Surgical Implications of Variations — MCQs
Complications of sling procedures (TVT) for USI are all except:
Which of the following procedures would be difficult to perform based on the given Chest X-ray?
Most common congenital uterine anomaly is?
Which of the following structures is not a boundary of Calot's triangle shown in the given image?
Which arch artery contributes to the formation of the aortic arch that influences the course of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve?
What imaging study is typically required before endoscopic sinus surgery?
The complication which will not occur after PCNL surgery:
Most sensitive investigation for preoperative localization of abnormal parathyroid glands is
Ligation of the common hepatic artery will compromise blood flow in
Which of the following is NOT a TRUE statement about fibrous dysplasia?
Surgical Implications of Variations Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Complications of sling procedures (TVT) for USI are all except:
- A. Obturator nerve injury is about 10% (Correct Answer)
- B. Overactive bladder in about 7% cases
- C. Injury to bladder and wound haematoma
- D. Sling erosion particularly with polytetrafluoroethylene (Goretex)
Explanation: ***Obturator nerve injury is about 10%*** ✓ **CORRECT ANSWER (NOT a complication of TVT)** - **Obturator nerve injury** is exceedingly rare during **TVT (Tension-free Vaginal Tape)** procedures, which use a retropubic approach through the space of Retzius. - This complication is primarily associated with **TOT (Trans-Obturator Tape)** procedures where the tape passes near the obturator foramen, not with standard retropubic TVT. - The incidence of obturator nerve injury in TVT is essentially negligible (<0.1%), nowhere near 10%. *Overactive bladder in about 7% cases* - **De novo overactive bladder (OAB)** symptoms or worsening of pre-existing OAB can occur in 3-15% of patients after TVT procedures, with 7% being a commonly cited figure. - This occurs due to changes in bladder neck support, urethral kinking, or irritation from the sling material. *Injury to bladder and wound haematoma* - **Bladder injury/perforation** occurs in 2-5% of TVT cases due to the retropubic passage of needles close to the bladder, which is why intraoperative cystoscopy is routinely performed. - **Wound hematoma** can occur at the vaginal or suprapubic incision sites as a common surgical complication from tissue dissection and bleeding. *Sling erosion particularly with polytetrafluoroethylene (Goretex)* - **Sling erosion** into the vagina or urethra is a documented complication of synthetic slings, with rates of 0.5-3% for modern materials. - **Polytetrafluoroethylene (Goretex)**, an older first-generation mesh material, was associated with significantly higher rates of erosion (up to 10%) and infection compared to modern monofilament polypropylene meshes, which is why it has been largely discontinued for sling procedures.
Question 2: Which of the following procedures would be difficult to perform based on the given Chest X-ray?
- A. Tracheostomy (Correct Answer)
- B. Laryngeal mask airway insertion
- C. Ryle's tube insertion
- D. Intubation
Explanation: ***Tracheostomy*** - The chest X-ray shows the presence of a **large thyroid mass** (appearing as a soft tissue density in the neck and upper mediastinum), which would displace the trachea and obscure anatomical landmarks, making a tracheostomy technically challenging and increasing the risk of complications. - A tracheostomy requires clear access to the anterior tracheal wall, which would be **directly obstructed** by the prominent thyroid hypertrophy visible on the X-ray. - This makes tracheostomy the **most difficult** procedure among the options, with significant risk of bleeding from engorged thyroid vessels and difficulty identifying the trachea. *Laryngeal mask airway insertion* - Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) insertion primarily involves placing a device over the **laryngeal inlet** and is not significantly affected by a mass lower in the neck impacting the trachea. - The LMA is a supraglottic device, and its placement does not require direct access to the trachea itself or the deeper structures of the neck. *Ryle's tube insertion* - Ryle's tube (nasogastric tube) insertion involves passing a tube from the **nose or mouth into the esophagus and stomach**. - This procedure is generally unaffected by a thyroid mass, as it primarily involves the gastrointestinal tract, which is anatomically separate from the trachea in the neck region. *Intubation* - Intubation (endotracheal intubation) involves placing a tube into the **trachea via the mouth or nose**, usually past the vocal cords. - While a large retrosternal thyroid mass can cause tracheal deviation and compression that may complicate intubation, it is generally **less difficult than tracheostomy** in this scenario. - Intubation can often be achieved with experienced anesthesia techniques (videolaryngoscopy, fiberoptic intubation), whereas tracheostomy faces direct surgical field obstruction by the thyroid mass itself. - The primary challenge for intubation is visualization and navigation past the vocal cords, not the direct anatomical obstruction at the surgical site that makes tracheostomy particularly difficult.
Question 3: Most common congenital uterine anomaly is?
- A. Bicornuate uterus
- B. Unicornuate uterus
- C. Arcuate uterus
- D. Septate uterus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Septate uterus*** - A septate uterus is the most common congenital uterine anomaly, characterized by a **fibrous or muscular septum** dividing the uterine cavity. - This anomaly results from incomplete resorption of the **müllerian ducts** during development. *Bicornuate uterus* - A bicornuate uterus involves **two uterine horns** that are partially or completely separate, leading to a heart-shaped uterus. - While relatively common, it is **less prevalent** than the septate uterus. *Unicornuate uterus* - A unicornuate uterus is an anomaly where only **one side of the müllerian duct develops**, resulting in a uterus with only one horn and one fallopian tube. - This is a **rare anomaly** compared to septate and bicornuate uteri. *Arcuate uterus* - An arcuate uterus is considered a **mild variant of a normal uterus**, with a slight indentation in the fundus. - It often has **no clinical significance** and is less severe than other anomalies.
Question 4: Which of the following structures is not a boundary of Calot's triangle shown in the given image?
- A. Common hepatic duct
- B. Cystic duct
- C. Inferior surface of the liver
- D. Gallbladder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gallbladder*** - The image depicts **Calot's triangle**, which is an important anatomical landmark in gallbladder surgery. The gallbladder itself is located within this region, but it is not one of the defined boundaries of the triangle. - While central to the anatomy shown, the **gallbladder** is surrounded by the structures that form the triangle's boundaries rather than bounding it itself. *Common hepatic duct* - The **common hepatic duct** forms the medial boundary of Calot's triangle. - This duct is formed by the union of the right and left hepatic ducts and carries bile from the liver. *Cystic duct* - The **cystic duct** forms the lateral (or inferior) boundary of Calot's triangle. - This duct connects the gallbladder to the common hepatic duct. *Inferior surface of the liver* - The **inferior surface of the liver** forms the superior boundary of Calot's triangle. - Specifically, this refers to the edge of the right lobe of the liver at the base of the gallbladder fossa.
Question 5: Which arch artery contributes to the formation of the aortic arch that influences the course of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve?
- A. 4th arch (Correct Answer)
- B. 3rd arch
- C. 5th arch
- D. 2nd arch
Explanation: ***4th arch*** - The **left fourth aortic arch artery** gives rise to the **aortic arch** distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery. - The left recurrent laryngeal nerve hooks around the **ductus arteriosus** (a remnant of the 6th arch artery) and the aortic arch, making its course dependent on the development of the 4th aortic arch [1]. *3rd arch* - The **third aortic arch arteries** primarily contribute to the formation of the common carotid arteries and the proximal part of the internal carotid arteries. - These arteries are located superior to the structures that influence the recurrent laryngeal nerve's path. *5th arch* - The **fifth aortic arch arteries** are **rudimentary** or absent in humans. - They do not significantly contribute to the formation of major arterial structures in the adult, nor do they influence the recurrent laryngeal nerve. *2nd arch* - The **second aortic arch arteries** give rise to the stapedial arteries, which usually regress. - They are not involved in the formation of the great vessels in the mediastinum or the course of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Question 6: What imaging study is typically required before endoscopic sinus surgery?
- A. MRI of paranasal sinus
- B. CT of PNS (Correct Answer)
- C. Acoustic tests
- D. Mucociliary clearing testing
Explanation: ***CT of PNS*** - A **CT scan of the paranasal sinuses** is crucial prior to endoscopic sinus surgery for detailed anatomical mapping. - It helps identify **key anatomical landmarks**, variations, and the extent of disease, minimizing surgical risks. *MRI of paranasal sinus* - **MRI** is generally reserved for evaluating **soft tissue abnormalities**, such as tumors, fungal infections, or intracranial extension. - It provides less detail regarding **bony anatomy** and is not the primary imaging modality for surgical planning in routine cases. *Mucociliary clearing testing* - **Mucociliary clearing tests** assess the function of the **mucociliary escalator** in the nasal cavity and sinuses. - These tests are primarily diagnostic for conditions like **primary ciliary dyskinesia** and do not provide anatomical detail for surgical guidance. *Acoustic tests* - **Acoustic tests** are typically used to assess **hearing function** in the ear. - They have **no relevance** to the anatomical evaluation of the paranasal sinuses or planning for endoscopic sinus surgery.
Question 7: The complication which will not occur after PCNL surgery:
- A. Organ injury
- B. Urethral stricture (Correct Answer)
- C. Bleeding
- D. Sepsis
Explanation: ***Urethral stricture*** - **Urethral stricture** is a complication typically associated with transurethral procedures involving instrumentation through the urethra, such as a **Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP)** or repeated urethral catheterisation. - **PCNL (Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy)** involves direct access to the kidney through the skin in the flank, bypassing the urethra entirely, therefore, making urethral stricture not a direct complication of this procedure. *Organ injury* - **Organ injury**, particularly to adjacent organs like the **colon**, **pleura**, or **spleen/liver**, can occur during PCNL if the access tract is misdirected or during instrumentation. - This is a well-recognised but infrequent complication requiring careful pre-operative planning and imaging guidance. *Bleeding* - **Bleeding** is a common complication of PCNL due to the invasive nature of the procedure, involving puncture of the kidney and fragmentation of stones. - It can range from minor self-limiting bleeding to significant haemorrhage requiring transfusion or further intervention such as **angiography** and **embolization**. *Sepsis* - **Sepsis** is a serious potential complication, particularly if the patient has pre-existing urinary tract infection or if bacteria are dislodged during stone fragmentation. - **Infection** can disseminate into the bloodstream, leading to severe systemic inflammatory response syndrome and septic shock.
Question 8: Most sensitive investigation for preoperative localization of abnormal parathyroid glands is
- A. Neck ultrasound
- B. (99mTc) labelled Sestamibi isotope scan (Correct Answer)
- C. CT scan
- D. MRI
Explanation: ***(99mTc) labelled Sestamibi isotope scan*** - This scan uses a **radioactive tracer** that is preferentially taken up and retained by hyperfunctioning parathyroid tissue, making it highly sensitive for identifying **abnormal parathyroid glands**, especially parathyroid adenomas. - It is particularly useful for detecting **ectopic parathyroid glands** and in cases of persistent or recurrent hyperparathyroidism. *Neck ultrasound* - While useful for localizing parathyroid glands, its sensitivity can be limited by **operator dependence**, gland size, and location (e.g., retrosternal). - It is generally good for initial screening but not as sensitive as Sestamibi for identifying all abnormal glands, especially those located in challenging areas. *CT scan* - CT scans can visualize larger parathyroid adenomas, but their sensitivity is lower than Sestamibi scans for smaller lesions or those with **atypical locations**. - It is often used as a **second-line imaging modality** when Sestamibi is inconclusive or to complement findings. *MRI* - MRI can provide detailed anatomical information and identify parathyroid glands, but its sensitivity for detecting abnormal parathyroid tissue is generally **comparable to or slightly less** than CT and inferior to Sestamibi scanning. - It may be considered in cases of unclear findings from other modalities or when radiation exposure is a concern.
Question 9: Ligation of the common hepatic artery will compromise blood flow in
- A. Right gastric artery and short gastric arteries
- B. Right gastric artery and right gastroepiploic artery (Correct Answer)
- C. Right gastric artery and left gastric artery
- D. Right gastroepiploic artery and short gastric arteries
Explanation: ***Right gastric artery and right gastroepiploic artery*** - The **common hepatic artery** gives rise to the **gastroduodenal artery**, which then branches into the **right gastroepiploic artery** and the **superior pancreaticoduodenal artery**. - The **right gastric artery** typically arises from the **proper hepatic artery** (the continuation of the common hepatic artery after the gastroduodenal branches off), though it may occasionally arise directly from the common hepatic artery. - Therefore, ligation of the **common hepatic artery** would compromise blood flow to both these vessels. *Right gastric artery and short gastric arteries* - While the **right gastric artery** would be affected by common hepatic artery ligation, the **short gastric arteries** arise from the **splenic artery**. - Therefore, ligating the common hepatic artery would not compromise blood flow to the short gastric arteries. *Right gastric artery and left gastric artery* - The **right gastric artery** would be compromised by common hepatic artery ligation. - However, the **left gastric artery** is a direct branch of the **celiac trunk**, not the common hepatic artery, so its blood flow would remain unaffected. *Right gastroepiploic artery and short gastric arteries* - The **right gastroepiploic artery** is indeed a branch of the **gastroduodenal artery**, which comes from the **common hepatic artery**, so it would be compromised. - However, the **short gastric arteries** arise from the **splenic artery**, meaning their blood supply would not be affected by common hepatic artery ligation.
Question 10: Which of the following is NOT a TRUE statement about fibrous dysplasia?
- A. Thin cortices
- B. Characterised by replacement of normal lamellar bone by an abnormal fibrous tissue
- C. The polyostotic form is common in adults (Correct Answer)
- D. Ground-glass appearance
Explanation: ***The polyostotic form is common in adults*** - This statement is **not true**. The **polyostotic form** of fibrous dysplasia is more commonly diagnosed in **childhood** due to its widespread nature and earlier symptomatic presentation [1]. - While it can persist into adulthood, its onset and peak diagnosis are typically during formative years, making it less "common in adults" as an inaugural presentation [1]. *Thin cortices* - This is a **true statement** regarding fibrous dysplasia. The abnormal fibrous tissue expansion often leads to **thinning of the cortical bone**. - The expanded intramedullary lesion places pressure on the surrounding cortex, causing it to become attenuated but rarely broken. *Characterised by replacement of normal lamellar bone by an abnormal fibrous tissue* - This is a **true statement** and describes the fundamental pathology of fibrous dysplasia [1]. Normal **lamellar bone** is replaced by an immature, woven bone embedded within a **fibrous stroma**. - This disordered bone formation is due to a **post-zygotic mutation in the GNAS1 gene**, leading to abnormal osteoblast differentiation [1]. *Ground-glass appearance* - This is a **true statement** and a characteristic radiographic feature of fibrous dysplasia. The disorganized **woven bone** and fibrous matrix within the lesion absorb X-rays in a diffuse, homogeneous manner. - This results in a **classic "ground-glass" or "smoked glass" appearance** on plain radiographs, distinguishing it from other bone lesions. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1208.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free