UPSC-CMS 2016 — Obstetrics and Gynecology
33 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
33 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
A 35 year old nulliparous woman complains of menorrhagia and mass per abdomen. On examination, the positive findings are: she is anaemic, has a pelvic mass of 16-18 weeks size, firm in consistency which moves with the movement of cervix. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
Abundant cornified cells in vaginal exfoliative cytology indicate:
Polyhydramnios at term is diagnosed when AFI is more than:
Which of the following is not a potentially teratogenic infection if contracted in pregnancy?
Regarding hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, the following are true except:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome?
The following are used in the staging of carcinoma of the cervix except:
A 58 year old woman, post menopausal for last 8 years comes with history of spotting per vaginum. What is the most likely cause?
A diabetic obese patient comes with history of post-menopausal bleeding. On examination, there is a supra pubic mass and per vagina there is purulent discharge. The probable diagnosis is:
An adolescent girl with stage 1a dysgerminoma is managed by: