NEET-PG 2023 Practice Questions

Q: A 45-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with severe pain and swelling in the big toe joint. He has a history of recurrent joint pain and dietary indiscretion. A specimen from the affected joint is subjected to a test that produces a purple color reaction. What is the test being performed?

Murexide test for uric acid detection. ***Murexide test for uric acid detection*** - The patient's presentation with **severe pain and swelling in the big toe**, recurrent joint pain, and dietary indiscretion is highly suggestive of **gout**, which is caused by the accumulation of **uric acid crystals**. - The **Murexide test** is a specific qualitative chemical test used to detect the presence of **uric acid** and its derivatives, yielding a characteristic **purple** color in the presence of uric acid. *Florence test for choline compounds* - The **Florence test** is used to identify **choline compounds**, primarily in forensic science for detecting **spermatozoa** by reacting with choline to form dark brown or black crystals. - While it involves a chemical reaction, its application and the compounds it detects are unrelated to the diagnosis of **gout** or uric acid. *Teichmann test for blood* - The **Teichmann test** (hemin test) is a microscopic chemical test used to confirm the presence of **blood** by detecting **hemin crystals**. - This test is not used for diagnosing joint conditions like gout or identifying **uric acid**. *Acid phosphatase test for prostate* - The **acid phosphatase test** measures the level of **acid phosphatase**, an enzyme mainly found in the **prostate gland**, and is used as a marker for **prostate cancer** or other prostatic conditions. - This test is entirely unrelated to the diagnosis of **gout** or the detection of **uric acid** in synovial fluid.

Q: Which of the following is the sensitive indicator to assess the availability, utilization, and effectiveness of healthcare in a community?

Infant mortality rate. ***Infant mortality rate*** - The **infant mortality rate (IMR)** is widely considered a sensitive indicator of a community's health status, including access to and quality of healthcare, nutrition, and environmental conditions. - A high IMR often reflects inadequate maternal and child health services, poor sanitation, and socioeconomic disparities within a population. *Maternal mortality rate* - While a critical indicator of the health system's ability to provide safe pregnancy and childbirth services, the **maternal mortality rate (MMR)** specifically reflects women's health during gestation and postpartum. - It does not encompass the broader spectrum of health determinants that affect infants, such as postnatal care, nutrition, and infectious disease control, as comprehensively as IMR. *Immunization coverage* - **Immunization coverage** is an excellent indicator of the reach and effectiveness of preventive health services for infectious diseases. - However, it is a specific measure of program implementation, not a comprehensive indicator of overall healthcare availability, utilization, or effectiveness across all health domains. *Disability-adjusted life years* - **Disability-adjusted life years (DALYs)** measure the total healthy life years lost due to premature mortality and disability from specific diseases and injuries. - While a valuable concept for burden of disease analysis, DALYs are a complex measure of population health outcome, rather than a direct and sensitive indicator of the operational aspects of healthcare like availability and utilization.

Q: A construction worker came to the OPD complaining of white fingers. He has been working in the cement and concrete industry and has been working on heavy machinery drills, wood, and furniture polishing for 20 years. What is the most likely etiology for this condition?

Continuous exposure to drills and machines. ***Continuous exposure to drills and machines*** - The use of **heavy machinery drills** subjects the hands to **vibration**, which is a well-known cause of **Raynaud's phenomenon**, presenting as "white fingers" due to **vasospasm**. - This condition, often referred to as **vibration white finger**, is a common occupational hazard for workers using vibratory tools over long periods. *Candidal infection of the fingers due to continuous exposure to water* - While prolonged exposure to moisture can cause **Candidal infections** (e.g., paronychia), this typically presents as **redness, swelling, and pain** around the nails or skin, not the characteristic "white fingers" of Raynaud's. - White fingers due to candidiasis are not a primary manifestation and lack the **vasospastic component** seen with vibration exposure. *Exposure to thinners and paints* - Exposure to chemicals like **thinners and paints** can cause **irritant or allergic contact dermatitis**, leading to redness, itching, and skin lesions. - However, direct exposure to these substances is not typically associated with the sudden, episodic **blanching of fingers** characteristic of Raynaud's phenomenon. *Continuous exposure to cement and concrete* - **Cement and concrete** exposure often leads to **irritant or allergic contact dermatitis** due to the alkaline nature of cement, causing dryness, cracking, and eczema. - This type of exposure does not directly cause the **vasospastic episodes** that result in "white fingers."

Q: A young male came to the hospital with a clean-cut wound without any bleeding. The patient received a full course of tetanus vaccination 10 years ago. What is the best management for this patient?

Single-dose tetanus toxoid. ***Single-dose tetanus toxoid*** - For a **clean-cut wound** in a patient who completed a **primary tetanus vaccination series** and received their last dose more than 5 years ago but less than 10 years ago, a **single booster dose** of tetanus toxoid is recommended. [1] - A booster ensures continued protection, as vaccine-induced immunity wanes over time, but the prior full course provides a robust anamnestic response with a single dose. *Human tetanus immunoglobulin and a full course of vaccine* - This regimen (tetanus immunoglobulin + vaccine) is typically reserved for patients with **unvaccinated status**, an **unknown vaccination history**, or a **severely contaminated wound** (e.g., rusty nail, soil contamination) who have not been fully vaccinated. - The patient had a **clean-cut wound** and completed a full course of vaccination 10 years ago, making immunoglobulin unnecessary and a full course of vaccine excessive. *Human tetanus immunoglobulin only* - Administering **tetanus immunoglobulin alone** is appropriate for immediate, passive immunity in situations where a patient is unvaccinated or has an unknown vaccination status and has a significant risk of tetanus from a contaminated wound. [2] - This patient has a clean wound and a history of full vaccination, so a booster is sufficient to stimulate active immunity. *No treatment required* - While the patient was fully vaccinated 10 years ago, the protection from tetanus vaccination can **wane over time**, especially after 5-10 years. - A **booster dose** is crucial to maintain adequate protection against tetanus, even for a clean wound, given the 10-year interval since the last dose.

Q: A patient hailing from Delhi presents with fever, arthralgia, and extensive petechial rash for 3 days. Lab investigations revealed a hemoglobin of 9 g/ dL, a white blood cell count of 9000 cells/mm3, a platelet count of 20000 cells/mm3, and a prolonged bleeding time. The clotting time was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dengue. Dengue - The combination of **fever, arthralgia, extensive petechial rash**, and severe **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 20,000/mm³) with **prolonged bleeding time** is highly characteristic of severe dengue infection, especially in an endemic area like Delhi [1]. - While leukocytosis (WBC 9000/mm³) is not typical for dengue (usually causes leukopenia), the other features strongly point to dengue hemorrhagic fever [1]. *Malaria* - Typically presents with **intermittent high fever**, chills, and sweats. While it can cause some thrombocytopenia and anemia, the **extensive petechial rash** is not a characteristic feature. - **Thrombocytopenia** in malaria is usually milder than observed here, and prolonged bleeding time is less common [2]. *Scrub typhus* - Caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi, it is characterized by **fever, headache, myalgia, and a characteristic eschar** (necrotic ulcer) at the bite site, which is not mentioned. - While it can cause rash and some thrombocytopenia, the **petechial rash** and such severe thrombocytopenia with prolonged bleeding time are less typical. *Typhoid* - Presents with **sustained high fever**, headache, bradycardia, and sometimes a **rose spot rash** (maculopapular), which is different from a petechial rash. - Typhoid typically causes **leukopenia** and can lead to gastrointestinal complications like intestinal bleeding, but severe thrombocytopenia and extensive petechiae are not common presenting features.

Q: A patient presents with polyuria following total hypophysectomy. Laboratory results show Na+ levels at 155 mEq/L and urine osmolarity at 200 mOsm/L. What is the definitive management for this patient?

Lifelong DDAVP supplementation. ### Lifelong DDAVP supplementation - The patient's **polyuria** after **total hypophysectomy**, coupled with **hypernatremia (Na+ 155 mEq/L)** and **low urine osmolarity (200 mOsm/L)**, strongly indicates **central diabetes insipidus (DI)** due to **ADH deficiency** [1]. - **Desmopressin (DDAVP)** is a synthetic analog of **ADH** and is the definitive treatment for central DI, replacing the missing hormone, and addressing the lifelong deficiency [1]. ### No treatment required as receptors are upset - This is incorrect as untreated **diabetes insipidus** can lead to severe **dehydration, hypernatremia, and neurological complications**, making intervention critical [2]. - The symptoms and lab findings indicate a clear deficiency, not merely "upset" receptors, which requires definitive management to prevent life-threatening complications. ### Thiazides for a limited duration of 2 weeks - **Thiazide diuretics** are used in **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus** to induce mild volume depletion, which can increase water reabsorption in the proximal tubule [1]. - However, they are not the definitive treatment for **central DI** where the primary problem is a lack of **ADH**, and using them for a *limited duration* would not address a lifelong condition. ### DDAVP for a limited duration of 2 weeks - While **DDAVP** is the correct treatment for **central DI**, the condition resulting from a total hypophysectomy is **permanent**. - Therefore, treatment for only a *limited duration* would lead to the recurrence of symptoms, and potentially life-threatening complications, making lifelong management essential.

Q: An elderly male is known as a smoker presented with chronic cough, significant weight loss, and fatigue. Serum calcium level is raised. A lung biopsy was done, and it showed large atypical cells with hyperchromasia. What is the probable diagnosis?

Large cell carcinoma. ***Squamous cell carcinoma*** - The presence of **hyperchromatic atypical cells** in the lung biopsy [2] and **elevated serum calcium levels** are indicative of paraneoplastic hypercalcemia often seen in squamous cell carcinoma. - This type of lung cancer typically occurs in **smokers** [1] and is associated with **chronic cough** and **weight loss**. *Large cell neuroendocrine tumor* - While it may show large atypical cells, this tumor type is less commonly associated with **hypercalcemia** or the smoking history highlighted here. - Characteristically, it tends to have a more aggressive course and distinct histological features not indicated in the vignette. *Small cell carcinoma* - This type typically presents with **central lung lesions** and is associated with secretory syndromes like **SIADH**, not hypercalcemia. - Histologically, it features small round blue cells rather than the large atypical cells described in this case. *Adenocarcinoma* - Often arises peripherally in the lung and typically does not present with hypercalcemia. - Histological features include **gland formation**, which contrasts with the **large atypical cells** noted in the biopsy. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Respiratory Tract Disease, pp. 336-337. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lung, pp. 723-724.

Q: A 78-year-old woman presents with a progressive decline in daily activity. She gives a history of convulsions and visual hallucinations. She does not talk to anyone and keeps looking at the sky. Pathological examination shows the presence of Lewy bodies within the neurons. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Lewy body dementia. ***Lewy body dementia*** - The presence of **progressive cognitive decline**, **visual hallucinations**, and **convulsions** in an elderly patient is highly indicative of Lewy body dementia. - The definitive pathological finding of **Lewy bodies** within neurons confirms the diagnosis. *Prion disease* - Characterized by rapidly progressive dementia, **myoclonus**, and cerebellar ataxia, without typical visual hallucinations or convulsions. - Pathological examination typically shows **spongiform changes** and accumulation of abnormal prion protein, not Lewy bodies. *Huntington's disease* - Presents with a classic triad of **motor dysfunction** (chorea), psychiatric symptoms, and cognitive decline, typically with an earlier onset (30-50 years). - It is an inherited neurodegenerative disorder, and its pathology involves neuronal loss in the striatum, without Lewy bodies. *Alzheimer's disease* - The most common cause of dementia, characterized by **memory impairment** as an early and prominent feature. - Pathological findings include **amyloid plaques** and **neurofibrillary tangles**, not Lewy bodies, and visual hallucinations are less common or occur later in the disease.

Q: Which of the following is the drug of choice for preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis in a patient undergoing cardiac surgery?

Cefazolin. ***Cefazolin*** - **Cefazolin** is a first-generation cephalosporin that provides excellent coverage against **Staphylococcus aureus** and **Streptococcus species**, which are common pathogens in surgical site infections in cardiac surgery. - It has a favorable safety profile, long half-life allowing for convenient dosing, and good tissue penetration, making it the preferred choice for **preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis** in most cardiac surgery cases. *Penicillin* - **Penicillin** has a narrow spectrum of activity compared to cefazolin and does not adequately cover all potential pathogens in cardiac surgery, particularly **methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA)**. - Due to its limited spectrum, penicillin is generally not recommended for routine **surgical prophylaxis**, especially in complex procedures like cardiac surgery. *Clindamycin* - **Clindamycin** is an alternative for patients with **beta-lactam allergies**, providing coverage against gram-positive organisms and anaerobes. - However, for routine prophylaxis without a specific allergy or high risk of resistant organisms, **clindamycin** is less effective than cefazolin against the most prevalent surgical pathogens. *Vancomycin* - **Vancomycin** is reserved for patients with a known **penicillin allergy** or a high risk of **methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)** colonization or infection. - Its routine use as a primary prophylactic agent in cardiac surgery is discouraged to prevent the development of **vancomycin resistance**.

Q: A 23-year-old male patient presents with midline swelling in the neck. The swelling moves with deglutition and protrusion of the tongue. What is the likely diagnosis?

Thyroglossal cyst. ***Thyroglossal cyst*** - A **thyroglossal cyst** is a congenital anomaly that arises from the persistent **thyroglossal duct**, a remnant of the thyroid's embryologic descent. - Its classic diagnostic feature is its movement with **deglutition** (due to attachment to the hyoid bone, which moves during swallowing) and **protrusion of the tongue** (as the thyroglossal duct is connected to the base of the tongue). *Brachial cyst* - A **brachial cyst** is a congenital neck mass that typically presents as a lateral neck swelling, often located along the anterior border of the **sternocleidomastoid muscle**. - Unlike a thyroglossal cyst, it does not typically move with **deglutition** or **tongue protrusion**. *Plunging ranula* - A **plunging ranula** is a type of mucocele that arises from the **sublingual gland** and extends below the mylohyoid muscle into the neck. - It presents as a cervical mass but is typically located in the floor of the mouth or submandibular region and does not move with **deglutition** or **tongue protrusion**. *Dermoid cyst* - A **dermoid cyst** is a congenital cyst that can occur anywhere on the body, including the head and neck, often presenting as a painless mass. - It arises from sequestered embryonic ectoderm and mesoderm, containing skin appendages, but it does not move with **deglutition** or **tongue protrusion**.

Question 1

A 45-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with severe pain and swelling in the big toe joint. He has a history of recurrent joint pain and dietary indiscretion. A specimen from the affected joint is subjected to a test that produces a purple color reaction. What is the test being performed?

Accepted Answer

Murexide test for uric acid detection

Answer

Florence test for choline compounds

Answer

Teichmann test for blood

Answer

Acid phosphatase test for prostate

Question 2

Which of the following is the sensitive indicator to assess the availability, utilization, and effectiveness of healthcare in a community?

Accepted Answer

Infant mortality rate

Answer

Maternal mortality rate

Answer

Immunization coverage

Answer

Disability-adjusted life years

Question 3

A construction worker came to the OPD complaining of white fingers. He has been working in the cement and concrete industry and has been working on heavy machinery drills, wood, and furniture polishing for 20 years. What is the most likely etiology for this condition?

Accepted Answer

Continuous exposure to drills and machines

Answer

Candidal infection of the fingers due to continuous exposure to water

Answer

Exposure to thinners and paints

Answer

Continuous exposure to cement and concrete

Question 4

A young male came to the hospital with a clean-cut wound without any bleeding. The patient    received a full course of tetanus vaccination 10 years ago. What is the best management for    this patient?

Accepted Answer

Single-dose tetanus toxoid

Answer

Human tetanus immunoglobulin only

Answer

Human tetanus immunoglobulin and a full course of vaccine

Answer

No treatment required

Question 5

A patient hailing from Delhi presents with fever, arthralgia, and extensive petechial rash for 3    days. Lab investigations revealed a hemoglobin of 9 g/ dL, a white blood cell count of 9000    cells/mm3, a platelet count of 20000 cells/mm3, and a prolonged bleeding time. The clotting    time was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Dengue

Answer

Malaria

Answer

Scrub typhus

Answer

Typhoid

Question 6

A patient presents with polyuria following total hypophysectomy. Laboratory results show Na+ levels at 155 mEq/L and urine osmolarity at 200 mOsm/L. What is the definitive management for this patient?

Accepted Answer

Lifelong DDAVP supplementation

Answer

No treatment required as receptors are upset

Answer

Thiazides for a limited duration of 2 weeks

Answer

DDAVP for a limited duration of 2 weeks

Question 7

An elderly male is known as a smoker presented with chronic cough, significant weight loss, and fatigue. Serum calcium level is raised. A lung biopsy was done, and it showed large atypical cells with hyperchromasia. What is the probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Large cell carcinoma

Answer

Small cell lung carcinoma

Answer

Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer

Lung adenocarcinoma

Question 8

A 78-year-old woman presents with a progressive decline in daily activity. She gives a history of convulsions and visual hallucinations. She does not talk to anyone and keeps looking at the sky. Pathological examination shows the presence of Lewy bodies within the neurons. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Lewy body dementia

Answer

Prion disease

Answer

Huntington's disease

Answer

Alzheimer's disease

Question 9

Which of the following is the drug of choice for preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis in a patient undergoing cardiac surgery?

Accepted Answer

Cefazolin

Answer

Penicillin

Answer

Clindamycin

Answer

Vancomycin

Question 10

A 23-year-old male patient presents with midline swelling in the neck. The swelling moves with deglutition and protrusion of the tongue. What is the likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Thyroglossal cyst

Answer

Brachial cyst

Answer

Plunging ranula

Answer

Dermoid cyst

NEET-PG 2023

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Internal Medicine

Pathology

Psychiatry

Surgery