UPSC-CMS 2021

107 Questions — Page 7 of 11

All (107)Anatomy (2)Anesthesiology (3)Biochemistry (2)Community Medicine (27)Internal Medicine (10)Obstetrics and Gynecology (32)Pathology (3)Pediatrics (4)Pharmacology (7)Physiology (2)Radiology (1)Surgery (14)

Community Medicine

2 questions

Q61

As per ICMR guidelines, which of the following are the criteria for SARS-COV-2 exposure for a pregnant female during the COVID-19 pandemic? 1. Travel to an affected country within previous 14 days 2. Close contact with a confirmed case within a distance of 1 metre for more than 15 minutes 3. Residing in a containment zone 4. Healthcare workers examining a confirmed case without adequate protection

Q62

Steroidal contraceptives available in the basket of contraceptive choice from Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India are

UPSC-CMS 2021 - Community Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 61: As per ICMR guidelines, which of the following are the criteria for SARS-COV-2 exposure for a pregnant female during the COVID-19 pandemic? 1. Travel to an affected country within previous 14 days 2. Close contact with a confirmed case within a distance of 1 metre for more than 15 minutes 3. Residing in a containment zone 4. Healthcare workers examining a confirmed case without adequate protection

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4 (Correct Answer)
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: ***1, 2 and 4*** - As per **ICMR guidelines for COVID-19 exposure assessment**, the criteria for direct SARS-CoV-2 exposure included: - **Travel to an affected country** within the previous 14 days (epidemiological link) - **Close contact with a confirmed case** (within 1 meter for more than 15 minutes without adequate protection) - **Healthcare workers examining confirmed cases** without adequate personal protective equipment - These represent **direct exposure pathways** requiring immediate testing and quarantine protocols for pregnant women. *1, 2 and 3* - While travel history and close contact are valid direct exposure criteria, **residing in a containment zone** represents an **area-based epidemiological risk factor** rather than a direct exposure event. - Containment zone residence warranted enhanced surveillance but did not constitute direct exposure unless accompanied by specific contact history or symptoms. - This option incorrectly omits criterion 4 (healthcare workers without protection), which was a critical direct occupational exposure pathway. *1, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes containment zone residence while **omitting close contact with a confirmed case** (criterion 2). - Close contact was the **most common and direct mode of transmission**, making it a fundamental exposure criterion that cannot be excluded. - The distinction between area-based risk (containment zone) and person-to-person exposure (close contact) was operationally important for triage and testing priorities. *2, 3 and 4* - This option omits **travel to an affected country**, which was crucial especially in the **early pandemic phases** when imported cases were a primary concern. - Travel history was an essential screening criterion for all individuals, including pregnant women, requiring mandatory testing and quarantine. - Again, this incorrectly elevates containment zone residence to a direct exposure criterion equivalent to documented close contact or occupational exposure.

Question 62: Steroidal contraceptives available in the basket of contraceptive choice from Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India are

A. Biphasic
B. Estrogen only pills
C. Monophasic (Correct Answer)
D. Triphasic

Explanation: ***Monophasic*** - **Monophasic oral contraceptive pills** are the formulation type available in India's National Family Planning Programme basket of contraceptive choices. - The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare provides **Mala-N** (Levonorgestrel 0.15mg + Ethinyl estradiol 0.03mg) and **Mala-D** (Desogestrel + Ethinyl estradiol) - both are monophasic formulations. - Monophasic pills contain a **fixed dose of estrogen and progestin** throughout the 21 active pill cycle, making them simpler to use and ensuring better compliance. *Biphasic* - **Biphasic pills** contain two different doses of hormones during the active pill cycle. - These are **not included** in the Government of India's national family planning programme basket of contraceptive choices. - Less commonly used compared to monophasic formulations. *Estrogen only pills* - **Estrogen-only pills** are not used as contraceptives due to the risk of **endometrial hyperplasia** and cancer if not balanced with progestin. - These are used for hormone replacement therapy or specific medical conditions, **not for contraception**. *Triphasic* - **Triphasic pills** contain three different dosages of hormones throughout the active pill cycle to mimic the natural menstrual cycle. - These are **not included** in the Government of India's national family planning programme basket. - Their varied dosing schedule is more complex and not preferred for widespread public health distribution.

Obstetrics and Gynecology

7 questions

Q61

A 25-year-old woman presents to the Gynaecology OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and heavy menstrual bleeding. On examination, there is a mass arising from the hypogastrium corresponding to 16 weeks gravid uterus. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. The most likely diagnosis is

Q62

A 39 year old nulliparous female has presented to Gynaecology OPD with complaint of post-coital bleeding for past six months. The first investigation to be offered to this female will be

Q63

Which of the following are indications of vaginal examinations during labour? 1. To stretch the vagina intermittently 2. At the onset of labour 3. To monitor progress of labour 4. Following rupture of membranes

Q64

Which of the following are the clinical features of septic abortion? 1. Persistent tachycardia ≥ 90 bpm 2. Impaired mental status 3. Hypothermia

Q65

Which one of the following statements regarding Rh isoimmunization is correct? 1. Liley's chart identifies anemia better than middle cerebral artery Doppler 2. Indirect Coombs test is positive in mother 3. Baby is at risk of developing anemia 4. Direct Coombs test is positive in baby

Q66

Consider the following statements : Statement-1 : In fetal growth restriction there is always oligohydramnios Statement-2 : In fetal growth restriction there is placental insufficiency leading to redistribution of blood flow to fetal brain shunting it from fetal kidney Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

Q67

Which of the following are correct regarding failure rate of contraceptive methods? 1. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate 0 to 1 per HWY 2. Norplant 0.1 per HWY 3. LNG-IUS 0.02 per HWY 4. Levonorgestrel-only pills 3 per HWY

UPSC-CMS 2021 - Obstetrics and Gynecology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 61: A 25-year-old woman presents to the Gynaecology OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and heavy menstrual bleeding. On examination, there is a mass arising from the hypogastrium corresponding to 16 weeks gravid uterus. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. The most likely diagnosis is

A. Endometriosis
B. Ovarian tumour
C. Uterine fibroid (Correct Answer)
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease

Explanation: ***Uterine fibroid*** - The combination of **heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia)**, **abdominal pain**, and a **palpable mass in the hypogastrium** corresponding to a 16-week gravid uterus in a young woman with a **negative pregnancy test** is classic for uterine fibroid. - Fibroids (leiomyomas) are **benign smooth muscle tumors** of the uterus that can grow to significant size, causing **bulk-related symptoms** and **abnormal uterine bleeding**. - This represents a **large symptomatic fibroid** with the classic triad: menorrhagia, pelvic mass, and pelvic pressure/pain. *Endometriosis* - While endometriosis can cause **cyclical pelvic pain** and **dysmenorrhea**, it typically does not present as a large, palpable mass mimicking a 16-week gravid uterus. - Endometriomas (chocolate cysts) can form masses but are usually **adnexal** rather than central, and menorrhagia is not the primary symptom. *Ovarian tumour* - An ovarian tumor could present with an **abdominal mass** and **pain**, but heavy menstrual bleeding is not a typical feature unless it's a **hormonally active tumor** (rare). - The description of the mass specifically corresponding to a "**gravid uterus**" suggests a **uterine origin** rather than an adnexal mass. - Ovarian masses are typically felt **laterally** or can be more mobile. *Pelvic inflammatory disease* - PID commonly causes **acute pelvic pain**, **fever**, **vaginal discharge**, and **cervical motion tenderness**, but does not typically manifest as a large, smooth, palpable mass arising from the hypogastrium. - Tubo-ovarian abscesses can form masses but are usually **tender**, **irregular**, and associated with **systemic signs of infection**.

Question 62: A 39 year old nulliparous female has presented to Gynaecology OPD with complaint of post-coital bleeding for past six months. The first investigation to be offered to this female will be

A. Pap smear (Correct Answer)
B. Hysteroscopy
C. Ultrasound
D. Endometrial biopsy

Explanation: ***Pap smear*** - **Post-coital bleeding** is a classic symptom of **cervical pathology**, including **cervical cancer**, which a Pap smear is designed to detect. - As a **screening tool**, a Pap smear is the appropriate initial investigation to broadly assess for abnormal cervical cells. *Hysteroscopy* - Hysteroscopy is an invasive procedure primarily used to visualize the **uterine cavity** and would be considered if concerns about intrauterine pathology arise after initial screening. - It's not the first-line investigation for post-coital bleeding, which typically points to a **cervical or vaginal source**. *Ultrasound* - **Pelvic ultrasound** is useful for evaluating uterine, ovarian, and adnexal pathologies but is less effective for directly visualizing the **cervical surface** where post-coital bleeding often originates. - It would be considered if there are other symptoms suggesting uterine or ovarian issues that aren't typically associated with post-coital bleeding alone. *Endometrial biopsy* - An **endometrial biopsy** is indicated for investigating **abnormal uterine bleeding** originating from the endometrium, such as in cases of suspected **endometrial hyperplasia** or cancer. - Post-coital bleeding is generally not an indication for an initial endometrial biopsy unless other findings suggest an endometrial origin.

Question 63: Which of the following are indications of vaginal examinations during labour? 1. To stretch the vagina intermittently 2. At the onset of labour 3. To monitor progress of labour 4. Following rupture of membranes

A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4 (Correct Answer)
D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: ***2, 3 and 4*** * Regular vaginal examinations are crucial for **monitoring the progress of labour**, assessing cervical dilation, effacement, and fetal station. * Examinations at the **onset of labour** establish a baseline for progress, and after **rupture of membranes**, they are important to check for **cord prolapse** and confirm fetal presentation. * *1, 3 and 4* * **Stretching the vagina intermittently** is not a standard indication for vaginal examination in labour. Labour progress is assessed, not physically hastened by stretching. * While monitoring progress and examining after membrane rupture are correct indications, the inclusion of "stretching the vagina" makes this option incorrect. * *1, 2 and 4* * Similar to the previous option, including **stretching the vagina intermittently** as an indication is incorrect. * Vaginal examinations are for assessment, not for mechanically dilating the vagina. * *1, 2 and 3* * This option again incorrectly includes **stretching the vagina intermittently** as an indication. * While examinations at the onset and for monitoring progress are valid, the presence of an incorrect indication makes the entire option invalid.

Question 64: Which of the following are the clinical features of septic abortion? 1. Persistent tachycardia ≥ 90 bpm 2. Impaired mental status 3. Hypothermia

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only

Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **Septic abortion** is a severe infection following an abortion, often presenting with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) criteria. - Clinical features such as **persistent tachycardia** (heart rate ≥ 90 bpm), **impaired mental status**, and even **hypothermia** (or fever) are indicators of severe infection and sepsis. *1 and 3 only* - While **persistent tachycardia** and **hypothermia** are indeed clinical features of septic abortion, this option is incomplete as it excludes **impaired mental status**. - **Impaired mental status** is a crucial sign of systemic compromise and organ dysfunction in sepsis. *2 and 3 only* - This option incorrectly omits **persistent tachycardia**, which is a common and important sign of systemic infection and fever in septic abortion. - **Tachycardia** is part of the objective criteria for recognizing sepsis and SIRS. *1 and 2 only* - This option is incomplete as it misses **hypothermia**, which can occur in severe sepsis, particularly in immunocompromised patients or those with severe bloodstream infections. - **Hypothermia** indicates a dysregulated host response to infection, just as fever does.

Question 65: Which one of the following statements regarding Rh isoimmunization is correct? 1. Liley's chart identifies anemia better than middle cerebral artery Doppler 2. Indirect Coombs test is positive in mother 3. Baby is at risk of developing anemia 4. Direct Coombs test is positive in baby

A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4 (Correct Answer)
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: ***2, 3 and 4 are correct*** - The **indirect Coombs test** identifies **anti-Rh antibodies** in the mother's serum, indicating she has been sensitized to Rh antigens. - The baby is at risk of developing **hemolytic anemia** due to transplacental passage of maternal anti-Rh antibodies, which destroy fetal red blood cells. - The **direct Coombs test** detects **anti-Rh antibodies** coating the baby's red blood cells, confirming immune-mediated hemolysis in the neonate. *1, 2 and 4* - **Middle cerebral artery (MCA) Doppler** is the preferred non-invasive method for detecting **fetal anemia** because it directly assesses blood flow velocity, which increases with anemia. - While Liley's chart was historically used to assess amniotic fluid bilirubin levels (a breakdown product of hemolysis), **MCA Doppler** is now considered more accurate and less invasive for identifying fetal anemia. *1, 3 and 4* - **Liley's chart** analyzes the **bilirubin levels** in amniotic fluid, which is an indirect indicator of hemolysis and fetal anemia. However, **MCA Doppler** is a more direct and accurate method for assessing fetal anemia. - The indirect Coombs test on the mother is a crucial diagnostic step in Rh isoimmunization, identifying the presence of **maternal antibodies**. *1, 2 and 3* - The **direct Coombs test** on the baby is essential for confirming **hemolytic disease of the newborn**, as it detects antibodies bound to the infant's red blood cells. - **Liley's chart** is less accurate than **MCA Doppler** for assessing fetal anemia, as Doppler measurements provide a real-time assessment of fetal blood flow.

Question 66: Consider the following statements : Statement-1 : In fetal growth restriction there is always oligohydramnios Statement-2 : In fetal growth restriction there is placental insufficiency leading to redistribution of blood flow to fetal brain shunting it from fetal kidney Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

A. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-1
B. Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false
C. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
D. Statement-2 is true but Statement-1 is false (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Statement-2 is true but Statement-1 is false*** **Statement-1 Analysis**: "In fetal growth restriction there is always oligohydramnios" - This statement is **FALSE** due to the absolute term "always" - Oligohydramnios is a **common** but not universal finding in FGR - It occurs more frequently in asymmetric FGR and severe cases with significant placental insufficiency - Early or mild FGR may present with normal amniotic fluid volume - Other types of FGR (symmetric FGR) may not be associated with oligohydramnios **Statement-2 Analysis**: "In fetal growth restriction there is placental insufficiency leading to redistribution of blood flow to fetal brain shunting it from fetal kidney" - This statement is **TRUE** and accurately describes the pathophysiology of FGR - **Placental insufficiency** impairs oxygen and nutrient delivery to the fetus - This triggers **compensatory blood flow redistribution** (brain-sparing effect) - Blood is preferentially shunted to vital organs (brain, heart, adrenals) - Blood flow is reduced to less critical organs, particularly the **kidneys** - Reduced renal perfusion → decreased fetal urine production → oligohydramnios (when present) **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** *Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-1* - Incorrect because Statement-1 is false (oligohydramnios is not "always" present in FGR) *Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false* - Incorrect because Statement-1 is false and Statement-2 is true (reverses the actual truth values) *Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for Statement-1* - Incorrect because Statement-1 is false (the absolute qualifier "always" makes it inaccurate)

Question 67: Which of the following are correct regarding failure rate of contraceptive methods? 1. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate 0 to 1 per HWY 2. Norplant 0.1 per HWY 3. LNG-IUS 0.02 per HWY 4. Levonorgestrel-only pills 3 per HWY

A. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA)**, **Norplant** (levonorgestrel implants), and **Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)** are highly effective contraceptive methods with very low failure rates, typically below 1 pregnancy per 100 women-years (HWY) for typical use. - The quoted failure rates of 0 to 1 per HWY for DMPA, 0.1 per HWY for Norplant, and 0.02 per HWY for LNG-IUS are consistent with their known efficacy as **long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs)** and hormonal methods. *1, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes the failure rate for **levonorgestrel-only pills (minipills)**. While minipills are effective, their typical use failure rate is generally higher than 3 per HWY, often closer to 7-10 pregnancies per 100 women-years due to the strict adherence required for daily dosing. - The failure rates for DMPA and LNG-IUS are accurate, but the inclusion of incorrectly low typical failure rate for levonorgestrel-only pills makes this option incorrect. *1, 2 and 4* - This option is incorrect because the typical failure rate of **levonorgestrel-only pills** is much higher than 3 per HWY in real-world use, often due to missed doses or delayed administration. - While DMPA and Norplant have low failure rates, the inaccuracy for levonorgestrel-only pills makes this choice invalid. *2, 3 and 4* - This option inaccurately suggests that the failure rate for **levonorgestrel-only pills** is 3 per HWY, which is generally lower than their actual typical use failure rates (closer to 7-10 pregnancies per 100 women-years). - The failure rates for Norplant and LNG-IUS are correct, but the error regarding levonorgestrel-only pills renders this option incorrect.

Pharmacology

1 questions

Q61

Consider the following in respect of Ormeloxifene : 1. It is a research product of Central Drug Research Institute, Lucknow 2. It is a steroidal compound 3. It is a potent antiestrogen with weak estrogenic properties 4. It does not inhibit ovulation Which of the above are correct ?