Anesthesiology
1 questionsMurphy's eye is seen in -
NEET-PG 2018 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: Murphy's eye is seen in -
- A. Endotracheal tube (Correct Answer)
- B. Flexible laryngoscope
- C. Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)
- D. Macintosh laryngoscope
Explanation: ***Endotracheal tube*** - A Murphy's eye is a **hole on the side** of the endotracheal tube, near the distal tip, opposite the main bevel. - Its purpose is to provide an **alternative pathway for gas flow** if the main opening of the tube becomes occluded by secretions or contact with the tracheal wall. *Flexible laryngoscope* - This device is used for **visualizing the airway** and guiding endotracheal tube placement, not for maintaining it. - It does not have a Murphy's eye as it is a diagnostic/guiding tool, not a conduit for ventilation. *Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)* - An LMA is a **supraglottic airway device** that creates a seal around the laryngeal inlet. - It does not have a Murphy's eye as its design doesn't involve intralaryngeal distal tip placement where occlusion by the tracheal wall is a primary concern. *Macintosh laryngoscope* - This is a type of **laryngoscope blade** used to visualize the vocal cords during intubation. - It is an instrument for intubation, not the airway device itself, and therefore does not have a Murphy's eye.
Biochemistry
1 questionsPhenylketonuria is due to deficiency of:
NEET-PG 2018 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of:
- A. Phenylalanine (amino acid)
- B. Tyrosine
- C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)*** - **Phenylketonuria (PKU)** is an inherited metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme **phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)**. - This enzyme is crucial for converting the amino acid **phenylalanine** into **tyrosine**, and its deficiency leads to an accumulation of phenylalanine in the body. - PKU follows an **autosomal recessive** inheritance pattern. *Phenylalanine (amino acid)* - While **phenylalanine** accumulates to toxic levels in PKU, it is the substrate, not the deficient component. - The disease stems from the body's inability to metabolize this amino acid due to the enzyme deficiency. *Tyrosine* - **Tyrosine** is the product of the reaction catalyzed by PAH, and its production is limited in PKU. - However, the deficiency of tyrosine is a secondary effect, not the primary cause of PKU. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the deficiency of **phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)** is precisely the cause of Phenylketonuria.
Community Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following constitutional articles is not related to children?
NEET-PG 2018 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: Which of the following constitutional articles is not related to children?
- A. 23
- B. 42 (Correct Answer)
- C. 24
- D. 21-A
Explanation: ***Article 42*** - Article 42 of the Indian Constitution deals with **provision for just and humane conditions of work** and **maternity relief**, primarily concerning adult workers, particularly women. - While maternity relief indirectly benefits children by supporting mothers, the article's direct focus is not on children's rights or welfare. *Article 23* - Article 23 prohibits **traffic in human beings and forced labor**, including **begar** and other forms of forced labor. - This article is directly related to children as it safeguards them from exploitation, such as **child trafficking** and forced labor. *Article 21-A* - Article 21-A guarantees the **right to education** for all children between the ages of six and fourteen years. - It mandates that the state shall provide free and compulsory education, making it fundamentally related to children's rights. *Article 24* - Article 24 prohibits the **employment of children below the age of fourteen years** in any factory or mine or engages them in any other hazardous employment. - This article directly protects children from various forms of child labor and is thus related to child welfare.
Dermatology
1 questionsIdentify the skin lesion shown in the image.
NEET-PG 2018 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: Identify the skin lesion shown in the image.
- A. Becker nevus (Correct Answer)
- B. Hypopigmented macule
- C. Spitz nevus
- D. Epidermal nevus
Explanation: ***Becker nevus*** - This image clearly shows a large, **hyperpigmented patch with overlying coarse terminal hairs**, characteristic of a Becker nevus. - Becker nevi typically develop in adolescence and are often found on the shoulder or upper trunk, as seen here. *Hypopigmented macule* - A **hypopigmented macule** would appear as an area of skin with **reduced pigmentation** (lighter than the surrounding skin), which is contrary to the darker lesion shown. - There would also be no indication of **increased hair growth** within a typical hypopigmented macule. *Spitz nevus* - A Spitz nevus is a benign melanocytic nevus often appearing as a **dome-shaped, pink or red papule or nodule**, commonly on the face or limbs. - It does not present as a large, hairy, **hyperpigmented patch** as depicted in the image. *Epidermal nevus* - An epidermal nevus is a **congenital lesion** formed by an overgrowth of epidermal cells, but its appearance is typically a **verrucous (wart-like) plaque** or linearly arranged papules. - While it can be hyperpigmented, it generally **lacks the prominent hypertrichosis** (excessive hair growth) seen in the image.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the characteristic smell of a properly mummified body?
NEET-PG 2018 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: What is the characteristic smell of a properly mummified body?
- A. Sweet
- B. Odourless (Correct Answer)
- C. Offensive
- D. Pungent
Explanation: ***Odourless*** - A **properly mummified body** is characterized by **complete desiccation (drying) of tissues**, which prevents decomposition and eliminates putrefactive odors. - In **forensic contexts**, mummification typically occurs through **natural processes** in dry, well-ventilated environments, or through **artificial embalming** that removes moisture and inhibits bacterial growth. - The **absence of moisture** makes the body largely **odorless**, as decomposition bacteria cannot survive without water. *Sweet* - A **sweet smell** is associated with **early decomposition stages**, particularly due to the formation of **adipocere** (grave wax) or **ketone production** during fat breakdown. - This smell indicates **active decomposition**, which is **absent in properly mummified remains**. *Offensive* - An **offensive smell** indicates active **putrefaction** with significant microbial activity producing foul-smelling gases (hydrogen sulfide, cadaverine, putrescine). - Mummification **prevents putrefaction** by removing the moisture necessary for bacterial growth. - An offensive odor in supposed mummified remains suggests **incomplete mummification** or **environmental degradation**. *Pungent* - A **pungent smell** arises from **ammonia and volatile amines** produced during protein decomposition by bacteria. - This indicates **active autolysis and putrefaction**, processes that are **arrested in true mummification** due to tissue desiccation. - A properly preserved mummy should **not produce decomposition-related odors**.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich condition is associated with the ECG pattern known as pseudo P pulmonale?
NEET-PG 2018 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: Which condition is associated with the ECG pattern known as pseudo P pulmonale?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hypercalcemia*** - **Hypercalcemia** can cause a characteristic ECG pattern known as pseudo P pulmonale due to its effects on **myocardial repolarization**. - This condition leads to a **shortened QT interval** which causes the T wave to merge with the P wave, giving the appearance of a tall, peaked P wave. *Hypokalemia* - **Hypokalemia** typically presents with **flattened T waves**, prominent U waves, and ST-segment depression on an ECG [1]. - It can prolong repolarization, which is the opposite effect observed with pseudo P pulmonale [1]. *Hyponatremia* - **Hyponatremia** has a less defined direct effect on ECG patterns compared to other electrolyte imbalances. - Severe hyponatremia may lead to **QRS widening** or **bradycardia**, but not pseudo P pulmonale [1]. *Hypocalcemia* - **Hypocalcemia** characteristically causes **prolongation of the QT interval** on an ECG due to delayed ventricular repolarization [2]. - This is distinct from the shortened QT seen in hypercalcemia that contributes to pseudo P pulmonale.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
2 questionsWhat is the most common symptom treated with hormone therapy (HT) in menopausal women?
Which drug regimen is given to a pregnant woman with HIV infection?
NEET-PG 2018 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: What is the most common symptom treated with hormone therapy (HT) in menopausal women?
- A. Endometriosis
- B. Uterine bleeding
- C. Hot flashes (Correct Answer)
- D. Breast cancer
Explanation: ***Hot flashes*** - **Vasomotor symptoms**, including hot flashes and night sweats, are the most frequent and bothersome symptoms experienced by menopausal women, leading them to seek medical attention and hormone therapy. - HT is highly effective in reducing the frequency and severity of hot flashes by stabilizing **thermoregulation** in the hypothalamus. *Breast cancer* - **Breast cancer** is a potential risk associated with hormone therapy, particularly with combined estrogen-progestin therapy, not a symptom treated by HT. - Women with a history of breast cancer or those at high risk are generally advised against HT due to this increased risk. *Endometriosis* - While **estrogen-dependent diseases** like endometriosis can be aggravated by HRT, endometriosis itself is a condition that typically improves after menopause. - HT is not used to treat endometriosis; in certain cases, it might be used to manage menopausal symptoms in women with a history of endometriosis after specific surgical interventions. *Uterine bleeding* - **Uterine bleeding** can be a side effect of hormone therapy, especially when progestin is not adequately balanced with estrogen in women with a uterus. - Abnormal uterine bleeding is a symptom that requires investigation to rule out other causes, and it is not a primary symptom treated by HT.
Question 152: Which drug regimen is given to a pregnant woman with HIV infection?
- A. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate with emtricitabine
- B. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate with lamivudine
- C. Abacavir with lamivudine
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - All listed regimens—**Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) with emtricitabine (FTC)**, **TDF with lamivudine (3TC)**, and **Abacavir (ABC) with lamivudine (3TC)**—are commonly used and generally safe combinations of **nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)** in pregnant women with HIV. - The choice of regimen depends on factors such as individual patient characteristics, viral resistance patterns, and potential side effects, but all mentioned regimens are considered **first-line options** in various guidelines for preventing mother-to-child transmission (PMTCT). *Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate with emtricitabine* - This combination is a common and effective **NRTI backbone** for HIV treatment, including in pregnancy, offering good efficacy and a generally favorable safety profile. - It is frequently paired with a third agent (e.g., a **non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)** or an **integrase strand transfer inhibitor (INSTI)**) as part of a highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) regimen. *Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate with lamivudine* - This is another widely used and effective **NRTI combination** and is also a recommended backbone for pregnant women with HIV. - While similar to TDF/FTC, some guidelines might prefer one over the other based on specific regional recommendations or drug availability. *Abacavir with lamivudine* - **Abacavir/lamivudine** is a well-established NRTI combination that is safe and effective in pregnancy, provided the mother is **HLA-B*5701 negative** to avoid hypersensitivity reactions. - It is considered a suitable alternative to TDF-containing regimens, especially when there are contraindications or intolerances to TDF.
Surgery
2 questionsWhat is the most common indication for performing a tracheostomy?
Which is the best investigation for carcinoma of the head of pancreas?
NEET-PG 2018 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: What is the most common indication for performing a tracheostomy?
- A. Severe obstructive sleep apnea
- B. Tracheal stenosis
- C. Vocal cord paralysis
- D. Prolonged mechanical ventilation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Prolonged mechanical ventilation*** - Maintaining an **endotracheal tube** for an extended period carries risks like **tracheal injury**, **vocal cord damage**, and difficulty with oral intake. - A tracheostomy provides a more comfortable and stable airway for **long-term respiratory support**, facilitates weaning from the ventilator, and reduces the risk of **ventilator-associated pneumonia**. *Severe obstructive sleep apnea* - While tracheostomy can effectively treat severe OSA by bypassing the upper airway obstruction, it is generally considered a **last resort** after less invasive treatments have failed. - The most common initial treatments for OSA include **CPAP**, weight loss, and oral appliances. *Tracheal stenosis* - Tracheal stenosis itself is a **structural narrowing** of the trachea that may or may not require tracheostomy, depending on its severity and location. - While a tracheostomy can bypass a severe stenosis, surgical repair of the trachea is often the definitive treatment for **severe tracheal stenosis**. *Vocal cord paralysis* - Unilateral vocal cord paralysis typically causes **hoarseness** and may not always necessitate a tracheostomy. - Bilateral vocal cord paralysis can lead to **airway obstruction**, but intervention usually involves vocal cord lateralization procedures or, in severe cases, a tracheostomy for airway patency.
Question 152: Which is the best investigation for carcinoma of the head of pancreas?
- A. Transduodenal/transperitoneal sampling
- B. Guided biopsy
- C. ERCP
- D. EUS (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***EUS*** - **Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)** provides the highest resolution imaging of the pancreas and allows for **fine-needle aspiration (FNA)** of suspicious lesions, offering definitive tissue diagnosis. - Its ability to visualize small, early-stage tumors and regional lymph nodes makes it the **most accurate method for diagnosis and staging** of pancreatic head carcinoma. *Guided biopsy* - While a biopsy is necessary for definitive diagnosis, 'guided biopsy' is a broad term that doesn't specify the highly effective EUS guidance. - Other biopsy methods that are not guided by EUS may be less accurate and carry higher risks for pancreatic lesions. *ERCP* - **Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)** is primarily a therapeutic procedure used for **biliary drainage** in cases of obstruction caused by pancreatic head tumors. - Although it can visualize ductal abnormalities and allow brush cytology, it is **less sensitive for direct tumor visualization** and tissue acquisition compared to EUS-FNA. *Transduodenal/transperitoneal sampling* - These are **invasive surgical approaches** for obtaining tissue samples, typically reserved when less invasive methods like EUS-FNA are unsuccessful or when intraoperative confirmation is needed. - They carry **higher risks** and are not considered the "best investigation" for initial diagnosis due to their invasiveness and potential for complications.