Dermatological Procedures Practice Questions

Q: Unna boot is used for the treatment of which condition?

Varicose ulcers. **Explanation:** The **Unna boot** is a specialized compression dressing used primarily for the management of **venous stasis ulcers (varicose ulcers)**. It consists of a zinc oxide-impregnated bandage, often containing calamine and glycerin, which is wrapped around the lower leg from the base of the toes to just below the knee. **Why it is the correct answer:** The mechanism of action is based on **compression therapy**. As the bandage dries, it becomes semi-rigid. When the patient walks, the calf muscles contract against this rigid barrier, significantly enhancing the **musculovenous pump** efficiency. This reduces venous hypertension, decreases edema, and promotes the healing of chronic venous ulcers. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Diabetic foot ulcer:** These are primarily neuropathic or ischemic. Treatment focuses on offloading pressure (e.g., total contact casts) and revascularization, rather than the semi-rigid compression provided by an Unna boot. * **Ankle instability:** This requires mechanical stabilization via braces, taping, or surgical intervention to protect ligaments, not a medicated compression wrap. * **Calcaneum fracture:** Fractures require rigid immobilization (plaster casts) or surgical fixation. An Unna boot does not provide sufficient structural support for bone healing. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Composition:** Zinc oxide (promotes healing), Calamine (soothes skin), and Glycerin. * **Contraindication:** It should **not** be used in patients with severe Peripheral Arterial Disease (ABI < 0.5) as compression can worsen ischemia. * **Application:** It is typically changed once a week. * **Gold Standard:** While Unna boots are classic, multilayer compression wraps are now often considered the gold standard for venous ulcers.

Q: A 45-year-old farmer presents with a 3-year history of itchy, erythematous papular lesions on the face, neck, 'V' area of the chest, and the dorsum of the hands and forearms. The lesions are more severe in the summer and improve significantly in the winter. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this condition?

Patch test. ### Explanation **Diagnosis: Parthenium Dermatitis (Airborne Contact Dermatitis)** The clinical presentation of itchy, erythematous papules in a "photo-distributed" pattern (face, neck, 'V' area of chest, and dorsum of hands/forearms) in a farmer, with seasonal exacerbation in summer, is classic for **Parthenium Dermatitis**. This is a type of **Airborne Contact Dermatitis (ABCD)** caused by the weed *Parthenium hysterophorus*. **1. Why Patch Test is the Correct Answer:** Parthenium dermatitis is a **Type IV (Delayed-type) Hypersensitivity reaction**. The gold standard for diagnosing Type IV hypersensitivity is the **Patch Test**. It identifies the specific allergen (usually the sesquiterpene lactone in Parthenium) responsible for the T-cell mediated allergic response. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Skin Biopsy:** While it may show features of eczematous dermatitis (spongiosis), it is non-specific and cannot identify the causative allergen. * **Intradermal Prick Test:** This is used to diagnose **Type I (Immediate) Hypersensitivity** (e.g., asthma, allergic rhinitis). It is not used for contact dermatitis. * **Estimation of IgE levels:** IgE is a marker for Type I hypersensitivity and atopic conditions. It has no diagnostic value in Type IV hypersensitivity reactions like ABCD. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Distribution:** Unlike true photodermatitis, ABCD often involves the **upper eyelids, nasolabial folds, and retroauricular areas** (the "shadow regions"), as pollen/dust can settle there. * **Common Allergen:** In India, *Parthenium hysterophorus* (Congress grass) is the most common cause. * **Management:** Avoidance of the allergen is key. Topical steroids and sun protection are used for symptomatic relief. In chronic cases, azathioprine may be used as a steroid-sparing agent.

Q: A 19-year-old man develops a rash in the groin area. On examination, it is a large well-demarcated area of tan-brown discoloration around his left inguinal area. There is some scaling of the lesion when brushed with a tongue depressor. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?

Potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation of scrapings. ### Explanation The clinical presentation of a **well-demarcated, tan-brown, scaly lesion** in the inguinal area of a young man is highly suggestive of a superficial fungal infection, most likely **Tinea cruris** (jock itch). **1. Why KOH Preparation is Correct:** The **Potassium Hydroxide (KOH) preparation** is the gold standard initial diagnostic test for suspected fungal infections of the skin. When skin scrapings are treated with 10–20% KOH, the alkaline solution dissolves keratinocytes and debris, allowing for the clear visualization of fungal elements like **septate hyphae** or spores under a microscope. The "scaling when brushed" (positive scratch sign) indicates active fungal shedding or associated pityriasis, making KOH the most efficient and cost-effective bedside tool. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Punch Biopsy:** This is an invasive procedure used for deep inflammatory conditions or suspected malignancies. It is not indicated for a simple, superficial scaly rash. * **Tzanck Smear:** This is used for the diagnosis of **herpetic infections** (HSV, VZV) to look for multinucleated giant cells, not fungal infections. * **Blood Culture:** This is used for systemic/disseminated fungal infections (e.g., Candidemia). Superficial dermatophytosis does not involve the bloodstream. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Differential Diagnosis:** If the lesion showed **coral-red fluorescence** under Wood’s lamp, the diagnosis would be **Erythrasma** (caused by *Corynebacterium minutissimum*). * **Tinea Cruris vs. Candidiasis:** Tinea cruris typically **spares the scrotum**, whereas Candidal intertrigo involves the scrotum and presents with **satellite lesions**. * **Treatment:** First-line treatment for localized Tinea cruris is topical antifungals (e.g., Clotrimazole, Terbinafine). Avoid topical steroids as they lead to **Tinea incognito**.

Q: Which of the following statements is not true regarding keloids?

They typically involve flexor surfaces of the limbs.. **Explanation:** Keloids are benign fibroproliferative growths resulting from an exaggerated healing response to skin injury. The correct answer is **D** because keloids characteristically involve **extensor surfaces** and areas of high skin tension, rather than flexor surfaces. **Why Option D is incorrect (The Correct Choice):** Keloids have a predilection for specific anatomical sites known as "keloid-prone areas." These include the **presternal area (most common)**, deltoid region, upper back, and earlobes. They typically avoid the face (except the jawline) and flexor creases. **Analysis of other options:** * **Option A:** Keloids most frequently affect individuals between **10 and 30 years** of age. They are rare in the very young or the elderly, likely due to the higher rate of collagen synthesis and skin tension in young adults. * **Option B:** This is the defining clinical feature of a keloid. Unlike hypertrophic scars (which stay within the wound boundary), keloids **extend beyond the margins** of the original injury and rarely regress spontaneously. * **Option C:** Epidemiological studies suggest a slightly **higher incidence in females**, often attributed to a higher frequency of ear piercing and cosmetic procedures. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Histology:** Characterized by thick, eosinophilic, "glassy" **hyaline collagen bundles** (collagen type I and III). * **Genetics:** More common in darker skin types (Fitzpatrick IV-VI); associated with HLA-B14 and HLA-B21. * **Treatment:** Intralesional **Triamcinolone acetonide** (10–40 mg/mL) is the first-line therapy. Other options include cryotherapy, silicone gel sheeting, and pressure therapy. * **Key Distinction:** Hypertrophic scars appear early (4–6 weeks), stay within boundaries, and may regress; Keloids appear late (months to years), invade normal tissue, and do not regress.

Q: What is the most appropriate management for recurrent keloids?

Intramarginal excision followed by radiation. **Explanation:** The management of **recurrent keloids** is challenging because simple surgical excision has an exceptionally high recurrence rate (up to 45–100%). **Why Option B is Correct:** The gold standard for recurrent or recalcitrant keloids is **Intramarginal (intralesional) excision** followed by adjuvant therapy, most commonly **Radiotherapy**. * **Intramarginal Excision:** Unlike traditional surgery, the incision is made *within* the keloid margin, leaving a small rim of keloid tissue. This avoids triggering a new inflammatory response in the surrounding healthy dermis. * **Radiation:** Post-operative radiotherapy (usually started within 24–48 hours) inhibits fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis, significantly reducing the risk of recurrence to less than 10–20%. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **A. Excisional Surgery:** Simple extramarginal excision often leads to larger recurrences due to the stimulation of new collagen at the wound edges. * **C. Cryosurgery:** While useful for very small, early keloids (by causing vascular stasis and necrosis), it is rarely effective as a monotherapy for large or recurrent lesions. * **D. Silicone Gel Sheeting:** This is a non-invasive prophylactic measure or an adjunct treatment. It is insufficient as a primary treatment for established recurrent keloids. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **First-line treatment** for most keloids: **Intralesional Triamcinolone Acetate (TAC)** (10–40 mg/ml). * **Keloids vs. Hypertrophic Scars:** Keloids extend *beyond* the original wound boundaries and do not regress spontaneously; hypertrophic scars stay *within* the boundaries and may regress. * **Common Site:** Presternal area, deltoid, and earlobes. * **Earlobes:** Often treated with "Pressure Earrings" post-excision to prevent recurrence.

Q: A child presents with erythematous, non-blanching, bosselated lesions on the left side of the face. What is the treatment of choice?

Flash light-pumped dye laser. ### Explanation **Correct Answer: C. Flash light-pumped dye laser (FPDL)** The clinical description—erythematous, non-blanching, bosselated (bumpy/lobulated) lesions—is characteristic of a **Port-Wine Stain (PWS)** or a **Capillary Malformation**. The **Flash light-pumped pulsed dye laser (FPDL)**, typically at a wavelength of **585 nm or 595 nm**, is the gold standard treatment for vascular lesions like PWS. It operates on the principle of **selective photothermolysis**. The laser energy is specifically absorbed by **oxyhemoglobin** (the chromophore) within the blood vessels, leading to thermal destruction of the vessel walls while sparing the surrounding skin. This minimizes scarring, making it ideal for pediatric facial lesions. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Erbium:YAG Laser (2940 nm):** This is an ablative laser used primarily for skin resurfacing and removing benign epidermal growths. It targets water, not hemoglobin. * **B. Nd:YAG Laser (1064 nm):** While used for deeper vascular malformations due to its high penetration depth, it carries a higher risk of scarring and is not the first-line "treatment of choice" for superficial PWS. * **D. Q-switched Ruby Laser (694 nm):** This is primarily used for pigmentary disorders (like Nevus of Ota) and black/blue tattoo removal. It targets melanin, not vascular structures. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Chromophore for Vascular Lasers:** Oxyhemoglobin. * **Chromophore for Pigment/Tattoo Lasers:** Melanin/Exogenous ink. * **Port-Wine Stains:** Unlike strawberry hemangiomas, PWS do not involute spontaneously; they grow proportionately with the child and may become "bosselated" or hypertrophic over time. * **Sturge-Weber Syndrome:** Always rule this out if a PWS involves the V1/V2 distribution of the trigeminal nerve.

Q: Which diagnostic procedure involves applying pressure to a suspected lesion to visualize the evacuation of its coloration?

Diascopy. **Explanation:** **Diascopy** is a simple bedside diagnostic technique used to determine if a skin lesion is **vascular (blanchable)** or **extravasated (non-blanchable)**. The procedure involves pressing a clear glass slide or a plastic plate (diascope) against the lesion. * **Mechanism:** Pressure causes the blood vessels to empty. If the redness disappears (**blanches**), it indicates dilated capillaries (e.g., erythema, telangiectasia, or hemangiomas). If the redness persists, it indicates **extravasation of red blood cells** into the dermis (e.g., purpura, petechiae, or ecchymosis). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Fluoroscopy:** An imaging technique that uses X-rays to obtain real-time moving images of the interior of an object (e.g., guiding catheters or viewing GI motility). * **C. Arthroscopy:** A minimally invasive surgical procedure used to visualize, diagnose, and treat problems inside a joint using an endoscope. * **D. Endoscopy:** A general term for a procedure where an instrument (endoscope) is introduced into the body to view internal organs or cavities (e.g., Gastroscopy). **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Apple-Jelly Nodules:** Diascopy is classically used to identify the "apple-jelly" appearance (yellowish-brown color) in **Lupus Vulgaris** (cutaneous tuberculosis) and Sarcoidosis. 2. **Granulomatous diseases:** The pressure of the slide reveals the underlying granulomatous infiltrate once the vascular component is compressed. 3. **Purpura vs. Erythema:** This is the most common clinical application; purpura does **not** blanch under pressure.

Q: Which of the following agents is used for deep chemical peels?

Carbolic acid. Chemical peeling is a procedure where a chemical agent is applied to the skin to cause controlled destruction of a portion of the epidermis and/or dermis. Peels are classified based on the depth of penetration: **Superficial, Medium, and Deep.** **Explanation of the Correct Answer:** * **Carbolic Acid (Phenol):** This is the classic agent used for **deep chemical peels**. It penetrates into the mid-reticular dermis. The most common formulation is the **Baker-Gordon formula** (containing phenol, croton oil, Septisol, and water). It is used for severe photoaging, deep wrinkles, and scars. Due to its systemic absorption, it can be cardiotoxic, requiring cardiac monitoring during the procedure. **Explanation of Incorrect Options:** * **Glycolic Acid (Option B):** An Alpha-Hydroxy Acid (AHA) derived from sugarcane. It is typically used for **very superficial to superficial peels** (20–70% concentration). * **Mandelic Acid (Option C):** Another AHA derived from bitter almonds. It has a large molecular size, ensuring slow penetration, making it ideal for **superficial peels** in sensitive or dark skin types. * **Salicylic Acid (Option D):** A Beta-Hydroxy Acid (BHA). It is lipophilic and keratolytic, commonly used for **superficial peels** to treat acne and comedones. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Superficial Peels:** Glycolic acid, Salicylic acid, Jessner’s solution, Tretinoin. * **Medium Peels:** 35–50% Trichloroacetic acid (TCA). * **Deep Peels:** Phenol (Carbolic acid) >50%. * **Frosting:** A white precipitate seen during TCA peels due to protein coagulation. * **Baker-Gordon Formula:** Specifically associated with deep phenol peels.

Question 1

Unna boot is used for the treatment of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Varicose ulcers

Answer

Diabetic foot ulcer

Answer

Ankle instability

Answer

Calcaneum fracture

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT true regarding patch testing?

Accepted Answer

False negative results can occur in patients with angry back syndrome

Answer

Used to diagnose allergic contact dermatitis

Answer

Readings are typically taken after 48 hours

Answer

The T.R.U.E. test is a type of patch test

Question 3

A 45-year-old farmer presents with a 3-year history of itchy, erythematous papular lesions on the face, neck, 'V' area of the chest, and the dorsum of the hands and forearms. The lesions are more severe in the summer and improve significantly in the winter. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this condition?

Accepted Answer

Patch test

Answer

Skin biopsy

Answer

Intradermal prick test

Answer

Estimation of IgE levels in blood

Question 4

A 19-year-old man develops a rash in the groin area. On examination, it is a large well-demarcated area of tan-brown discoloration around his left inguinal area. There is some scaling of the lesion when brushed with a tongue depressor. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?

Accepted Answer

Potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation of scrapings

Answer

Punch biopsy of skin

Answer

Tzanck smear

Answer

Blood culture for fungi

Question 5

Which of the following statements is not true regarding keloids?

Accepted Answer

They typically involve flexor surfaces of the limbs.

Answer

The 10-30 year age group is more commonly involved.

Answer

The scar tissue outgrows the original wound area.

Answer

Females are more commonly affected than males.

Question 6

What is the most effective treatment for capillary nevus?

Accepted Answer

Argon laser treatment

Answer

Full thickness skin graft

Answer

Dermabrasion

Answer

Tatooing

Question 7

What is the most appropriate management for recurrent keloids?

Accepted Answer

Intramarginal excision followed by radiation

Answer

Excisional surgery

Answer

Cryosurgery

Answer

Silicone gel sheeting

Question 8

A child presents with erythematous, non-blanching, bosselated lesions on the left side of the face. What is the treatment of choice?

Accepted Answer

Flash light-pumped dye laser

Answer

Erbium laser

Answer

Nd-YAG laser

Answer

Q-switched ruby laser

Question 9

Which diagnostic procedure involves applying pressure to a suspected lesion to visualize the evacuation of its coloration?

Accepted Answer

Diascopy

Answer

Fluoroscopy

Answer

Arthroscopy

Answer

Endoscopy

Question 10

Which of the following agents is used for deep chemical peels?

Accepted Answer

Carbolic acid

Answer

Glycolic acid

Answer

Mandelic acid

Answer

Salicylic acid

Dermatological Procedures — MCQs

Dermatological Procedures — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?