UPSC-CMS 2021 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements regarding Ogilvie’s syndrome are correct? 1. It presents as acute large bowel mechanical obstruction 2. Marked caecal dilatation is a common feature on X-ray abdomen 3. Caecal perforation is a well recognized complication of this condition 4. Intravenous Neostigmine is used for the treatment of this condition

2, 3 and 4. **2, 3 and 4** - **Marked caecal dilatation** is a hallmark of Ogilvie's syndrome on X-ray, indicating the pseudo-obstruction. - **Caecal perforation** is a serious and well-recognized complication, especially if the caecal diameter exceeds 12-14 cm. - **Intravenous Neostigmine** is a parasympathomimetic drug used to stimulate colonic motility and is an effective treatment for Ogilvie's syndrome. *1, 3 and 4* - Ogilvie's syndrome is characterized by **acute large bowel pseudo-obstruction**, meaning it mimics a mechanical obstruction without an actual physical blockage. - Therefore, statement 1, which claims it presents as acute large bowel *mechanical* obstruction, is incorrect. *1, 2 and 3* - As noted, Ogilvie's syndrome is a **pseudo-obstruction**, not a mechanical one, making statement 1 incorrect. - The other statements regarding caecal dilatation and perforation are correct. *1, 2 and 4* - Again, the key differentiating factor is that Ogilvie's syndrome is a **pseudo-obstruction**, not a mechanical obstruction, rendering statement 1 inaccurate. - Statements 2 and 4 are accurate descriptions of the condition and its treatment.

Q: A 50 year old male patient presents to the emergency with sudden onset of upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting and haematemesis. On examination, PR = 106/min, BP = 100/70 mm Hg and pallor is present. CECT abdomen reveals a large exophytic tumor of size 13 x 8 cm at the fundus of the stomach. On upper GI endoscopy, the mucosa overlying the tumor is intact. The staining for CD117 in the upper GI endoscopic biopsy is positive. The most probable clinical diagnosis in this patient is

Gastrointestinal stromal tumor. ***Gastrointestinal stromal tumor*** - The rapid onset of symptoms like **upper abdominal pain**, **nausea**, **vomiting**, and **hematemesis**, along with signs of **hypovolemia** (tachycardia, hypotension, pallor), suggests acute gastrointestinal bleeding from a tumor [1]. - A **large exophytic tumor** in the stomach fundus with **intact overlying mucosa** on endoscopy points to a **submucosal lesion**, and **positive CD117 (c-Kit)** staining is a hallmark diagnostic feature of GISTs. *Carcinoid tumor* - While carcinoid tumors can occur in the gastrointestinal tract, they are typically **neuroendocrine tumors** and less commonly present as large, exophytic masses causing acute massive bleeding with the same frequency as GISTs. - Carcinoid tumors typically stain positive for **chromogranin A** and **synaptophysin**, not CD117. *Gastric lymphoma* - Gastric lymphoma commonly presents with **ulcerations** or infiltrative lesions of the gastric wall, which would typically cause mucosal disruption on endoscopy [2]. - Lymphomas are characterized by lymphoid markers like **CD20** or **CD3**, and not CD117 [2]. *Carcinoma stomach* - **Gastric carcinoma** often presents with **mucosal irregularities**, **ulcerations**, or **masses** that arise directly from the gastric epithelium, which would be visible on endoscopy as an invasive lesion [3]. - Gastric carcinomas are typically epithelial in origin and would not stain positive for **CD117**.

Q: Among the extra intestinal manifestations of Crohn’s disease which one of the following is related to the disease activity ?

Eye complications (Iritis/Uveitis). ***Eye complications (Iritis/Uveitis)*** - **Uveitis and iritis** in Crohn's disease often correlate with disease activity, meaning flares in the bowel disease can trigger or worsen these ocular manifestations [1]. - Successful treatment of the underlying intestinal inflammation frequently leads to improvement or resolution of these **eye complications** [1]. *Primary sclerosing cholangitis* - **Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)** is a chronic liver disease associated with inflammatory bowel disease, particularly ulcerative colitis, but its course is largely **independent of IBD activity**. - It progresses irrespective of intestinal disease flares and often requires its **own specific management**. *Renal calculi* - **Renal calculi (kidney stones)** can be a complication of Crohn's disease, linked to fluid loss and changes in oxalate absorption, but their occurrence is generally **not directly correlated with the inflammatory activity** of the bowel disease. - Instead, factors like **dehydration** and calcium/oxalate metabolism are more significant drivers. *Chronic active hepatitis* - While various hepatic manifestations can occur in Crohn's disease, **chronic active hepatitis** is not one of the well-established extraintestinal manifestations directly linked to disease activity. - Other liver conditions like **fatty liver disease** or **drug-induced liver injury** are more commonly seen, but their presence doesn't typically parallel intestinal inflammation.

Q: The Model for End Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score includes which of the following variables? 1. Serum bilirubin 2. Serum albumin 3. Serum creatinine 4. International Normalised Ratio (INR)

1, 3 and 4. ***1, 3 and 4*** - The **MELD score** calculates a patient's risk of death due to **end-stage liver disease** using **serum bilirubin**, **serum creatinine**, and **INR** [1]. - These variables reflect important aspects of **liver function** (bilirubin and INR) and **renal function** (creatinine), which is often compromised in advanced liver disease [1]. *1, 2 and 4* - This option correctly includes **serum bilirubin** and **INR** but incorrectly includes **serum albumin** as a component of the MELD score. - While **albumin** is a measure of **liver synthetic function** and is used in the **Child-Pugh score**, it is not part of the MELD calculation [1]. *2, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes **serum albumin** and omits **serum bilirubin**, which are critical components of the MELD score. - **Serum bilirubin** is a direct indicator of the liver's ability to process and excrete bile. *1, 2 and 3* - This option includes **serum albumin** while omitting **INR**, a crucial indicator of the liver's **synthetic function** and its ability to produce clotting factors. - The **INR** directly reflects the liver's capacity to synthesize **coagulation proteins**.

Q: Which of the following statements with regard to Enteric perforation are correct? 1. Salmonella typhi is the causative organism for Enteric fever 2. Enteric perforation characteristically occurs during the third week of illness 3. Typhoid ulcers are placed transversely to the long axis of the gut 4. Terminal ileum is the most common site for enteric perforation

1, 2 and 4. ***1, 2 and 4*** * **Salmonella typhi** is indeed the causative organism for **enteric fever**, often known as typhoid fever. * **Enteric perforation** characteristically occurs during the **third week of illness** due to progressive ulceration of **Peyer's patches** [1]. * The **terminal ileum** is the **most common site** for enteric perforation because it has the highest concentration of **Peyer's patches**, which are target sites for Salmonella typhi [1]. *2, 3 and 4* * While enteric perforation typically occurs in the third week and the terminal ileum is the most common site, the statement about **typhoid ulcers** being placed transversely is incorrect. * **Typhoid ulcers** are characteristically oriented **longitudinally** along the long axis of the gut, following the orientation of the underlying Peyer's patches [1]. *1, 3 and 4* * Although Salmonella typhi is the causative organism and the terminal ileum is the most common site, the statement about **typhoid ulcers** being placed **transversely** is incorrect. * Perforation typically occurs during the **third week of illness**, which is an important clinical detail missed in this option [1]. *1, 2 and 3* * **Salmonella typhi** is the causative organism for enteric fever, and perforation does occur during the **third week of illness** [1]. * However, the statement that **typhoid ulcers** are placed **transversely** is incorrect; they are **longitudinal** in orientation.

Q: A 43 year old woman presented with serous discharge from a single duct of the nipple of her right breast which was sent for evaluation. She is unlikely to be suffering from

Fibrocystic disease. ***Fibrocystic disease*** - **Fibrocystic changes** usually present with **lumpy breasts**, pain, and sometimes **multiple** duct nipple discharge, which can be clear or milky. - A **single duct serous discharge** is not a typical presentation, making it less likely given the details. *Intraductal Papilloma* - **Intraductal papilloma** is the **most common cause** of **serous or bloody nipple discharge** from a **single duct**. - This benign tumor grows within the milk ducts and is a frequent finding with the described symptoms. *Carcinoma* - **Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)** or **invasive ductal carcinoma** can present with **unilateral, bloody or serous nipple discharge** from a **single duct**. - The type of discharge and its unilateral, single-duct nature are concerning features that warrant malignancy exclusion. *Duct Ectasia* - **Duct ectasia** can cause nipple discharge which is often **thick, sticky, and multicolored** (green, black, or brown), and may be associated with **nipple inversion**. - While it can be from a single duct, the discharge is typically **not serous** and is more characteristic of a **dilated or inflamed duct**.

Q: Which of the following statements regarding hepatic adenomas are correct? 1. They are almost exclusively seen in females aged 25-50 years 2. They are associated with the use of oral contraceptive pills 3. They do not have any malignant potential 4. Majority are detected incidentally on imaging

1, 2 and 4. ***1, 2 and 4*** - **Hepatic adenomas** are indeed almost exclusively seen in **females aged 25-50 years**, primarily due to their association with hormonal factors. - They are strongly associated with the use of **oral contraceptive pills** (OCPs) and other exogenous estrogens [1]. - The majority of hepatic adenomas are detected **incidentally on imaging** performed for other reasons, as they are often asymptomatic unless complications arise. - While most hepatic adenomas are benign, they do carry a **risk of malignant transformation**, particularly larger lesions or certain subtypes [1]. *2, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly states that hepatic adenomas **do not have any malignant potential**; however, certain subtypes and larger adenomas can undergo malignant transformation [1]. - The other statements regarding association with OCPs and incidental detection are correct. *1, 3 and 4* - This choice incorrectly claims that hepatic adenomas **do not have any malignant potential**, which is false as there is a recognized risk of transformation to **hepatocellular carcinoma** [1]. - It also omits the correct statement about their association with OCPs. *1, 2 and 3* - This option incorrectly asserts that hepatic adenomas **do not have any malignant potential**, which contradicts current medical understanding as they can transform into **hepatocellular carcinoma** [1]. - It also omits the common finding that they are often detected incidentally. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, pp. 874-875.

Q: An eight month old male child is brought to the emergency with recurrent episodes of screaming and drawing up of legs. The child appears to be listless in between the attacks. Local examination of abdomen reveals feeling of emptiness in the right iliac fossa and blood stained mucus is found on the finger on rectal examination. The most probable clinical diagnosis in this child is

Acute intussusception. ***Acute intussusception*** - The classic triad of symptoms in an infant – **intermittent abdominal pain** (screaming, drawing up legs), **vomiting**, and **currant jelly stools** (blood-stained mucus) – is highly indicative of intussusception. - The presence of a **"dance sign"** (emptiness in the right iliac fossa due to the displacement of the cecum) and a palpable sausage-shaped mass (though not explicitly stated, implied by emptiness) further supports this diagnosis. *Rectal prolapse* - While rectal prolapse can present with crying and blood in the stool, it would typically involve the **visible protrusion of rectal tissue from the anus**, which is not described. - It does not cause the intermittent severe abdominal pain and listlessness consistent with an acute intestinal obstruction. *Midgut volvulus* - Midgut volvulus typically presents with **bilious vomiting** and signs of acute intestinal obstruction and ischemia (e.g., severe abdominal distension, peritonitis, shock). - While it can cause bloody stools due to ischemia, the characteristic **intermittent pain and asymptomatic periods** between attacks, along with the specific rectal findings, are more characteristic of intussusception. *Caecal volvulus* - Caecal volvulus is more common in **older children or adults** and presents with acute abdominal pain, distension, and signs of large bowel obstruction. - It would not typically present with the intermittent episodes of pain and the classic **"currant jelly" stools** or the "dance sign" seen in intussusception in an infant.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a classical symptom of acute appendicitis ?

Constipation. ***Constipation*** - While patients with appendicitis may experience altered bowel habits, **constipation is not a classic or defining symptom**; **diarrhea** can even be present. - The primary symptoms relate to inflammation and irritation of the appendix, not typically leading to significant constipation. *Periumbilical colic* - This is a very common early symptom, often described as a **vague, dull pain around the umbilicus** as the appendix initially becomes inflamed. - The pain later **migrates to the right lower quadrant** as the inflammation localizes to the parietal peritoneum. *Anorexia* - **Loss of appetite** is a highly characteristic and almost universal symptom in patients with acute appendicitis. - It often precedes the onset of abdominal pain and is considered a significant diagnostic indicator. *Nausea* - **Nausea and vomiting** are very common symptoms, often following the onset of abdominal pain. - These gastrointestinal symptoms are due to the visceral irritation caused by the inflamed appendix.

Q: A 35 year old male patient with enteric fever presents to the emergency with sudden onset of generalised abdominal pain, abdominal distension, nausea, vomiting and constipation for last 48 hours. On examination, patient is dehydrated with PR = 110/min and BP = 100/60 mm Hg. There is generalised tenderness, rebound tenderness present and board like rigidity on per abdomen examination. The most likely complication of enteric fever in this patient is

Small bowel perforation. ***Small bowel perforation*** - The sudden onset of **generalised abdominal pain**, **distension**, **rebound tenderness**, and **board-like rigidity** in a patient with enteric fever strongly indicate **peritoneal irritation** due to perforation. - **Enteric fever** (typhoid) commonly causes **Peyer's patch hyperplasia and necrosis**, leading to full-thickness bowel wall damage and perforation, typically in the **ileum**. *Cholecystitis* - While cholecystitis can occur with enteric fever, it usually presents with **right upper quadrant pain**, **fever**, and **leukocytosis**, not generalized abdominal pain or peritoneal signs. - It does not typically cause **board-like rigidity** or signs of **perforation**. *Small bowel enteritis* - Small bowel enteritis causes **crampy abdominal pain**, **diarrhea**, and **vomiting**, but usually without the severe peritoneal signs like generalized tenderness and board-like rigidity. - It does not typically lead to systemic signs of shock and severe peritonitis as seen in this patient. *Small bowel obstruction* - Small bowel obstruction presents with **abdominal pain**, **distension**, **vomiting**, and **constipation**, but usually with **hyperactive bowel sounds** initially, progressing to absent. - The presence of **rebound tenderness** and **board-like rigidity** points more towards peritonitis from perforation rather than uncomplicated obstruction.

Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding Ogilvie’s syndrome are correct?

1. It presents as acute large bowel mechanical obstruction

2. Marked caecal dilatation is a common feature on X-ray abdomen

3. Caecal perforation is a well recognized complication of this condition

4. Intravenous Neostigmine is used for the treatment of this condition

Accepted Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Question 2

A 50 year old male patient presents to the emergency with sudden onset of upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting and haematemesis. On examination, PR = 106/min, BP = 100/70 mm Hg and pallor is present. CECT abdomen reveals a large exophytic tumor of size 13 x 8 cm at the fundus of the stomach. On upper GI endoscopy, the mucosa overlying the tumor is intact. The staining for CD117 in the upper GI endoscopic biopsy is positive. The most probable clinical diagnosis in this patient is

Accepted Answer

Gastrointestinal stromal tumor

Answer

Carcinoid tumor

Answer

Gastric lymphoma

Answer

Carcinoma stomach

Question 3

Among the extra intestinal manifestations of Crohn’s disease which one of the following is related to the disease activity ?

Accepted Answer

Eye complications (Iritis/Uveitis)

Answer

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Answer

Renal calculi

Answer

Chronic active hepatitis

Question 4

The Model for End Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score includes which of the following variables?

1. Serum bilirubin
2. Serum albumin
3. Serum creatinine
4. International Normalised Ratio (INR)

Accepted Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Question 5

Which of the following statements with regard to Enteric perforation are correct?

1. Salmonella typhi is the causative organism for Enteric fever
2. Enteric perforation characteristically occurs during the third week of illness
3. Typhoid ulcers are placed transversely to the long axis of the gut
4. Terminal ileum is the most common site for enteric perforation

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Question 6

A 43 year old woman presented with serous discharge from a single duct of the nipple of her right breast which was sent for evaluation. She is unlikely to be suffering from

Accepted Answer

Fibrocystic disease

Answer

Intraductal Papilloma

Answer

Carcinoma

Answer

Duct Ectasia

Question 7

Which of the following statements regarding hepatic adenomas are correct?

1. They are almost exclusively seen in females aged 25-50 years

2. They are associated with the use of oral contraceptive pills

3. They do not have any malignant potential

4. Majority are detected incidentally on imaging

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Question 8

An eight month old male child is brought to the emergency with recurrent episodes of screaming and drawing up of legs. The child appears to be listless in between the attacks. Local examination of abdomen reveals feeling of emptiness in the right iliac fossa and blood stained mucus is found on the finger on rectal examination. The most probable clinical diagnosis in this child is

Accepted Answer

Acute intussusception

Answer

Rectal prolapse

Answer

Midgut volvulus

Answer

Caecal volvulus

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT a classical symptom of acute appendicitis ?

Accepted Answer

Constipation

Answer

Periumbilical colic

Answer

Anorexia

Answer

Nausea

Question 10

A 35 year old male patient with enteric fever presents to the emergency with sudden onset of generalised abdominal pain, abdominal distension, nausea, vomiting and constipation for last 48 hours. On examination, patient is dehydrated with PR = 110/min and BP = 100/60 mm Hg. There is generalised tenderness, rebound tenderness present and board like rigidity on per abdomen examination. The most likely complication of enteric fever in this patient is

Accepted Answer

Small bowel perforation

Answer

Cholecystitis

Answer

Small bowel enteritis

Answer

Small bowel obstruction

UPSC-CMS 2021

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Pediatrics

Surgery