Community Medicine
2 questionsA construction worker came to the OPD complaining of white fingers. He has been working in the cement and concrete industry and has been working on heavy machinery drills, wood, and furniture polishing for 20 years. What is the most likely etiology for this condition?
In a 10-year-old school child, which of the following vaccines is given as a part of the school immunization program?
NEET-PG 2023 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: A construction worker came to the OPD complaining of white fingers. He has been working in the cement and concrete industry and has been working on heavy machinery drills, wood, and furniture polishing for 20 years. What is the most likely etiology for this condition?
- A. Candidal infection of the fingers due to continuous exposure to water
- B. Exposure to thinners and paints
- C. Continuous exposure to cement and concrete
- D. Continuous exposure to drills and machines (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Continuous exposure to drills and machines*** - The use of **heavy machinery drills** subjects the hands to **vibration**, which is a well-known cause of **Raynaud's phenomenon**, presenting as "white fingers" due to **vasospasm**. - This condition, often referred to as **vibration white finger**, is a common occupational hazard for workers using vibratory tools over long periods. *Candidal infection of the fingers due to continuous exposure to water* - While prolonged exposure to moisture can cause **Candidal infections** (e.g., paronychia), this typically presents as **redness, swelling, and pain** around the nails or skin, not the characteristic "white fingers" of Raynaud's. - White fingers due to candidiasis are not a primary manifestation and lack the **vasospastic component** seen with vibration exposure. *Exposure to thinners and paints* - Exposure to chemicals like **thinners and paints** can cause **irritant or allergic contact dermatitis**, leading to redness, itching, and skin lesions. - However, direct exposure to these substances is not typically associated with the sudden, episodic **blanching of fingers** characteristic of Raynaud's phenomenon. *Continuous exposure to cement and concrete* - **Cement and concrete** exposure often leads to **irritant or allergic contact dermatitis** due to the alkaline nature of cement, causing dryness, cracking, and eczema. - This type of exposure does not directly cause the **vasospastic episodes** that result in "white fingers."
Question 52: In a 10-year-old school child, which of the following vaccines is given as a part of the school immunization program?
- A. Measles vaccine
- B. Rotavirus vaccine
- C. TT/Td vaccine (Correct Answer)
- D. Hepatitis B vaccine
Explanation: ***TT/Td vaccine*** - The **tetanus toxoid (TT)** or **tetanus and diphtheria (Td) vaccine** is commonly administered to school-aged children as a booster to maintain immunity against these diseases. - This is part of many national immunization programs, including those in schools, to ensure continued protection beyond early childhood vaccinations. *Measles vaccine* - The **measles vaccine (MMR)** is typically given at 9-12 months and a second dose around 4-6 years of age, much earlier than 10 years. - While essential, it's usually completed before a child reaches the age of 10 for primary vaccination. *Rotavirus vaccine* - The **rotavirus vaccine** is administered to infants, usually before 6 months of age, to protect against severe rotavirus gastroenteritis. - It is not part of school immunization programs for 10-year-olds. *Hepatitis B vaccine* - The **Hepatitis B vaccine** is typically given at birth and completed during infancy, with a series of doses before 1 year of age. - While crucial for early protection, it is not a routine vaccination for 10-year-olds within a school immunization program unless for catch-up reasons.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsA patient hailing from Delhi presents with fever, arthralgia, and extensive petechial rash for 3 days. Lab investigations revealed a hemoglobin of 9 g/ dL, a white blood cell count of 9000 cells/mm3, a platelet count of 20000 cells/mm3, and a prolonged bleeding time. The clotting time was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A bronchial asthma patient on inhalational steroids presented with white patchy lesions on the tongue and buccal mucosa. What condition is likely to be present in this patient?
NEET-PG 2023 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: A patient hailing from Delhi presents with fever, arthralgia, and extensive petechial rash for 3 days. Lab investigations revealed a hemoglobin of 9 g/ dL, a white blood cell count of 9000 cells/mm3, a platelet count of 20000 cells/mm3, and a prolonged bleeding time. The clotting time was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Dengue (Correct Answer)
- B. Malaria
- C. Scrub typhus
- D. Typhoid
Explanation: Dengue - The combination of **fever, arthralgia, extensive petechial rash**, and severe **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 20,000/mm³) with **prolonged bleeding time** is highly characteristic of severe dengue infection, especially in an endemic area like Delhi [1]. - While leukocytosis (WBC 9000/mm³) is not typical for dengue (usually causes leukopenia), the other features strongly point to dengue hemorrhagic fever [1]. *Malaria* - Typically presents with **intermittent high fever**, chills, and sweats. While it can cause some thrombocytopenia and anemia, the **extensive petechial rash** is not a characteristic feature. - **Thrombocytopenia** in malaria is usually milder than observed here, and prolonged bleeding time is less common [2]. *Scrub typhus* - Caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi, it is characterized by **fever, headache, myalgia, and a characteristic eschar** (necrotic ulcer) at the bite site, which is not mentioned. - While it can cause rash and some thrombocytopenia, the **petechial rash** and such severe thrombocytopenia with prolonged bleeding time are less typical. *Typhoid* - Presents with **sustained high fever**, headache, bradycardia, and sometimes a **rose spot rash** (maculopapular), which is different from a petechial rash. - Typhoid typically causes **leukopenia** and can lead to gastrointestinal complications like intestinal bleeding, but severe thrombocytopenia and extensive petechiae are not common presenting features.
Question 52: A bronchial asthma patient on inhalational steroids presented with white patchy lesions on the tongue and buccal mucosa. What condition is likely to be present in this patient?
- A. Oral lichen planus
- B. Aphthous ulcers
- C. Oral leukoplakia
- D. Oral candidiasis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Oral candidiasis** - **Inhaled corticosteroids** can suppress the local immune response in the oral cavity, creating an environment conducive to the overgrowth of *Candida albicans*. - The classic presentation includes **white patchy lesions** on the tongue and buccal mucosa, which can often be scraped off. *Oral lichen planus* - Characterized by **reticular (Wickham's striae)**, papular, or erosive lesions, which are often bilateral and symmetric [1]. - While it can present with white lesions, they are typically not easily scraped off and are not primarily associated with inhaled corticosteroid use [1]. *Aphthous ulcers* - These are typically **painful, solitary, or multiple ulcers** with a red halo and a yellowish-gray center [2]. - They are distinct from widespread white patchy lesions and are not directly caused by inhaled corticosteroid use [2]. *Oral leukoplakia* - Defined as a **white patch or plaque** on the oral mucosa that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease, and which is not removable by scraping. - It is often associated with tobacco use and alcohol consumption, and carries a risk of malignancy; it does not typically appear as a direct side effect of inhaled corticosteroids.
Microbiology
1 questionsA boy presented with a fever and chills. Rapid test was positive for specific antigen HRP-2. Which of the following species of Plasmodium is the most likely causative agent?
NEET-PG 2023 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: A boy presented with a fever and chills. Rapid test was positive for specific antigen HRP-2. Which of the following species of Plasmodium is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Plasmodium falciparum (Correct Answer)
- B. Plasmodium malariae
- C. Plasmodium vivax
- D. Plasmodium ovale
Explanation: ***Plasmodium falciparum*** - The **histidine-rich protein 2 (HRP-2)** antigen is specifically produced by **P. falciparum** and is targeted by most rapid diagnostic tests for malaria. - A positive HRP-2 test in a patient with fever and chills indicates a high likelihood of **P. falciparum** infection, which is often the most severe form of malaria. *Plasmodium malariae* - **P. malariae** does not produce **HRP-2 antigen**, therefore, a rapid diagnostic test targeting HRP-2 would be negative for this species. - This species can cause a **quartan fever pattern** (fever every 72 hours) and usually presents with less severe symptoms compared to P. falciparum. *Plasmodium vivax* - **P. vivax** produces **_Plasmodium_ lactate dehydrogenase (pLDH)** and **aldolase antigens**, but not HRP-2. Some rapid tests combine detection of HRP-2 with pLDH to identify both *P. falciparum* and *P. vivax*. - While *P. vivax* causes fever and chills, its presence would not be indicated by a positive HRP-2 specific test alone. *Plasmodium ovale* - **P. ovale** also produces **pLDH and aldolase antigens**, similar to *P. vivax*, and does not produce **HRP-2**. - Infections with *P. ovale* are relatively rare and generally cause milder disease than *P. falciparum*, often with a **tertian fever pattern**.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
2 questionsA 16-year-old girl presents with cyclical pelvic pain every month. She has not achieved menarche yet. On examination, a suprapubic bulge can be seen in the lower abdomen. PR examination reveals a bulging swelling in the anterior aspect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 23-year-old woman accompanied by her mother-in-law comes to the infertility clinic. She has been having regular intercourse for 6 months but is not able to conceive. What is the next best step?
NEET-PG 2023 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: A 16-year-old girl presents with cyclical pelvic pain every month. She has not achieved menarche yet. On examination, a suprapubic bulge can be seen in the lower abdomen. PR examination reveals a bulging swelling in the anterior aspect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Transverse vaginal septum
- B. Vaginal atresia
- C. Imperforate hymen (Correct Answer)
- D. Cervical agenesis
Explanation: ***Imperforate hymen*** - The combination of **cyclical pelvic pain** without menarche (primary amenorrhea) and a **suprapubic bulge** with **bulging swelling on PR examination** strongly suggests an imperforate hymen. - This condition leads to the **accumulation of menstrual blood (hematocolpos)**, causing the observed swelling and pain. - Imperforate hymen is the **most distal obstruction** of the female genital tract, presenting with a characteristic **bulging membrane at the vaginal opening**. *Transverse vaginal septum* - This condition also causes **primary amenorrhea** and **hematocolpos** leading to cyclical pain. - However, a transverse vaginal septum is located **higher in the vagina** (not at the introitus) and would not typically present with such an obvious **bulging swelling on examination** at the vaginal opening. *Vaginal atresia* - **Vaginal atresia** involves the complete or partial absence of the vagina, which would prevent menarche and cause cyclical pain. - While it results in hematocolpos (if the uterus is present), the presentation differs from the classic **bulging membrane** seen with imperforate hymen. *Cervical agenesis* - **Cervical agenesis** is the congenital absence or incomplete formation of the cervix, leading to **primary amenorrhea** and severe cyclical pain due to retained menstrual blood in the uterus (**hematometra**). - This condition would not present with a **bulging mass on PR examination** at the vaginal level, but rather with an enlarged uterus above, as the obstruction is at the cervical level, not at the vaginal outlet.
Question 52: A 23-year-old woman accompanied by her mother-in-law comes to the infertility clinic. She has been having regular intercourse for 6 months but is not able to conceive. What is the next best step?
- A. Hysterolaparoscopy
- B. Diagnostic hysteroscopy
- C. Reassure and review the couple after 6 months (Correct Answer)
- D. Semen analysis for husband
Explanation: ***Reassure and review the couple after 6 months*** - Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after **12 months** of regular, unprotected intercourse in women under 35 years old. For women aged 35 or older, this period is 6 months. - Since the patient is 23 years old and has been trying for only 6 months, she does not yet meet the diagnostic criteria for infertility. The appropriate action is to advise them to continue trying and to return for evaluation if conception does not occur after a full year. *Semen analysis for husband* - While a semen analysis is a crucial initial step in an infertility workup, it is premature at this stage given the duration of attempted conception. - It would be appropriate to order this test after the couple has met the criteria for infertility (12 months for women under 35). *Hysterolaparoscopy* - This is an invasive procedure typically reserved for more advanced stages of an infertility workup, especially when suspected pathologies like endometriosis or tubal factor infertility are present. - It is not indicated as an initial step for a couple who has only been trying to conceive for 6 months and does not yet meet the definition of infertility. *Diagnostic hysteroscopy* - A diagnostic hysteroscopy is used to visualize the inside of the uterus to identify intrauterine pathologies that could contribute to infertility. - Like hysterolaparoscopy, it is an invasive diagnostic tool and should only be considered after initial, less invasive investigations have been performed and the couple meets the criteria for infertility.
Pediatrics
1 questionsAn infant presents with hepatosplenomegaly and thrombocytopenia. Neuroimaging with CT shows periventricular calcifications. What is the most likely diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2023 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: An infant presents with hepatosplenomegaly and thrombocytopenia. Neuroimaging with CT shows periventricular calcifications. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Congenital rubella syndrome
- B. Congenital herpes simplex virus infection
- C. Congenital toxoplasmosis
- D. Congenital cytomegalovirus infection (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Congenital cytomegalovirus infection*** - **Periventricular calcifications** on neuroimaging are a classic and highly suggestive finding for congenital CMV infection. - **Hepatosplenomegaly** and **thrombocytopenia** are common systemic manifestations of congenital CMV, which can be severe. *Congenital rubella syndrome* - Rubella typically causes **sensorineural hearing loss**, ocular abnormalities (e.g., cataracts), and congenital heart defects (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus), rather than periventricular calcifications. - While hepatosplenomegaly and thrombocytopenia can occur, the specific brain calcification pattern points away from rubella. *Congenital herpes simplex virus infection* - HSV infection in neonates presents with a variety of symptoms, including skin vesicles, keratoconjunctivitis, and seizures. - Brain imaging often shows **focal necrosis** or **encephalitis**, not typically periventricular calcifications unless it's a very widespread and destructive process. *Congenital toxoplasmosis* - Congenital toxoplasmosis classic triad includes **chorioretinitis**, **hydrocephalus**, and **intracranial calcifications**, but these calcifications are typically scattered or diffuse rather than strictly periventricular. - While hepatosplenomegaly and thrombocytopenia can be present, the specific location of calcifications is a key differentiating factor.
Pharmacology
2 questionsA chronic smoker was on nicotine replacement therapy and clonidine tablets for smoking de-addiction. He stopped taking clonidine tablets and now presents with a headache. What is the reason behind this condition?
A patient comes to the casualty with organophosphate poisoning. He was started on atropine infusion and pralidoxime. After 2 hours, the patient had a sudden rise in temperature. What is the most likely cause of the fever?
NEET-PG 2023 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: A chronic smoker was on nicotine replacement therapy and clonidine tablets for smoking de-addiction. He stopped taking clonidine tablets and now presents with a headache. What is the reason behind this condition?
- A. Postural hypotension
- B. Receptor upregulation
- C. Rebound hypertension (Correct Answer)
- D. Receptor hypersensitivity
Explanation: ***Rebound hypertension*** - **Clonidine withdrawal** can cause a sudden surge in blood pressure due to increased sympathetic activity, leading to **rebound hypertension** and symptoms like headaches. - This occurs because chronic clonidine use suppresses sympathetic outflow, and its abrupt discontinuation unmasks this suppressed activity, causing a hypertensive crisis. *Postural hypotension* - **Postural hypotension** is a common side effect of clonidine due to its vasodilatory effects, causing blood pressure to drop when standing. - However, the patient's headache following clonidine cessation is more indicative of a **hypertensive event**, not hypotension. *Receptor upregulation* - **Receptor upregulation** refers to an increase in the number of receptors, often in response to prolonged antagonism or decreased ligand exposure. - While receptor changes occur, the primary mechanism of clonidine withdrawal is the **overcompensation** of the sympathetic nervous system, not simply an increased number of receptors. *Receptor hypersensitivity* - **Receptor hypersensitivity** implies an exaggerated response to a normal concentration of a neurotransmitter, which can contribute to withdrawal symptoms. - While it plays a role, the more immediate and critical cause of the headache is the rapid increase in blood pressure due to **rebound sympathetic activity**.
Question 52: A patient comes to the casualty with organophosphate poisoning. He was started on atropine infusion and pralidoxime. After 2 hours, the patient had a sudden rise in temperature. What is the most likely cause of the fever?
- A. Side effect of pralidoxime.
- B. Result of organophosphate poisoning.
- C. Unrelated or unknown cause.
- D. Fever due to atropine toxicity. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fever due to atropine toxicity.*** - **Atropine** blocks muscarinic receptors, leading to inhibition of **sweat glands** and subsequent rise in body temperature (hyperthermia), especially with high doses or prolonged infusion. - Given the patient is receiving an **atropine infusion** and developed fever, **atropine toxicity** is a primary concern. *Side effect of pralidoxime.* - While pralidoxime can cause side effects like dizziness, blurred vision, or tachycardia, **fever is not a typical side effect** of pralidoxime. - Pralidoxime works by **regenerating acetylcholinesterase** [2, 3] and does not directly interfere with thermoregulation in a way that would cause fever. *Result of organophosphate poisoning.* - **Organophosphate poisoning** typically causes **hypothermia** due to excessive cholinergic stimulation leading to peripheral vasodilation and increased sweating [1]. - **Fever** is not a direct result of the acute phase of organophosphate poisoning itself, but rather a complication of treatment or other factors. *Unrelated or unknown cause.* - While possible, it's less likely to be "unrelated or unknown" when a clear pharmacological explanation (**atropine toxicity**) exists for fever in the context of the patient's treatment. - It would be important to first rule out known causes related to the ongoing treatment before attributing it to an unknown cause.