Squamous Cell Carcinoma — MCQs
Mohs micrographic excision for basal cell carcinoma is used for all the following Except
What is the most common oral cancer?
N3a TNM staging of head and neck tumors (AJCC 8th edition) shows:
A 24-year-old male presents with asymptomatic scaly lesions over the body as shown in the image below. What is the likely diagnosis?
Which of the following stages of lip carcinoma does not have nodal involvement?
A 70-year-old male presents with a red, scaling plaque on the lower lip that has not healed over the past few months. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A male patient presented with a 0.3 cm nodule on the left nasolabial fold. A pathological examination revealed a basaloid appearance with peripheral palisading. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Which of the following statements about Bowen's disease is correct?
For the treatment of basal cell carcinoma, what is the popular surgery that is carried out?
Rodent ulcer is
Squamous Cell Carcinoma Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Mohs micrographic excision for basal cell carcinoma is used for all the following Except
- A. Superficial basal cell carcinoma on the trunk (Correct Answer)
- B. Tumors with perineural invasion
- C. Tumors with aggressive histology
- D. Recurrent tumor
Explanation: ***Superficial basal cell carcinoma on the trunk*** - **Mohs micrographic surgery** is generally reserved for basal cell carcinomas (BCCs) in cosmetically and functionally sensitive areas, larger tumors, or those with aggressive features. - For **superficial BCCs** on the trunk, which is considered a low-risk area, standard excision, electrodessication and curettage, or topical therapies are often sufficient and preferred due to their less invasive nature and similar efficacy for this specific tumor type. *Tumors with perineural invasion* - **Perineural invasion** indicates a higher risk of recurrence and metastasis, making Mohs surgery an appropriate choice for complete tumor removal and margin control. - The precise, margin-controlled excision of Mohs helps ensure that all microscopic extensions along nerve sheaths are identified and removed. *Tumors with aggressive histology* - **Aggressive histologic subtypes** such as infiltrative, morpheaform, or micronodular BCCs have a higher risk of subclinical extension and recurrence. - Mohs surgery is highly effective for these types as it meticulously examines 100% of the surgical margins, maximizing tumor eradication while preserving healthy tissue. *Recurrent tumour* - **Recurrent BCCs** often have ill-defined borders and can grow more aggressively due to previous treatment altering the tissue architecture, making complete removal challenging. - Mohs surgery offers the highest cure rates for recurrent BCCs by precisely mapping and excising the tumor while preserving surrounding healthy tissue.
Question 2: What is the most common oral cancer?
- A. Transition cell ca
- B. Mucoepidermoid
- C. Adenocarcinoma
- D. Squamous cell ca (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Squamous cell ca*** - **Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)** accounts for over **90% of all oral cancers**, making it the most prevalent type. - It arises from the **stratified squamous epithelium** lining the oral cavity. *Transition cell ca* - This term is more commonly associated with tumors of the **urinary tract**, such as transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. - **Transitional cell carcinomas** are not typically found in the oral cavity. *Mucoepidermoid* - **Mucoepidermoid carcinoma** is the most common primary malignant tumor of **salivary glands**, not the oral cavity lining. - While salivary glands are in the oral region, this type of cancer originates specifically from these glands. *Adenocarcinoma* - **Adenocarcinoma** originates from **glandular tissue** and represents a small percentage of oral cancers. - It is much **less common** than squamous cell carcinoma in the oral cavity.
Question 3: N3a TNM staging of head and neck tumors (AJCC 8th edition) shows:
- A. Metastasis in a lymph node >6 cm (Correct Answer)
- B. Metastasis in lymph nodes >2 cm
- C. Metastasis in lymph nodes >5 cm
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Metastasis in a lymph node >6 cm*** - **N3a disease** in head and neck cancer staging (AJCC 8th edition) specifically refers to metastasis in a single lymph node larger than 6 cm in greatest dimension **without extranodal extension (ENE)**. - This applies to oral cavity, oropharynx (HPV-negative), hypopharynx, and larynx cancers. - **Note:** N3 staging also includes **N3b** (metastasis in any node with clinically overt ENE), but this question specifically asks about N3a criteria. *Metastasis in lymph nodes >2 cm* - Lymph nodes in the 2-3 cm range typically fall within **N1 or N2a categories**, depending on laterality and number of involved nodes. - **N3a disease** requires a single lymph node to exceed 6 cm in greatest dimension without ENE. *Metastasis in lymph nodes >5 cm* - A lymph node between 3-6 cm is usually classified as **N2 disease** (N2a if single ipsilateral ≤6 cm, N2b if multiple ipsilateral ≤6 cm, N2c if bilateral or contralateral ≤6 cm). - To be classified as **N3a**, the lymph node must be **>6 cm** without extranodal extension. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the first option accurately describes the size criterion for **N3a TNM staging** in head and neck tumors according to AJCC 8th edition guidelines. - While N3 staging has two subcategories (N3a and N3b), the size criterion of >6 cm correctly defines N3a disease.
Question 4: A 24-year-old male presents with asymptomatic scaly lesions over the body as shown in the image below. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A. Atopic Dermatitis
- B. Lichen planus
- C. Seborrheic Dermatitis
- D. Pityriasis Rosea (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pityriasis Rosea*** - The image shows numerous **scaly, erythematous plaques** distributed over the trunk, with a characteristic "Christmas tree" pattern often observed in Pityriasis Rosea. - The lesions are described as **asymptomatic**, which is consistent with Pityriasis Rosea, although mild pruritus can occur. *Atopic Dermatitis* - Typically presents with **intensely pruritic, erythematous, and eczematous lesions** often found in flexural areas (e.g., antecubital and popliteal fossae). - While it can be widespread, the morphology of the lesions (eczematous vs. scaly plaques) and the absence of pruritus make this less likely. *Lichen planus* - Characterized by **pruritic, violaceous, polygonal papules** and plaques, often appearing on the flexor surfaces of wrists, ankles, and oral mucosa. - The appearance of the lesions in the image does not match the typical morphology of lichen planus. *Seborrheic Dermatitis* - Primarily affects areas with a high density of sebaceous glands, such as the **scalp, face (nasolabial folds, eyebrows), and chest**. - Presents with **greasy, yellowish scales** on an erythematous base, which is distinct from the dry, scaly plaques seen in the image.
Question 5: Which of the following stages of lip carcinoma does not have nodal involvement?
- A. T2N1
- B. T3N0 (Correct Answer)
- C. T2N2
- D. T1N1
Explanation: ***T3N0*** - The **'N' classification** in the TNM staging system refers to **nodal involvement**. A stage with **'N0' indicates no regional lymph node metastasis**. - A **T3 lesion** signifies a large primary tumor, but if it's accompanied by **N0**, it means there's no evidence of spread to the lymph nodes. *T2N1* - The **'N1' classification** indicates the presence of **regional lymph node metastasis**, specifically in a **single ipsilateral lymph node** that is 3 cm or less in its greatest dimension. - This stage therefore **does have nodal involvement**, contradicting the premise of the question. *T2N2* - The **'N2' classification** signifies more advanced regional lymph node metastasis, such as a **single ipsilateral lymph node** greater than 3 cm but not more than 6 cm. - It could also refer to **multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes**, none greater than 6 cm, or bilateral/contralateral lymph nodes, none greater than 6 cm. In all these cases, **nodal involvement is present**. *T1N1* - Similar to T2N1, the **'N1' component** in T1N1 indicates the presence of **regional lymph node metastasis** in a single ipsilateral lymph node of 3 cm or less. - Therefore, this stage **does involve nodal spread**, despite having a smaller primary tumor (T1).
Question 6: A 70-year-old male presents with a red, scaling plaque on the lower lip that has not healed over the past few months. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Squamous cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Basal cell carcinoma
- C. Actinic keratosis
- D. Lichen planus
Explanation: ***Squamous cell carcinoma*** - Presents as a **red, scaling plaque** on the lower lip, which is the **most common site for oral SCC** (90-95% of lip cancers) due to **chronic UV exposure**. - The history of **non-healing over several months** is highly suspicious for malignancy, particularly SCC in this location. - Lower lip SCC is common in elderly males with chronic sun exposure history. *Basal cell carcinoma* - Typically presents as a **pearly nodule with telangiectasias** or an ulcer, commonly found on sun-exposed skin but **rarely involves the lip**. - While BCC is the most common skin cancer overall, it is uncommon on the lips compared to SCC. *Actinic keratosis* - Characterized by **rough, scaling patches** on sun-exposed areas and is a **premalignant lesion** that can progress to SCC. - However, the description of a **non-healing lesion over months** points more strongly towards an already established malignancy (SCC) rather than a premalignant lesion. *Lichen planus* - An **inflammatory condition** that can affect the skin and mucous membranes, including the lips. - Oral lichen planus presents as **white lace-like patterns (Wickham's striae)** or erosions, not typically a persistent, red, scaling plaque that fails to heal.
Question 7: A male patient presented with a 0.3 cm nodule on the left nasolabial fold. A pathological examination revealed a basaloid appearance with peripheral palisading. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Basal cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Melanoma
- C. Squamous cell carcinoma
- D. Nevus
Explanation: ***Basal cell carcinoma*** - The description of a **basaloid appearance with peripheral palisading** on pathological examination is a classic histological feature of basal cell carcinoma (BCC). - BCC commonly presents as a nodule on sun-exposed areas like the **nasolabial fold** and is the most common skin cancer. *Melanoma* - Melanoma is characterized by the **malignant proliferation of melanocytes** and histologically shows atypical melanocytes with pagetoid spread or nest formation. - While it can appear as a nodule, the described **basaloid appearance with peripheral palisading** is not characteristic of melanoma. *Squamous cell carcinoma* - Squamous cell carcinoma typically shows **atypical keratinocytes** with keratinization, intercellular bridges, and sometimes desmoplasia. - It usually presents as an **erythematous, scaly patch** or nodule, often with ulceration, and the described histology does not match. *Nevus* - A nevus (mole) is a benign proliferation of melanocytes, showing **uniform nests of melanocytes** with maturation as they descend into the dermis. - The term **basaloid appearance** refers to cells resembling basal keratinocytes, which is not typical for a nevus.
Question 8: Which of the following statements about Bowen's disease is correct?
- A. Chronic sun exposure is a known risk factor.
- B. It is more common in fair-skinned individuals.
- C. There is a link between HSV infection and Bowen's disease.
- D. It is a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***It is a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ.*** - **Bowen's disease** is, by definition, **squamous cell carcinoma in situ (SCC in situ)**. - It is characterized by full-thickness epidermal atypia of keratinocytes **without invasion through the basement membrane**. - This statement is **definitional** and represents the fundamental nature of what Bowen's disease is, making it the **best answer** among the options. *Chronic sun exposure is a known risk factor.* - This statement is **medically accurate**. Chronic UV exposure is indeed a well-established risk factor for Bowen's disease. - However, this describes a **risk factor** rather than defining what the condition is. - Other risk factors include **arsenic exposure**, **ionizing radiation**, **immunosuppression**, and **HPV infection** (particularly in anogenital sites). - While true, this is not as fundamental as the definitional statement. *It is more common in fair-skinned individuals.* - This statement is also **medically accurate**. Bowen's disease occurs more frequently in fair-skinned individuals (Fitzpatrick skin types I-II). - Fair skin provides less melanin protection against UV damage, increasing susceptibility to various forms of skin cancer including Bowen's disease. - However, this describes **epidemiology** rather than defining the condition itself. *There is a link between HSV infection and Bowen's disease.* - This statement is **incorrect**. There is **no established association** between Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Bowen's disease. - **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)**, particularly high-risk types 16 and 18, is associated with Bowen's disease, especially in anogenital locations. - This represents a common confusion between HSV and HPV.
Question 9: For the treatment of basal cell carcinoma, what is the popular surgery that is carried out?
- A. Mohs surgery (Correct Answer)
- B. Superficial laser surgery
- C. Curettage and electrodesiccation
- D. Wide local excision
Explanation: ***Mohs surgery*** - **Mohs micrographic surgery** is the most popular and highly effective procedure specifically designed for **basal cell carcinoma (BCC)**, especially on the face and other cosmetically sensitive areas. - It involves the **progressive removal** of thin layers of skin, which are immediately examined under a microscope, allowing for complete tumor removal while preserving maximum healthy tissue. - Mohs surgery has the **highest cure rate** (95-99%) for BCC and is particularly preferred for high-risk locations, recurrent tumors, and poorly defined borders. *Superficial laser surgery* - While lasers can sometimes be used for very superficial skin lesions, **superficial laser surgery** is generally not the primary treatment for established **BCC** due to the risk of incomplete removal and recurrence. - It lacks the **histological margin control** provided by Mohs surgery, which is crucial for ensuring complete eradication of BCC. *Curettage and electrodesiccation* - **Curettage and electrodesiccation** is an alternative surgical treatment for small, low-risk BCCs in non-critical areas. - However, it has **lower cure rates** (85-95%) compared to Mohs surgery and does not provide histological margin assessment. - It is less preferred for facial BCCs where cosmetic outcome and complete removal are critical. *Wide local excision* - **Wide local excision** is a standard surgical approach that removes the tumor with predetermined margins (typically 4-5 mm for BCC). - While effective, it requires **larger tissue removal** compared to Mohs surgery and lacks the real-time microscopic margin control. - Mohs surgery remains more popular due to its tissue-sparing nature and higher cure rates, especially in cosmetically sensitive areas.
Question 10: Rodent ulcer is
- A. Squamous cell carcinoma
- B. Basal cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Rhinophyma
- D. Adenocarcinoma (glandular cancer)
Explanation: ***Basal cell carcinoma*** - The term **"rodent ulcer"** is a historical and descriptive term for a specific type of **basal cell carcinoma (BCC)**, characterized by a **pearly raised border** and a central ulceration. - This appearance, with its rolled edges and sometimes visible telangiectasias, gives the impression of a lesion gnawing away at the tissue, hence the "rodent" description. *Squamous cell carcinoma* - While also a common skin cancer, **squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)** typically presents as a **scaly, crusted nodule or plaque** with irregular borders, or a non-healing ulcer that does not have the classic rolled border of a rodent ulcer. - It is more prone to **metastasis** than BCC. *Rhinophyma* - **Rhinophyma** is a severe form of **rosacea** that causes a bulbous, red, and swollen nose due to hyperplasia of sebaceous glands and connective tissue. - It is a **benign condition** and not a form of skin cancer or ulcer. *Adenocarcinoma (glandular cancer)* - **Adenocarcinoma** is a type of cancer that originates in **glandular tissue**, such as in the breast, prostate, colon, or lung. - It is **not a primary skin cancer** and does not typically present as a "rodent ulcer" on the skin surface.
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