NEET-PG 2018 Practice Questions

Q: Ureteric bud develops from:

Mesonephros. ***Mesonephros*** - The **ureteric bud** arises as an outgrowth of the **mesonephric duct** (Wolffian duct), which is the duct of the mesonephros. - The ureteric bud emerges from the **caudal portion of the mesonephric duct** near its entry into the cloaca around the 5th week of development. - It plays a crucial role in forming the **collecting system of the kidney**, including the ureter, renal pelvis, major and minor calyces, and collecting ducts. - **Note:** While technically the ureteric bud arises from the mesonephric duct (not the mesonephric tubules), "mesonephros" is accepted as the answer referring to the mesonephric duct system. *Metanephros* - The **metanephric mesoderm** (metanephric blastema) is induced by the ureteric bud to form the **definitive kidney**. - The metanephros forms the **nephrons** (from Bowman's capsule to distal convoluted tubule). - It does not give rise to the ureteric bud; rather, it interacts with it through **reciprocal induction**. *Pronephros* - The **pronephros** is the first, transient, and **non-functional** kidney structure in human embryonic development. - It appears in the **cervical region** around week 4 and completely **regresses** by week 5. - It does not contribute to the formation of the ureteric bud or the adult kidney. *Genital sinus* - The **urogenital sinus** is derived from the ventral part of the cloaca after division by the urorectal septum. - It gives rise to the **bladder**, parts of the urethra, and contributes to external genitalia. - It is not involved in the development of the ureteric bud or the kidney's collecting system.

Q: Trilene is degraded by:

Cytochrome P450 oxidation. ***Cytochrome P450 oxidation*** - **Trichloroethylene (Trilene)** was historically used as an inhalational anesthetic and industrial solvent - In humans, it undergoes **hepatic metabolism primarily through cytochrome P450 enzymes**, particularly **CYP2E1** - The oxidation pathway produces metabolites including **chloral hydrate, trichloroethanol, and trichloroacetic acid** - This is a classic example of **Phase I detoxification** involving oxidative biotransformation - The metabolites are then conjugated (Phase II) or excreted renally *Glutathione conjugation* - While some chlorinated compounds undergo glutathione conjugation as a Phase II reaction - For trichloroethylene, **oxidation by CYP450 is the primary metabolic pathway**, not direct glutathione conjugation - GSH conjugation may occur with some metabolites but is not the main degradation route *Direct renal excretion* - Trilene is **lipophilic** and requires hepatic metabolism before elimination - Direct renal excretion without biotransformation is **minimal** - Metabolites (after oxidation) are excreted via kidneys *Acetylation* - **Acetylation** is a Phase II conjugation reaction typically for compounds with **amino or sulfonamide groups** - Trichloroethylene lacks the appropriate functional groups for acetylation - This pathway is **not involved** in Trilene metabolism

Q: Which of the following is an example of an X-linked disorder?

Color blindness. ***Color blindness*** - **Color blindness**, particularly red-green color blindness, is a classic example of an **X-linked recessive disorder**. - It results from mutations in genes encoding **photopigments** located on the X chromosome, affecting more males than females. - Represents one of the most commonly cited examples of X-linked inheritance in medical education. *Thalassemia* - **Thalassemia** is an **autosomal recessive disorder** affecting the synthesis of hemoglobin chains (α or β chains). - Not an X-linked condition; mutations are in genes on chromosome 16 (α-thalassemia) or chromosome 11 (β-thalassemia). - Commonly seen in populations from the Mediterranean, Middle East, and Asia. *Azoospermia* - **Azoospermia** (absence of sperm in ejaculate) is a clinical finding, not a specific genetic disorder. - Can result from various genetic causes including **Y-chromosome microdeletions** and **autosomal mutations** (e.g., CFTR gene in congenital bilateral absence of vas deferens). - Not classified as an X-linked disorder. *Sickle cell anemia* - **Sickle cell anemia** is an **autosomal recessive disorder** caused by a mutation in the β-globin gene on chromosome 11. - Results from substitution of valine for glutamic acid at position 6 of the β-globin chain (HbS). - Not an X-linked condition; both males and females are equally affected when inheriting two copies of the mutant allele.

Q: A child has a rash. His family history is positive for asthma. What could be the most probable diagnosis?

Atopic dermatitis. ***Atopic dermatitis*** - The presence of a rash in a child with a family history of **asthma** strongly suggests atopic dermatitis, as it is part of the **atopic triad** (eczema, asthma, allergic rhinitis). - Atopic dermatitis often presents with **erythematous, pruritic patches** and plaques, commonly affecting flexural areas like the antecubital and popliteal fossae, as well as the face and neck in younger children. *Seborrheic dermatitis* - This condition typically presents with **greasy, yellowish scales** on an erythematous base, often affecting areas rich in sebaceous glands such as the scalp, face (nasolabial folds), and chest. - While it can occur in infants, it does not have the strong association with a family history of asthma seen in atopic dermatitis. *Allergic contact dermatitis* - This rash results from an **exposure to an allergen**, leading to a localized, erythematous, and pruritic eruption, often with vesicles or bullae, at the site of contact. - The history does not provide information about a specific allergen exposure, and while it could produce a similar-looking rash, the family history of asthma points more strongly to atopic diathesis. *Erysipelas* - Erysipelas is a superficial skin infection, usually caused by *Streptococcus pyogenes*, presenting as a **well-demarcated, intensely erythematous, warm, and painful rash** with a raised border. - This is an **acute bacterial infection** and would typically be accompanied by systemic symptoms like fever and chills, which are not mentioned in the child's presentation.

Q: A boy presented with multiple non suppurative osteomyelitis with sickle cell anaemia. What will be the causative organism?

Salmonella. ***Salmonella*** - **Salmonella species** are a well-known cause of **osteomyelitis** in patients with **sickle cell anemia**, due to factors like gut mucosal damage and functional asplenia. [1] - The unique pathophysiology of sickle cell disease, including areas of bone infarction and compromised reticulendothelial system function, predisposes these patients to **Salmonella infections**. [1] *Staphylococcus aureus* - While **Staphylococcus aureus** is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in the general population, it is less likely to be the causative organism in patients with **sickle cell anemia** compared to Salmonella. - Its presence usually indicates other predisposing factors like trauma or prosthetic devices. *H. influenzae* - **Haemophilus influenzae** was a common cause of osteomyelitis in children before widespread vaccination but is now rare, especially with routine immunizations. - It is not specifically associated with a higher risk in patients with **sickle cell disease** for osteomyelitis compared to other pathogens. *Enterobacter species* - **Enterobacter species** can cause osteomyelitis, particularly in immunocompromised individuals or following surgery, but they are not uniquely associated with **sickle cell anemia** as a primary cause compared to Salmonella. - Their involvement in non-suppurative osteomyelitis in this specific patient population is less common.

Q: Which of the following methods is known as a fimbriectomy procedure?

Kroener procedure. ***Kroener procedure*** - The **Kroener procedure** is a method of **tubal ligation** particularly known as a **fimbriectomy**, where the fimbriated end of the fallopian tube is removed. - This sterilization technique primarily involves excising the **fimbriae**, preventing **ovum capture** and subsequent fertilization. *Uchida procedure* - The **Uchida procedure** involves **injecting a sclerosing solution** under the serosa of the fallopian tube, then excising a small segment and ligating the ends. - This method aims to **bury the fimbriated end** within the broad ligament, but it is not a fimbriectomy. *Irving procedure* - The **Irving procedure** involves **tying and transecting the fallopian tube**, then burying the severed medial end into the posterior wall of the uterus. - This technique is designed to prevent **fistula formation** and recanalization but does not involve fimbriectomy. *Madlener procedure* - The **Madlener procedure** involves **crushing a section** of the fallopian tube, usually a knuckle, and then ligating it. - This method is simpler but has a **higher failure rate** compared to other sterilization techniques and does not involve removal of the fimbriae.

Q: Which disease is associated with the CD59 marker?

PNH. ***PNH*** - The **CD59 marker** is associated with **Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)**, a condition characterized by the loss of glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) anchored proteins [1]. - It protects red blood cells from **complement-mediated lysis**, and its absence leads to hemolysis and thrombosis in patients with PNH [1,4]. *PTEN* - The **PTEN gene** is a tumor suppressor associated with various cancers and is not related to CD59. - It is primarily involved in the **regulation of the Akt signaling pathway**, not in complement regulation. *BRR* - **BRR (Birt-Hogg-Dubé syndrome)** is linked to folliculin and does not involve CD59. - This genetic condition is characterized by **skin tumors** and renal tumors, unrelated to the complement system. *Cowden syndrome* - **Cowden syndrome** is associated with mutations in the PTEN gene, relating to **hamartomas** and breast cancer risk, not CD59. - It affects multiple systems but does not involve **complement regulatory proteins** like CD59. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 650-651. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 601-602.

Q: Which gene is primarily associated with Cowden syndrome?

PTEN. ***PTEN*** - Cowden syndrome is an **autosomal dominant** inherited disorder caused by germline mutations in the **PTEN (phosphatase and tensin homolog) tumor suppressor gene**. - The PTEN gene plays a crucial role in cell growth, proliferation, and apoptosis, and its dysfunction leads to uncontrolled cell growth and the development of multiple **hamartomas** and increased cancer risk. *TP53* - Mutations in the **TP53 gene** are primarily associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome, a different inherited cancer predisposition syndrome characterized by a high risk of various cancers including sarcomas, breast cancer, and adrenocortical carcinoma. - While both inherited cancer syndromes involve tumor suppressor gene mutations, the specific gene affected and the clinical presentation differ significantly. *RB1* - The **RB1 gene** is a tumor suppressor gene primarily associated with **retinoblastoma**, a rare childhood eye cancer, and an increased risk of other cancers like osteosarcoma. - It plays a critical role in cell cycle regulation, and its mutation leads to uncontrolled cell division in the retina and other tissues. *KRAS* - The **KRAS gene** is an oncogene, not a tumor suppressor gene, and its mutations are frequently found in various sporadic cancers, particularly **colorectal cancer**, pancreatic cancer, and lung cancer. - KRAS mutations lead to constitutive activation of signaling pathways that promote cell growth and survival, but they are not the primary genetic cause of inherited Cowden syndrome.

Q: What is the physiological response of the kidney during shock?

Renal blood flow decreases. ***Renal blood flow decreases*** - During shock, the **primary and most fundamental** physiological change affecting the kidney is a marked **reduction in renal blood flow (RBF)**. - Shock triggers intense **sympathetic activation** and **renin-angiotensin system (RAS) activation**, causing preferential **vasoconstriction** of renal vessels to redirect blood to vital organs (brain, heart). - RBF can drop to as low as **20-30% of normal** in severe shock, making this the hallmark renal response. - This reduction in RBF is the **upstream event** that triggers all other renal changes during shock. *Perfusion of kidney decreases* - While technically correct, "decreased perfusion" is **essentially synonymous** with decreased blood flow in this context. - The term "renal blood flow" is the **standard physiological terminology** used in medical literature to describe this phenomenon, making it the more precise answer. *Afferent arteriole resistance increases* - This is a **mechanism** by which RBF decreases, not the overall response itself. - Increased afferent arteriolar resistance is **secondary** to sympathetic activation and angiotensin II effects during shock. - It describes the "how" rather than the "what" of the kidney's response. *GFR decreases* - GFR reduction is a **consequence** of decreased RBF and increased afferent arteriolar resistance. - While clinically important (oliguria/acute kidney injury), it's a **downstream effect** rather than the primary physiological response. - The relationship: ↓RBF → ↓Glomerular hydrostatic pressure → ↓GFR

Q: What is the structure seen in the X-ray?

Stent. ***Stent*** - The image clearly shows **bilateral coiled structures** (pigtails) at the proximal and distal ends within the renal pelvis and bladder, which are characteristic features of **double J stents (ureteral stents)**. - These devices are used to maintain patency in the **ureters**, often to bypass obstructions or facilitate urine drainage. *Surgical clips* - **Surgical clips** are typically small, dense, metallic objects used to ligate vessels or tissue, appearing as tiny, bright specks on X-rays. - The structures seen in the image are long, tubular, and coiled, which is inconsistent with the appearance of surgical clips. *Foley catheter* - A **Foley catheter** is a flexible tube inserted into the bladder to drain urine, sometimes with a balloon tip. - It would typically be seen entirely within the **bladder**, and its path would not extend bilaterally into the renal pelvis as shown. *Intravesical wire* - An **intravesical wire** (a wire entirely within the bladder) would appear as a coiled or linear structure confined to the bladder itself. - The structures in the image extend from the renal region down into the bladder, traversing the **ureters**, which is not typical for an intravesical wire.

Question 1

Ureteric bud develops from:

Accepted Answer

Mesonephros

Answer

Metanephros

Answer

Pronephros

Answer

Genital sinus

Question 2

Trilene is degraded by:

Accepted Answer

Cytochrome P450 oxidation

Answer

Glutathione conjugation

Answer

Direct renal excretion

Answer

Acetylation

Question 3

Which of the following is an example of an X-linked disorder?

Accepted Answer

Color blindness

Answer

Thalassemia

Answer

Azoospermia

Answer

Sickle cell anemia

Question 4

A child has a rash. His family history is positive for asthma. What could be the most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Atopic dermatitis

Answer

Seborrheic dermatitis

Answer

Allergic contact dermatitis

Answer

Erysipelas

Question 5

A boy presented with multiple non suppurative osteomyelitis with sickle cell anaemia. What will be the causative organism?

Accepted Answer

Salmonella

Answer

H. influenzae

Answer

Enterobacter species

Answer

Staphylococcus aureus

Question 6

Which of the following methods is known as a fimbriectomy procedure?

Accepted Answer

Kroener procedure

Answer

Uchida procedure

Answer

Irving procedure

Answer

Madlener procedure

Question 7

Which disease is associated with the CD59 marker?

Accepted Answer

PNH

Answer

Cowden syndrome

Answer

Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba syndrome

Answer

PTEN hamartoma tumor syndrome

Question 8

Which gene is primarily associated with Cowden syndrome?

Accepted Answer

PTEN

Answer

RB1

Answer

KRAS

Answer

TP53

Question 9

What is the physiological response of the kidney during shock?

Accepted Answer

Renal blood flow decreases

Answer

GFR decreases

Answer

Perfusion of kidney decreases

Answer

Afferent arteriole resistance increases

Question 10

What is the structure seen in the X-ray?

Accepted Answer

Stent

Answer

Surgical clips

Answer

Foley catheter

Answer

Intravesical wire

NEET-PG 2018

Anatomy

Biochemistry

Dermatology

Microbiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Physiology

Radiology