (acrochordons)** are benign soft tissue tumors characterized by their **pedunculated morphology** - they are attached to the skin by a narrow stalk or pedicle. - This **pedunculated appearance** is the **most characteristic** and **defining feature** that distinguishes them from other benign skin lesions. - They are typically **soft, flesh-colored or hyperpigmented**, and range from 1-5 mm in size. *They commonly occur on the neck and axilla.* - While **skin tags** frequently occur in areas of friction such as the neck, axilla, eyelids, groin, and inframammary folds, this **location is not specific**. - Many other skin conditions also favor these sites, so location alone is not a characteristic diagnostic feature. *They are associated with seborrhoeic keratosis.* - There is **no established clinical association** between skin tags and seborrheic keratoses. - Both are common **benign skin growths** in adults but represent different pathological entities with different clinical appearances. *They have malignant potential.* - This is **incorrect**. Skin tags are **benign fibrous polyps** with **no malignant potential**. - They do not require removal unless symptomatic or for cosmetic reasons.
Question 9: A 20-year-old male with no history of any sexual contact presents with following lesions on his penis. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Lichenoides keratosis
- B. Epstein pearls
- C. Molluscum contagiosum
- D. Lichen nitidus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Lichen nitidus*** - The image shows numerous small, shiny, **pin-head sized papules** on the penis, which are characteristic of lichen nitidus. - This condition is often **asymptomatic** and benign, and it can occur on the penis without any sexual contact history. *Lichenoides keratosis* - This term is broad and often refers to a benign **inflammatory process** with lichenoid features affecting keratinocytes, usually solitary and often in older adults; it does not typically present as widespread, uniform papules on the penis. - Lichenoides keratosis is often a more **solitary lesion** or a reaction pattern, not a diffuse eruption of small papules like those pictured. *Epstein pearls* - **Epstein pearls** are small, white or yellow cysts found in the mouths of newborns, specifically on the gums or palate, and are remnants of epithelial tissue. - They are a normal finding in neonates and are **not found on the penis** or in a 20-year-old male. *Molluscum contagiosum* - Molluscum contagiosum lesions typically present as **dome-shaped, flesh-colored papules with central umbilication**. - While they can appear on the penis and are sexually transmitted, the lesions in the image lack the characteristic **umbilication** of molluscum contagiosum.
Question 10: Dermatological manifestation of which of the following diseases?
- A. Photo dermatitis
- B. Pellagra (Correct Answer)
- C. Acrodermatitis enteropathica
- D. Vitamin B deficiency
Explanation: ***Pellagra*** - The image shows a classic "butterfly" rash on the face, specifically a photosensitive dermatitis, which is a hallmark of **pellagra**. - Pellagra is caused by a deficiency of **niacin (vitamin B3)**, characterized by the "3 D's": **dermatitis**, **diarrhea**, and **dementia**. *Photo dermatitis* - While pellagra often presents with photosensitive dermatitis, "photo dermatitis" is a general term for **skin inflammation caused by light exposure** and not a specific disease itself. - It could be caused by various factors, including medication, immune reactions, or other underlying conditions, but the pattern seen here is highly suggestive of pellagra. *Acrodermatitis enteropathica* - This condition is a **hereditary zinc deficiency** that typically presents with a periorificial and acral dermatitis. - The skin lesions are typically **vesicular-pustular or eczematous** and do not usually have the distinct butterfly pattern of photosensitive dermatitis seen in the image. *Vitamin B deficiency* - While pellagra is a vitamin B **(niacin, B3)** deficiency, this option is too broad. - Other vitamin B deficiencies, such as **riboflavin (B2)** or **pyridoxine (B6)** deficiency, have different dermatological manifestations like angular cheilitis, glossitis, or seborrheic dermatitis, but not the characteristic facial rash seen here.
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