Behavioral Science
1 questionsA patient does not understand the meaning of the doctor's words. What type of barrier does this represent?
NEET-PG 2024 - Behavioral Science NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: A patient does not understand the meaning of the doctor's words. What type of barrier does this represent?
- A. Cultural
- B. Linguistic (Correct Answer)
- C. Psychological
- D. Environmental
- E. Physical
Explanation: ***Linguistic*** - This barrier occurs when there is a **lack of shared language** or when an individual does not understand the specific **vocabulary or jargon** being used. - In a medical context, this often manifests as a patient not understanding complex medical terms or explanations. *Cultural* - This barrier arises from differences in **beliefs, values, customs, or social norms** between individuals. - It would involve misunderstandings based on cultural perspectives rather than the literal meaning of words themselves. *Psychological* - This type of barrier relates to the emotional or mental state of the individuals involved, such as **anxiety, fear, or a lack of attention**. - While emotional factors can affect understanding, the core issue described here is specifically about the comprehension of words. *Environmental* - This barrier refers to **physical distractions or unsuitable surroundings** that hinder effective communication. - Examples include noise, inadequate privacy, or uncomfortable settings, which are not suggested by the patient's inability to understand the doctor's words. *Physical* - This barrier involves **sensory impairments** such as hearing loss, visual deficits, or speech difficulties. - While physical impairments can affect communication, the scenario describes comprehension of word meaning rather than sensory limitations.
Biochemistry
1 questionsWhich of the following foods should be consumed to prevent thiamine deficiency?
NEET-PG 2024 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: Which of the following foods should be consumed to prevent thiamine deficiency?
- A. Whole grain cereals and legumes (Correct Answer)
- B. Dairy products and eggs
- C. Fresh fruits and vegetables
- D. Polished white rice
- E. Red meat and poultry
Explanation: ***Whole grain cereals and legumes*** - **Whole grain cereals** (brown rice, oats, wheat germ, fortified cereals) and **legumes** (beans, lentils, peas) are **excellent natural sources of thiamine (vitamin B1)** - They retain the **bran and germ** layers where thiamine is concentrated - Regular consumption effectively prevents **thiamine deficiency** and associated conditions like beriberi and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome - This is the **primary dietary recommendation** for thiamine adequacy *Polished white rice* - Polished white rice has the **bran and germ removed** during processing, eliminating most of the thiamine content - Consuming polished white rice as a staple **causes thiamine deficiency**, leading to **beriberi** (common in populations with rice-based diets) - Unless fortified with thiamine, polished white rice contributes to deficiency rather than preventing it *Dairy products and eggs* - While nutritious, dairy products and eggs contain **relatively low amounts of thiamine** - Not reliable sources for meeting daily thiamine requirements - Contribute to overall nutrition but insufficient alone to prevent thiamine deficiency *Fresh fruits and vegetables* - Most fruits and vegetables contain **modest amounts of thiamine** compared to whole grains - Some exceptions include peas, asparagus, and Brussels sprouts, but typical servings provide limited thiamine - Important for overall health but not primary thiamine sources *Red meat and poultry* - Pork is actually a **good source of thiamine**, particularly organ meats - However, **whole grains and legumes** remain the most reliable and accessible plant-based sources - Red meat and poultry provide moderate thiamine but are not the best answer for preventing deficiency in general populations
Biostatistics
3 questionsA group of 80 people is being studied to determine the effect of diet modification on cholesterol levels. To compare the mean cholesterol levels before and after the diet modification in this group, which statistical test should be used?
A study was undertaken to establish the relationship between the consumption of a vegetarian or non-vegetarian diet and the presence of diseases. Which statistical test should be used?
A statistician wants to study the effects of a medicine in three groups-humans, animals, and plants. He then selects randomly from these three groups. Which type of sampling is being performed?
NEET-PG 2024 - Biostatistics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: A group of 80 people is being studied to determine the effect of diet modification on cholesterol levels. To compare the mean cholesterol levels before and after the diet modification in this group, which statistical test should be used?
- A. Paired t-test (Correct Answer)
- B. McNemar test
- C. Chi-square test
- D. Wilcoxon signed-rank test
- E. Independent t-test
Explanation: ***Paired t-test*** - A **paired t-test** is appropriate for comparing means from two related samples, such as "before" and "after" measurements on the **same individuals**. - It assesses whether there is a statistically significant difference between these **dependent observations**. *Independent t-test* - The independent t-test compares means between **two separate groups** (unrelated samples). - It is inappropriate here because we have **paired data** from the same individuals measured twice, not two independent groups. *McNemar test* - The McNemar test is used for comparing **paired nominal data**, typically in a 2×2 table, for example, before-after changes in a proportion or categorical outcome. - It is not suitable for **continuous data** like cholesterol levels. *Chi-square test* - The chi-square test is used to assess the association between **two categorical variables** or to compare observed frequencies with expected frequencies. - It is not designed for comparing means of **continuous variables** in paired samples. *Wilcoxon signed-rank test* - The Wilcoxon signed-rank test is a **non-parametric alternative to the paired t-test**, used when the data are not normally distributed or when the sample size is small. - While it's used for paired data, the paired t-test is generally preferred when parametric assumptions (like **normality**) can be met, especially with a sample size of 80.
Question 282: A study was undertaken to establish the relationship between the consumption of a vegetarian or non-vegetarian diet and the presence of diseases. Which statistical test should be used?
- A. Chi-square test (Correct Answer)
- B. T-test
- C. ANOVA
- D. Fisher's exact test
- E. Mann-Whitney U test
Explanation: ***Chi-square test*** - The **chi-square test** is appropriate when analyzing the relationship between two **categorical variables**. In this scenario, "diet type" (vegetarian/non-vegetarian) and "presence of disease" (yes/no) are both categorical variables. - This test determines if there is a statistically significant association between the frequency counts of these two variables in a contingency table. *T-test* - A **t-test** is used to compare the **means** of two groups, typically when the dependent variable is continuous. - This test is unsuitable here because the presence of disease and diet type are categorical, not continuous, variables. *ANOVA* - **ANOVA** (Analysis of Variance) is used to compare the **means** of three or more groups, often with a continuous dependent variable. - Similar to the t-test, ANOVA is not applicable as the study involves categorical variables, not the comparison of means across multiple groups. *Fisher's exact test* - **Fisher's exact test** is similar to the chi-square test but specifically used for **small sample sizes** where the expected frequencies in any cell of the contingency table are less than 5. - While it analyzes categorical data, the chi-square test is the more general and commonly preferred test for larger sample sizes, which is generally assumed unless otherwise specified. *Mann-Whitney U test* - The **Mann-Whitney U test** is a non-parametric test used to compare differences between two independent groups when the dependent variable is **ordinal or continuous** but not normally distributed. - This test is not appropriate for analyzing the association between two categorical variables, as it requires at least one variable to have ranked or continuous data.
Question 283: A statistician wants to study the effects of a medicine in three groups-humans, animals, and plants. He then selects randomly from these three groups. Which type of sampling is being performed?
- A. Simple random sampling
- B. Systematic sampling
- C. Stratified random sampling (Correct Answer)
- D. Cluster sampling
- E. Convenience sampling
Explanation: ***Stratified random sampling*** - This method involves dividing the population into **distinct subgroups (strata)** based on shared characteristics (in this case, humans, animals, and plants), and then performing a simple random sample within each stratum. - This ensures that all subgroups are proportionally represented in the sample, which is appropriate when studying effects across different biological categories. *Simple random sampling* - This method involves selecting individuals from the entire population **purely by chance**, without first dividing them into subgroups. - It would not guarantee representation from all three distinct groups (humans, animals, and plants), which is essential for studying differential effects. *Systematic sampling* - This involves selecting samples at **regular intervals** from an ordered list or sequence. - This method is not suitable here because the population is divided into distinct, non-ordered groups rather than a continuous sequence. *Cluster sampling* - This method involves dividing the population into **clusters**, then randomly selecting some clusters and sampling all individuals within those selected clusters. - In this scenario, the initial groups (humans, animals, plants) are strata, not clusters, as the intent is to sample from within each group, not to treat the groups themselves as primary sampling units. *Convenience sampling* - This is a **non-probability sampling method** where subjects are selected based on ease of access rather than random selection. - The question explicitly states that random selection is performed from each group, ruling out convenience sampling.
Community Medicine
3 questionsThis instrument is used to measure which of the following?
Which of the following phases are directly involved in the recovery phase of the disaster cycle?
What does JSSK stand for?
NEET-PG 2024 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: This instrument is used to measure which of the following?
- A. Cooling power of air
- B. Radiant heat (Correct Answer)
- C. Humidity
- D. Temperature
Explanation: ***Radiant heat*** - The instrument shown is a **globe thermometer** (also called a black globe thermometer), which is used to measure **radiant heat** in an environment. - It consists of a thermometer bulb encased in a matte black copper sphere (typically 6 inches in diameter), designed to absorb and re-emit radiation effectively. - It is a key component in calculating the **Wet Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) index**, which assesses heat stress in occupational and environmental health settings. *Cooling power of air* - The **cooling power of air** is measured by instruments like a **katathermometer**, which assesses the combination of air temperature and air movement. - This instrument does not have the features of a katathermometer, such as the large alcohol-filled bulb and specialized scale. *Humidity* - **Humidity** is measured using a **hygrometer** or **psychrometer**, which typically involves sensing changes in materials due to moisture or comparing wet-bulb and dry-bulb temperatures. - The globe thermometer's design is not suited for directly measuring water vapor content in the air. *Temperature* - While it contains a thermometer, a **globe thermometer** measures more than just the ambient air temperature; its primary purpose is to account for the combined effect of **radiant heat, air temperature, and air velocity**. - A standard **dry-bulb thermometer** would be used for simple ambient air temperature measurement alone.
Question 282: Which of the following phases are directly involved in the recovery phase of the disaster cycle?
- A. Response and Rehabilitation
- B. Mitigation and Rehabilitation
- C. Response and Preparedness
- D. Rehabilitation and Reconstruction (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rehabilitation and Reconstruction*** - **Rehabilitation** is the short-term recovery phase focusing on restoring essential services, providing temporary shelter, medical care, and supporting affected populations to resume normal activities. - **Reconstruction** is the long-term recovery phase involving rebuilding damaged infrastructure, permanent housing, economic restoration, and development improvements. - These two phases together constitute the **recovery phase** of the disaster cycle according to standard disaster management frameworks (WHO, NDMA). *Mitigation and Rehabilitation* - While **rehabilitation** is correctly part of recovery, **mitigation** is traditionally considered a separate continuous phase or part of preparedness, focused on reducing future disaster risks. - **Mitigation** measures are implemented throughout the disaster cycle, not specifically as a direct component of the recovery phase. *Response and Rehabilitation* - **Response** refers to immediate life-saving actions during and immediately after a disaster (search and rescue, emergency medical care, evacuation). - **Response** precedes the recovery phase and is distinct from it, though **rehabilitation** is indeed part of recovery. *Response and Preparedness* - **Preparedness** involves planning, training, and resource allocation before a disaster occurs. - **Response** is the immediate action during/after the disaster. - Neither constitutes the recovery phase, which follows after the immediate response is complete.
Question 283: What does JSSK stand for?
- A. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (Correct Answer)
- B. Janani Shishu Swasthya Karyakram
- C. Janani Shishu Suraksha Kendra
- D. Janani Shishu Swasthya Kendra
Explanation: ***Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram*** - **JSSK** is a program initiated by the Indian government to provide **free healthcare services** to pregnant women and sick neonates. - The acronym stands for **Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram**, emphasizing "Karyakram" which means program. *Janani Shishu Swasthya Karyakram* - While "Swasthya" means **health**, it is not the correct word in the official acronym for this government initiative. - The official program focuses on "Suraksha" or **safety/protection** for mother and child during childbirth and infancy. *Janani Shishu Suraksha Kendra* - "Kendra" means **center** and indicates a facility, but the program itself is broader than just a center. - The initiative is a comprehensive "Karyakram" or **program** of services, not merely a physical location. *Janani Shishu Swasthya Kendra* - This option incorrectly combines "Swasthya" (health) and "Kendra" (center), neither of which accurately reflect the full acronym. - The correct acronym uses "Suraksha" (safety/protection) and "Karyakram" (program).
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsA pregnant lady delivers a healthy baby via normal delivery. What is the earliest time at which an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) can be inserted?
NEET-PG 2024 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: A pregnant lady delivers a healthy baby via normal delivery. What is the earliest time at which an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) can be inserted?
- A. Within 48 hours (Correct Answer)
- B. After 6 weeks
- C. After 3 months
- D. After 1 month
Explanation: ***Within 48 hours*** - **Immediate postpartum insertion** (within 48 hours of delivery) is considered safe and effective, with high client satisfaction and continuation rates. - While there's a slightly higher risk of **expulsion** compared to later insertions, it provides immediate contraception for women who might not return for follow-up. *After 6 weeks* - This is a common time for postpartum check-ups and a traditional window for IUCD insertion, after the uterus has largely involuted. - However, it is not the **earliest possible time**, as immediate postpartum insertion is also an option. *After 3 months* - Delaying IUCD insertion until three months postpartum is unnecessarily late if the woman desires contraception sooner. - This longer delay could increase the risk of an **unintended pregnancy** during the interim. *After 1 month* - Insertion at one month postpartum is also a safe option, after early uterine involution. - However, similar to the six-week option, it is not the **earliest possible time** for insertion.
Pediatrics
1 questionsA mother delivers in a rural area under the guidance of a skilled care attendant. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the care provided by the skilled care attendant at birth?
NEET-PG 2024 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: A mother delivers in a rural area under the guidance of a skilled care attendant. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the care provided by the skilled care attendant at birth?
- A. Start breastfeeding as early as possible
- B. Cover the baby's head and body
- C. Bathe the baby with warm water (Correct Answer)
- D. Clear the eyes with a sterile swab
- E. Dry the baby thoroughly and stimulate breathing
Explanation: ***Bathe the baby with warm water*** - **Delaying the first bath** for at least 6-24 hours after birth is recommended to prevent **hypothermia** and promote **skin-to-skin contact** for bonding and breastfeeding. - Early bathing can remove **vernix caseosa**, which provides natural antimicrobial protection and moisturization to the newborn's skin. *Start breastfeeding as early as possible* - **Early initiation of breastfeeding**, ideally within the first hour of birth, is crucial for both mother and baby. - It promotes **uterine contractions** to prevent **postpartum hemorrhage** and provides the newborn with **colostrum**, rich in antibodies. *Cover the baby's head and body* - Covering the newborn's head and body is essential to prevent **heat loss** and maintain a stable **body temperature**, immediately after birth. - Newborns are highly susceptible to **hypothermia** due to their large surface area to mass ratio and immature thermoregulation. *Clear the eyes with a sterile swab* - Clearing the newborn's eyes with a sterile swab is a standard part of immediate newborn care to remove any **mucus or blood** that might have entered during delivery. - This helps prevent **ophthalmia neonatorum**, especially if the mother has an infection like gonorrhea or chlamydia. *Dry the baby thoroughly and stimulate breathing* - **Drying the baby immediately** after birth is a critical first step in newborn resuscitation and care. - It helps prevent **hypothermia** and provides **tactile stimulation** to initiate breathing and crying, which is essential for transitioning from fetal to neonatal circulation.