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20 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
A multigravida at term with a transverse lie and hand prolapse, along with a fetal heart rate of 140/min, is best managed by:
A woman with two children presents with galactorrhea and amenorrhea for one year. The most probable diagnosis is:
When in labor, a diagnosis of occipito-posterior presentation is made. The most appropriate management would be:
After 3rd stage of labour and expulsion of placenta, the patient is bleeding heavily. Ideal management would include all except:
Identify the type of hymen.
A 24 year old lactating female with an 18 month old child comes with a history of irregular, heavy bleeding seeking contraceptive advice. Which is the contraceptive of choice?
A woman with an obstetric score of G2P1 comes to the clinic at 14 weeks of gestation for her antenatal checkup. A uterine artery doppler was suggested by the doctor. What would it detect?
A pregnant patient, with a history of classical cesarean section in view of fetal growth retardation in the previous pregnancy, presents to you. She is currently at 35 weeks of gestation with breech presentation. What is the next step in management?
A primigravida presents to the labor room at 40 weeks of gestation with lower abdominal pain. She has been in labor for 3 hours. Which of the following will determine if she is in active labor?
A woman at 26 weeks of gestation presents for routine evaluation. On examination, fundal height corresponds to 24 weeks. Ultrasonography revealed decreased amniotic fluid. Which of the following conditions would have led to this presentation?