NEET-PG 2023 — Obstetrics and Gynecology
13 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
A lady undergoes radical hysterectomy for suspected stage Ib cancer cervix. Histopathology reveals cancer extension to the lower part of the uterine body with positive surgical margins. What is the next step of management?
Hysteroscopy is indicated in all of the following except:
A female presents with 6 weeks of amenorrhea, experiencing vaginal bleeding and slight abdominal pain. A urine pregnancy test is positive, and her hCG level is 2800 IU/L. A mass measuring 3 x 2.5 cm is observed on the left adnexa. She is hemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
A primigravida presents to you with anemia early in her pregnancy. She is 7 weeks pregnant as seen on ultrasound. Her hemoglobin level is 9 g/dL. When should the iron supplements be started for her?
A woman presents to you at 36 weeks of gestation with complaints of breathlessness and excessive abdominal distension. Fetal movements are normal. On examination, fetal parts are not easily felt and fetal heartbeat is heard but it is muffled. Her symphysis fundal height is 41 cm. Her abdomen is tense but not tender. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 17-year-old girl is seen for primary amenorrhea. There is no development of breasts or hair in the pubic or axillary region. Her height is 155 cm, and her weight is 48 kg. She has bilateral inguinal masses. The uterus, fallopian tube, and Ovary are absent on ultrasound examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 23-year-old woman accompanied by her mother-in-law comes to the infertility clinic. She has been having regular intercourse for 6 months but is not able to conceive. What is the next best step?
A woman comes with complaints of pain and swelling in the perineal area. She also has complaints of difficulty in walking and sitting. She gives a history of multiple sexual partners. On examination, a tender swelling is seen with redness on the labia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 16-year-old girl presents with cyclical pelvic pain every month. She has not achieved menarche yet. On examination, a suprapubic bulge can be seen in the lower abdomen. PR examination reveals a bulging swelling in the anterior aspect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A pregnant woman comes to the clinic. She has previously delivered twins. What is the correct representation of her obstetric score?
NEET-PG 2023 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A lady undergoes radical hysterectomy for suspected stage Ib cancer cervix. Histopathology reveals cancer extension to the lower part of the uterine body with positive surgical margins. What is the next step of management?
- A. Chemoradiation (Correct Answer)
- B. Chemotherapy
- C. Radiotherapy
- D. Follow-up
Explanation: ***Correct Option: Chemoradiation*** - **Positive surgical margins** after radical hysterectomy represent a **high-risk feature** requiring adjuvant concurrent chemoradiation. - According to **GOG 109 trial** and **NCCN/ESGO guidelines**, high-risk features (positive surgical margins, parametrial involvement, or positive pelvic lymph nodes) mandate **concurrent chemoradiation** (external beam radiotherapy + cisplatin-based chemotherapy). - **Cisplatin-based chemoradiation** improves local control and overall survival compared to radiotherapy alone in high-risk post-operative cervical cancer. - The combination provides both local control (radiation) and systemic treatment (chemotherapy) to address micrometastatic disease. *Incorrect Option: Radiotherapy* - Radiotherapy alone is used for **intermediate-risk features** (large tumor size >4 cm, deep stromal invasion, lymphovascular space invasion) without positive margins or nodal involvement. - In this case with **positive surgical margins**, radiotherapy alone is insufficient and would miss the survival benefit provided by concurrent chemotherapy. - The presence of positive margins elevates this to high-risk category requiring combined modality treatment. *Incorrect Option: Chemotherapy* - Chemotherapy alone (without radiation) is not standard adjuvant treatment after radical hysterectomy. - Systemic chemotherapy as a single modality is reserved for recurrent or metastatic disease. - The standard in high-risk post-operative cases is **concurrent** chemoradiation, not sequential therapy. *Incorrect Option: Follow-up* - Follow-up alone is contraindicated with **positive surgical margins**, which indicate residual microscopic disease. - Without adjuvant treatment, the risk of local recurrence and distant metastasis is unacceptably high. - Active intervention with chemoradiation is essential to improve disease-free and overall survival.
Question 2: Hysteroscopy is indicated in all of the following except:
- A. Asherman syndrome
- B. Infertility
- C. Misplaced intrauterine devices
- D. Active pelvic infection (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Active pelvic infection*** - An **active pelvic infection** is a **contraindication** to hysteroscopy due to the risk of exacerbating the infection and spreading it systemically. - Performing hysteroscopy in the presence of infection can lead to **sepsis** or worsening of pelvic inflammatory disease. *Asherman syndrome* - **Asherman syndrome**, characterized by **intrauterine adhesions**, is a common indication for hysteroscopy to diagnose and surgically resect the adhesions. - Hysteroscopy allows for direct visualization and **lysis of adhesions** to restore uterine cavity integrity. *Infertility* - **Infertility** is a frequent indication for hysteroscopy to evaluate the uterine cavity for **structural abnormalities** such as polyps, fibroids, or septa that might impede conception or implantation. - It helps in identifying and often correcting intrauterine pathologies that contribute to a woman's inability to conceive. *Misplaced intrauterine devices* - Hysteroscopy is indicated for the retrieval of **misplaced or embedded intrauterine devices (IUDs)**, especially if they cannot be removed by simpler methods. - It provides direct visualization of the uterine cavity to help locate and safely extract the IUD, preventing further complications.
Question 3: A female presents with 6 weeks of amenorrhea, experiencing vaginal bleeding and slight abdominal pain. A urine pregnancy test is positive, and her hCG level is 2800 IU/L. A mass measuring 3 x 2.5 cm is observed on the left adnexa. She is hemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
- A. Oral methotrexate
- B. Single-dose methotrexate injection (Correct Answer)
- C. Serial methotrexate + leucovorin rescue
- D. Salpingectomy
Explanation: ***Single-dose methotrexate injection*** - The patient presents with a **hemodynamically stable ectopic pregnancy**, as suggested by the positive pregnancy test, amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, an hCG level of 2800 IU/L, and an adnexal mass. - A single-dose methotrexate injection is the **first-line medical management** for ectopic pregnancies in stable patients, particularly when hCG levels are typically below 5000 IU/L and the mass size is less than 4 cm (or 3.5 cm in some guidelines). *Oral methotrexate* - **Oral methotrexate** is not typically used for the treatment of ectopic pregnancy due to unpredictable absorption and less reliable therapeutic efficacy compared to intramuscular administration. - The **intramuscular route** is preferred to ensure consistent systemic exposure and effectiveness in dissolving the ectopic gestation. *Serial methotrexate + leucovorin rescue* - **Leucovorin rescue** is used to mitigate the adverse effects of high-dose methotrexate, typically in cancer chemotherapy, and is not indicated for the standard treatment of ectopic pregnancy. - Serial doses of methotrexate without leucovorin may be given if the initial single dose fails, but **leucovorin is not part of the standard initial treatment protocol** for ectopic pregnancy. *Salpingectomy* - **Salpingectomy (surgical removal of the fallopian tube)** is indicated for ectopic pregnancies that are **hemodynamically unstable**, ruptured, too large for medical management (e.g., >4 cm), or in cases where medical management with methotrexate fails or is contraindicated. - Since this patient is **hemodynamically stable** and meets the criteria for medical management, surgery is not the most appropriate initial management.
Question 4: A primigravida presents to you with anemia early in her pregnancy. She is 7 weeks pregnant as seen on ultrasound. Her hemoglobin level is 9 g/dL. When should the iron supplements be started for her?
- A. 8 to 10 weeks
- B. Immediately upon diagnosis (Correct Answer)
- C. After 14 weeks
- D. After 20 weeks
Explanation: ***Correct Option: Immediately upon diagnosis*** - **Iron deficiency anemia** in pregnancy (Hb <11 g/dL in first trimester) should be addressed promptly to prevent adverse maternal and fetal outcomes - Initiating treatment at 7 weeks ensures sustained **iron stores** throughout pregnancy - WHO and ACOG guidelines recommend **immediate supplementation** when anemia is diagnosed during antenatal screening - Early treatment prevents worsening due to physiological plasma volume expansion in second trimester *Incorrect Option: 8 to 10 weeks* - Delaying treatment for 1-3 weeks after diagnosis at 7 weeks is not justified medically - Any delay in treatment allows anemia to worsen and depletes maternal iron stores - Recommended practice is **immediate supplementation** if hemoglobin count is less than 11 g/dL during first two antenatal visits *Incorrect Option: After 14 weeks* - Waiting until second trimester (after 14 weeks) would allow the **anemia to worsen**, making it harder to correct before physiological drop in hemoglobin due to plasma volume expansion - Fetal development, particularly **neurological development**, is rapid in first trimester and iron is crucial during this period - Delaying 7 weeks after diagnosis risks maternal complications and suboptimal fetal development *Incorrect Option: After 20 weeks* - Starting supplementation this late (13 weeks after diagnosis) would result in severe maternal iron deficiency - Significant **fetal iron demands** increase by third trimester, making it difficult to replete maternal stores if supplementation starts this late - **Severe anemia** poses risks such as **preterm birth**, low birth weight, and **postpartum hemorrhage**
Question 5: A woman presents to you at 36 weeks of gestation with complaints of breathlessness and excessive abdominal distension. Fetal movements are normal. On examination, fetal parts are not easily felt and fetal heartbeat is heard but it is muffled. Her symphysis fundal height is 41 cm. Her abdomen is tense but not tender. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Abruptio placenta
- B. Hydrocephalus of fetus
- C. Polyhydramnios (Correct Answer)
- D. Oligohydramnios
Explanation: ***Polyhydramnios*** - The patient's symptoms of **breathlessness**, **excessive abdominal distension**, a **symphysis fundal height of 41 cm at 36 weeks** (indicating a significantly larger than expected uterus), and **muffled fetal heart tones** are classic signs of polyhydramnios. - **Difficulty feeling fetal parts** is also consistent with excess amniotic fluid, which cushions the fetus and makes palpation harder. *Abruptio placenta* - This condition typically presents with sudden onset of **painful vaginal bleeding**, uterine tenderness, and fetal distress, none of which are described here. - While the abdomen might be tense due to uterine contractions or concealed bleeding, the lack of pain and bleeding makes this diagnosis unlikely. *Hydrocephalus of fetus* - Fetal hydrocephalus would primarily manifest as an **abnormally large fetal head** upon ultrasound, potentially leading to a higher fundal height. - However, it wouldn't directly explain the generalized excessive abdominal distension or the difficulty in feeling fetal parts due to fluid, though it could be a cause of polyhydramnios itself, it is not the most likely primary diagnosis from the given options directly addressing the symptoms. *Oligohydramnios* - This condition is characterized by **too little amniotic fluid**, which would result in a **smaller than expected symphysis fundal height** and an easily palpable fetus. - The patient's symptoms, particularly the excessive distension and high fundal height, directly contradict the features of oligohydramnios.
Question 6: A 17-year-old girl is seen for primary amenorrhea. There is no development of breasts or hair in the pubic or axillary region. Her height is 155 cm, and her weight is 48 kg. She has bilateral inguinal masses. The uterus, fallopian tube, and Ovary are absent on ultrasound examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Turner syndrome
- B. Polycystic ovary syndrome
- C. Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
- D. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome*** - This syndrome presents with **primary amenorrhea**, **absent secondary sexual characteristics** (no breast or pubic/axillary hair development), and **inguinal masses** representing undescended testes. - Despite being genetically male (XY), individuals with complete androgen insensitivity develop a female external phenotype due to the **inability of target tissues to respond to androgens**, while Müllerian inhibiting factor from the testes causes the absence of a uterus and fallopian tubes. *Turner syndrome* - Characterized by **short stature** and primary amenorrhea, but typically involves **gonadal dysgenesis** (streaky ovaries), leading to the absence of ovarian function and estrogen production. - Individuals with Turner syndrome are genotypically female (XO) and usually present with distinct physical features like a **webbed neck** and **coarctation of the aorta**, which are not mentioned. *Polycystic ovary syndrome* - Typically presents with primary or secondary amenorrhea, often accompanied by **hirsutism**, acne, and obesity, none of which are consistent with the described lack of secondary sexual characteristics in this case. - While it can cause menstrual irregularities, it does not involve the absence of a uterus or fallopian tubes, nor does it typically present with inguinal masses. *Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism* - This refers to conditions where the gonads fail to respond to pituitary gonadotropins, leading to low sex hormones and high FSH/LH levels (e.g., **premature ovarian failure** or **Turner syndrome**). - While it causes primary amenorrhea and lack of secondary sexual development, it does not explain the presence of inguinal masses or the complete absence of Mullerian structures (uterus, fallopian tubes) as seen in androgen insensitivity syndrome.
Question 7: A 23-year-old woman accompanied by her mother-in-law comes to the infertility clinic. She has been having regular intercourse for 6 months but is not able to conceive. What is the next best step?
- A. Hysterolaparoscopy
- B. Diagnostic hysteroscopy
- C. Reassure and review the couple after 6 months (Correct Answer)
- D. Semen analysis for husband
Explanation: ***Reassure and review the couple after 6 months*** - Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after **12 months** of regular, unprotected intercourse in women under 35 years old. For women aged 35 or older, this period is 6 months. - Since the patient is 23 years old and has been trying for only 6 months, she does not yet meet the diagnostic criteria for infertility. The appropriate action is to advise them to continue trying and to return for evaluation if conception does not occur after a full year. *Semen analysis for husband* - While a semen analysis is a crucial initial step in an infertility workup, it is premature at this stage given the duration of attempted conception. - It would be appropriate to order this test after the couple has met the criteria for infertility (12 months for women under 35). *Hysterolaparoscopy* - This is an invasive procedure typically reserved for more advanced stages of an infertility workup, especially when suspected pathologies like endometriosis or tubal factor infertility are present. - It is not indicated as an initial step for a couple who has only been trying to conceive for 6 months and does not yet meet the definition of infertility. *Diagnostic hysteroscopy* - A diagnostic hysteroscopy is used to visualize the inside of the uterus to identify intrauterine pathologies that could contribute to infertility. - Like hysterolaparoscopy, it is an invasive diagnostic tool and should only be considered after initial, less invasive investigations have been performed and the couple meets the criteria for infertility.
Question 8: A woman comes with complaints of pain and swelling in the perineal area. She also has complaints of difficulty in walking and sitting. She gives a history of multiple sexual partners. On examination, a tender swelling is seen with redness on the labia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Chlamydial infection
- B. Bartholin abscess (Correct Answer)
- C. Genital Tuberculosis
- D. Herpes infection
Explanation: ***Bartholin abscess*** - The presentation of **painful, tender swelling with redness** on the labia, especially causing difficulty in walking and sitting, is classic for a **Bartholin gland abscess**. - **Multiple sexual partners** can increase the risk of infection leading to abscess formation due to bacterial contamination. *Chlamydial infection* - While Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection, it typically manifests as **cervicitis**, **urethritis**, or pelvic inflammatory disease, often with a discharge. - It does not directly cause an acute, localized labial abscess as described. *Genital Tuberculosis* - Genital tuberculosis is a **chronic condition** that usually presents with menstrual irregularities, infertility, or chronic pelvic pain. - It rarely causes an acute, tender labial swelling or abscess. *Herpes infection* - Genital herpes presents with **painful vesicles or ulcers** on the genitalia, often associated with a prodrome of itching or tingling. - It does not typically cause a single, large, tender, and red fluctuant swelling indicative of an abscess.
Question 9: A 16-year-old girl presents with cyclical pelvic pain every month. She has not achieved menarche yet. On examination, a suprapubic bulge can be seen in the lower abdomen. PR examination reveals a bulging swelling in the anterior aspect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Transverse vaginal septum
- B. Vaginal atresia
- C. Imperforate hymen (Correct Answer)
- D. Cervical agenesis
Explanation: ***Imperforate hymen*** - The combination of **cyclical pelvic pain** without menarche (primary amenorrhea) and a **suprapubic bulge** with **bulging swelling on PR examination** strongly suggests an imperforate hymen. - This condition leads to the **accumulation of menstrual blood (hematocolpos)**, causing the observed swelling and pain. - Imperforate hymen is the **most distal obstruction** of the female genital tract, presenting with a characteristic **bulging membrane at the vaginal opening**. *Transverse vaginal septum* - This condition also causes **primary amenorrhea** and **hematocolpos** leading to cyclical pain. - However, a transverse vaginal septum is located **higher in the vagina** (not at the introitus) and would not typically present with such an obvious **bulging swelling on examination** at the vaginal opening. *Vaginal atresia* - **Vaginal atresia** involves the complete or partial absence of the vagina, which would prevent menarche and cause cyclical pain. - While it results in hematocolpos (if the uterus is present), the presentation differs from the classic **bulging membrane** seen with imperforate hymen. *Cervical agenesis* - **Cervical agenesis** is the congenital absence or incomplete formation of the cervix, leading to **primary amenorrhea** and severe cyclical pain due to retained menstrual blood in the uterus (**hematometra**). - This condition would not present with a **bulging mass on PR examination** at the vaginal level, but rather with an enlarged uterus above, as the obstruction is at the cervical level, not at the vaginal outlet.
Question 10: A pregnant woman comes to the clinic. She has previously delivered twins. What is the correct representation of her obstetric score?
- A. G3P1 (3 pregnancies, 1 delivery)
- B. G2P1 (2 pregnancies, 1 delivery) (Correct Answer)
- C. G3P2 (3 pregnancies, 2 deliveries)
- D. G2P2 (2 pregnancies, 2 deliveries)
Explanation: ***G2P1 (2 pregnancies, 1 delivery)*** - **Gravidity (G)** refers to the total number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of outcome. This patient has been pregnant **twice**: once previously (resulting in twins) and once currently. - **Parity (P)** refers to the number of deliveries after 20 weeks gestation. Multiple gestation (twins, triplets) counts as **ONE delivery**, not separate deliveries. Therefore, her previous twin delivery = **P1**. - Current pregnancy status: She is currently pregnant (contributes to gravidity) but has not yet delivered this pregnancy (does not contribute to parity yet). *G3P1 (3 pregnancies, 1 delivery)* - This incorrectly counts the current pregnancy as if she has been pregnant three times total. - The parity is correct (1 delivery), but gravidity is overestimated. *G3P2 (3 pregnancies, 2 deliveries)* - This makes two errors: incorrectly counting three total pregnancies AND incorrectly counting the twin delivery as two separate deliveries. - Remember: multiple gestation = one delivery event, not multiple deliveries. *G2P2 (2 pregnancies, 2 deliveries)* - Gravidity is correct (2 pregnancies total), but this incorrectly counts the twin delivery as two separate deliveries. - Parity should be 1, not 2, because delivering twins is a single delivery event.