NEET-PG 2024 Previous Year Questions Practice Questions

Q: A patient presents with seizures that were controlled with midazolam. Lumbar puncture (LP) revealed no pathology. What is the confirmatory test in the condition shown in the MRI below?

MR spectroscopy. ***MR spectroscopy*** - The MRI shows multiple **ring-enhancing lesions**, which, combined with the history of seizures and normal LP, strongly suggests **neurocysticercosis**. - **MR spectroscopy** can detect the specific biochemical markers (e.g., lactate, succinate) within the cyst, which are indicative of the parasitic infection, and can help differentiate it from other lesions like tumors or abscesses. *PET scan* - A **PET scan** primarily assesses metabolic activity and is more commonly used in the evaluation of tumors or neurodegenerative diseases. - It is generally not the primary or confirmatory test for neurocysticercosis, as it does not directly visualize the parasite or its specific biochemical markers. *CBNAAT* - **CBNAAT (Cartridge-Based Nucleic Acid Amplification Test)** is a rapid molecular test primarily used for the diagnosis of **tuberculosis**, not neurocysticercosis. - While tuberculosis can cause CNS lesions, the clinical and imaging presentation (multiple ring-enhancing lesions) is more suggestive of neurocysticercosis, and CBNAAT would not confirm this diagnosis. *MRI serial scan* - **Serial MRI scans** are useful for monitoring the progression or resolution of lesions over time, especially in response to treatment. - However, a serial scan is not a "confirmatory test" for the initial diagnosis; it provides prognostic or follow-up information rather than confirming the etiology. [Practice more NEET-PG 2024 questions on OnCourse]

Q: A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of pelvic pain and infertility. A transvaginal ultrasound is performed, and the image provided shows a tubular, fluid-filled structure with thin walls. There is no evidence of solid components or internal septations. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hydrosalpinx. ***Hydrosalpinx*** - The ultrasound finding of a **tubular, fluid-filled structure with thin walls** and no solid components or septations is highly characteristic of a **hydrosalpinx**, which is a blocked, fluid-filled fallopian tube. - **Pelvic pain** and **infertility** in a young woman are classic clinical presentations associated with hydrosalpinx, often resulting from previous pelvic inflammatory disease. *Ovarian cyst* - While ovarian cysts are fluid-filled, they typically appear as **rounded or oval structures within or adjacent to the ovary**, not distinctively tubular. - They can cause pain but are not typically associated with a "tubular" morphology on ultrasound. *Ectopic pregnancy* - An ectopic pregnancy would typically present with a **gestational sac** (with or without a fetal pole or yolk sac) outside the uterus, often in the fallopian tube. - While it can be tubular, it usually shows more complex internal echoes representing pregnancy components, and the clinical picture would involve a **positive pregnancy test** and often acute, unilateral pain. *Endometrioma* - An endometrioma is a type of ovarian cyst filled with **endometrial tissue**, often appearing on ultrasound as a **"ground glass" or "chocolate cyst"** with internal echoes due to old blood. - It would not typically present as a thin-walled, anechoic (purely fluid-filled) tubular structure. *Tubo-ovarian abscess* - A tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA) is a **complex inflammatory mass** that typically appears on ultrasound as a **thick-walled, complex structure with internal echoes, septations, or debris**. - TOA patients usually present with **acute symptoms including fever, elevated white blood cell count**, and severe pelvic pain, rather than the chronic presentation described here. - The ultrasound description of thin walls and no solid components makes TOA unlikely. [Practice more NEET-PG 2024 questions on OnCourse]

Q: A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department following a high-speed motor vehicle accident. He complains of severe lower back pain but denies any loss of consciousness or abdominal pain. A lateral X-ray of the lumbar spine is obtained, as shown in the image. The image reveals a horizontal fracture through the vertebral body, extending through the posterior elements. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Chance fracture. ***Chance fracture*** - A **chance fracture** is characterized by a **horizontal fracture** through the entire vertebral body and posterior elements, including the neural arch, typically caused by a **flexion-distraction mechanism** in accidents like those involving seatbelts (lap belt only), consistent with the high-speed motor vehicle accident scenario. - The image distinctly shows a fracture line traversing the vertebral body and extending into the posterior elements, which is the hallmark of this type of injury. *Burst fracture* - A **burst fracture** involves a comminuted fracture of the vertebral body with **retropulsion of bone fragments** into the spinal canal due to axial loading, which is not clearly depicted here. - While it can result from high-impact trauma, the characteristic horizontal disruption of both anterior and posterior segments points away from a solely compressive mechanism. *Compression fracture* - A **compression fracture** primarily involves the **anterior wedging** or collapse of the vertebral body, resulting from only axial compression forces without significant involvement of the posterior elements. - The presented image shows a fracture extending through the posterior elements, which is not typical for a simple compression fracture. *Spondylolisthesis* - **Spondylolisthesis** is the **anterior slippage of one vertebral body over another**, often due to pars interarticularis defects (spondylolysis) or degenerative changes. - This condition involves vertebral displacement, not a fresh fracture line across the body and posterior elements as seen in the image. [Practice more NEET-PG 2024 questions on OnCourse]

Q: A 2-year-old boy presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, poor urinary stream, and failure to thrive. A voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) is performed, and the images provided show dilated posterior urethra and a thickened bladder wall with a keyhole appearance. Based on these findings, the diagnosis of posterior urethral valves (PUV) is made. What is the management for this condition?

Endoscopic valve ablation. ***Endoscopic valve ablation*** - This is the **definitive treatment** for posterior urethral valves (PUV) as it directly addresses the anatomical obstruction. - Ablating the valves with a **cystoscope** relieves the outflow obstruction, preventing further damage to the bladder and kidneys. *Antibiotic prophylaxis and monitoring* - While important for managing recurrent UTIs and preventing future infections in children with PUV, it does **not address the underlying anatomical obstruction**. - Without surgical intervention, the obstruction would persist, leading to progressive urinary tract damage despite antibiotic use. *Suprapubic cystostomy* - This procedure involves placing a catheter directly into the bladder via the abdominal wall to **divert urine**. - It is typically a **temporary measure** used for initial decompression in severely ill patients or those with complete obstruction, not the definitive management. *Urinary diversion with vesicostomy* - Vesicostomy creates an opening between the bladder and abdominal wall for temporary urinary diversion. - This may be used in **very young infants** or critically ill patients as a temporizing measure, but **endoscopic ablation remains the definitive treatment**. *Observation with follow-up imaging* - **Observation is not appropriate** for symptomatic PUV due to the risk of progressive and irreversible renal damage. - The condition requires **prompt intervention** to relieve the obstruction and prevent long-term complications like renal failure. [Practice more NEET-PG 2024 questions on OnCourse]

Question 1

A patient presents with seizures that were controlled with midazolam. Lumbar puncture (LP) revealed no pathology. What is the confirmatory test in the condition shown in the MRI below?

Accepted Answer

MR spectroscopy

Answer

PET scan

Answer

CBNAAT

Answer

MRI serial scan

Question 2

A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of pelvic pain and infertility. A transvaginal ultrasound is performed, and the image provided shows a tubular, fluid-filled structure with thin walls. There is no evidence of solid components or internal septations. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Hydrosalpinx

Answer

Ovarian cyst

Answer

Ectopic pregnancy

Answer

Endometrioma

Answer

Tubo-ovarian abscess

Question 3

A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department following a high-speed motor vehicle accident. He complains of severe lower back pain but denies any loss of consciousness or abdominal pain. A lateral X-ray of the lumbar spine is obtained, as shown in the image. The image reveals a horizontal fracture through the vertebral body, extending through the posterior elements. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Chance fracture

Answer

Burst fracture

Answer

Compression fracture

Answer

Spondylolisthesis

Question 4

A 12-year-old boy presents with symptoms of headaches, visual disturbances, and growth retardation. An MRI scan is performed, and the image provided shows a cystic mass with both solid and calcified components in the suprasellar region, extending into the third ventricle. Based on the clinical presentation and MRI findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Craniopharyngioma

Answer

Germinoma

Answer

Meningioma

Answer

Pituitary adenoma

Answer

Optic glioma

Question 5

A 2-year-old boy presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, poor urinary stream, and failure to thrive. A voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) is performed, and the images provided show dilated posterior urethra and a thickened bladder wall with a keyhole appearance. Based on these findings, the diagnosis of posterior urethral valves (PUV) is made. What is the management for this condition?

Accepted Answer

Endoscopic valve ablation

Answer

Antibiotic prophylaxis and monitoring

Answer

Suprapubic cystostomy

Answer

Observation with follow-up imaging

Answer

Urinary diversion with vesicostomy

Question 6

Identify the investigation being carried out in the image.

Accepted Answer

Barium Swallow

Answer

Fluoroscopy

Answer

X-ray after alkali ingestion

Answer

X-ray after acid ingestion

Question 7

What condition does the MRCP (Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatography) image indicate?

Accepted Answer

Choledochal cyst

Answer

Dilated CBD (Common Bile Duct)

Answer

Acute cholecystitis

Answer

Cholangiocarcinoma

Question 8

A patient presents with foul-smelling sputum along with breathlessness and fever. Using the X-ray below, identify the diagnosis.

Accepted Answer

Lung Abscess

Answer

Pneumothorax

Answer

Pericardial Effusion

Answer

Pleural Effusion

Question 9

What is the Diagnosis based on the CT Scan given below?

Accepted Answer

Renal polycystic kidney disease

Answer

Renal cyst

Answer

Renal tumor

Answer

Renal angiomyolipoma

Question 10

A 25-year-old male presents with chest pain and shortness of breath. A CT scan of the chest is performed, and the image provided shows a large, well-defined mass in the anterior mediastinum. The mass contains both cystic and solid components, along with areas of calcification. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Teratoma

Answer

Thymoma

Answer

Lymphoma

Answer

Bronchogenic cyst

NEET-PG 2024

Internal Medicine

OB/GYN

Orthopaedics

Pediatrics

Radiology

About NEET-PG 2024 Questions