NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: What is the Net Protein Utilization (NPU) for eggs?

94. ***94*** - **Eggs** are considered a **high-quality protein source** with a Net Protein Utilization (NPU) of approximately **94**, indicating very efficient protein absorption and utilization by the body. - This high NPU reflects the excellent balance of **essential amino acids** in eggs, making them a benchmark for protein quality. *70* - An NPU of 70 is generally considered good but is lower than that of **eggs**, which are among the most efficiently utilized proteins. - This value might be typical for some **plant-based proteins** or mixtures of proteins with slightly less optimal essential amino acid profiles. *80* - An NPU of 80 indicates good protein quality but is still significantly lower than the **NPU of eggs**. - This value is often seen in high-quality **meat proteins** or well-balanced **dairy products**. *100* - An NPU of 100 would mean that all ingested protein is perfectly absorbed and utilized by the body without any loss, which is **theoretically impossible** for biological systems. - While some protein quality metrics might approach 100, **NPU is a measure of actual utilization** and never reaches 100 due to metabolic losses.

Q: Most commonly used blinding technique in epidemiological studies?

Double blinding. ***Double blinding*** - In **double blinding**, neither the **participants** nor the **researchers** administering the intervention and collecting data know who is in the treatment group versus the control group. - This method is widely used to prevent **observer bias** from the researchers and **participant bias** (e.g., placebo effect) from the subjects, thereby strengthening the study's internal validity. *Single blinding* - In **single blinding**, only the **participants** are unaware of their assignment to either the treatment or control group. - While it helps reduce participant bias, the **researchers' knowledge** of group assignments can still introduce **observer bias**, making it less rigorous than double blinding. *Triple blinding* - **Triple blinding** extends double blinding by ensuring that the **data analysts** are also unaware of the participant group assignments. - This technique further minimizes bias in the **interpretation and analysis of results**, but it is less commonly implemented due to its complexity and increased logistical challenges compared to double blinding. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **blinding techniques** are fundamental tools in epidemiological studies and clinical trials to ensure the objectivity and reliability of research findings. - **Blinding** helps eliminate conscious and unconscious biases that could otherwise influence study outcomes.

Q: What distance from a water source defines a problem village according to the Government of India?

> 1.6 km. ***> 1.6 km*** - According to the **Government of India's criteria**, a village is designated as a **problem village** if its residents have to travel more than **1.6 kilometers** to access a safe and assured source of drinking water. - This definition is crucial for identifying areas that require specific interventions and programs to improve water access. *> 0.5 km* - While a distance of 0.5 km might be considered inconvenient, it does not meet the **official threshold** set by the Government of India for categorizing a village as "problematic" regarding water access. - This distance is typically much shorter than the criteria used for policy and intervention planning. *> 1 km* - A distance of 1 km, like 0.5 km, falls short of the **established benchmark** of 1.6 km defined by the Government of India for identifying a problem village. - Although it represents a significant walk, it does not trigger the specific **policy responses** associated with problem village status. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **1.6 km** is indeed the specific distance recognized by the Government of India for defining a problem village in terms of water source accessibility. - The other options are incorrect as they do not match the official criteria.

Q: All of the following are features of Tubotympanic CSOM except which of the following?

Extreme pain. ***Extreme pain*** - **Extreme pain** is NOT a characteristic feature of **tubotympanic CSOM**. This type is typically associated with a history of **painless otorrhea**. - Tubotympanic CSOM is considered the "safe" type with inflammation limited to the mucosa without bone erosion. - The presence of severe pain should raise suspicion for complications or the **atticoantral (unsafe) type** of CSOM. *Profuse discharge* - **Profuse, mucoid** or **mucopurulent discharge** is a hallmark feature of tubotympanic CSOM. - This discharge results from chronic inflammation of the **middle ear mucoperiosteum** through a central perforation in the **pars tensa**. - The discharge is typically non-foul smelling (unlike atticoantral CSOM). *Hearing loss* - **Conductive hearing loss** is a universal feature of tubotympanic CSOM. - Results from **tympanic membrane perforation**, middle ear effusion, and potential ossicular discontinuity. - The degree of hearing loss correlates with the size and location of the perforation. *Facial nerve paralysis* - Facial nerve paralysis is **NOT a typical feature** of tubotympanic (safe) CSOM. - This complication is characteristically associated with **atticoantral (unsafe) CSOM** with cholesteatoma causing bone erosion. - While theoretically possible in very advanced neglected tubotympanic disease, it would indicate transformation to unsafe disease or secondary complications. - **Note:** Some sources may list this as a rare complication, but it is not a characteristic feature distinguishing tubotympanic CSOM, making this option potentially ambiguous in an "EXCEPT" question format.

Q: Which of the following statements about atrial myxomas is correct?

Most commonly found in the Left Atrium.. ***Most commonly found in the Left Atrium.*** - **Atrial myxomas** are typically found in the **left atrium** (approximately 75-80% of cases), often attached to the **interatrial septum** near the fossa ovalis. - Their presence in the left atrium can lead to **obstruction of the mitral valve**, causing symptoms mimicking mitral stenosis [1]. *More prevalent in males.* - **Atrial myxomas** are more common in **females** than males, with a female-to-male ratio of approximately 2:1. - This higher prevalence in women is a consistent finding in epidemiological studies of cardiac myxomas [2]. *Most myxomas are hereditary.* - The vast majority of **atrial myxomas** are **sporadic** (non-hereditary), accounting for about 90-95% of cases. - A small percentage (5-10%) are part of a familial syndrome known as **Carney complex**, which is an autosomal dominant disorder. *Distant metastasis is commonly observed.* - **Atrial myxomas** are generally **benign tumors** and do not metastasize to distant sites. - While they can embolize fragments, leading to systemic effects, these are not true metastases.

Q: Capsular polysaccharide derived vaccine is available for all meningococci except?

Group B. ***Group B*** - The capsular polysaccharide of **Group B meningococci** is composed of **polysialic acid**, which is poorly immunogenic in humans because it structurally mimics human neural cell adhesion molecules. - Due to its **poor immunogenicity** and risk of autoantibody production, traditional polysaccharide vaccines are ineffective against Group B. *Group A* - Polysaccharide vaccines for **Group A meningococci** (e.g., in Menactra, Menveo) are effective in inducing a protective immune response. - Group A is a major cause of meningococcal disease, particularly in the **"meningitis belt"** of sub-Saharan Africa. *Group C* - **Capsular polysaccharide vaccines** are available and effective against Group C meningococcal disease, often included in quadrivalent formulations. - These vaccines elicit a robust **antibody response** against the Group C polysaccharide. *Group Y* - Vaccines containing the **capsular polysaccharide** of Group Y meningococci are effective and commonly included in quadrivalent vaccines. - Group Y is a significant cause of meningococcal disease, particularly in **North America and Europe**.

Q: What is a common characteristic of the H5N1 and H7N7 strains of influenza?

Strains of avian influenza. ***Strains of avian influenza*** - Both **H5N1** and **H7N7** are well-known subtypes of the **influenza A virus** that primarily infect birds. - While they can infect humans, their natural reservoir and main hosts are **avian species**. *Frequent endemic infection in man* - These strains are not endemic in humans; human infections are typically **sporadic** and associated with close contact with infected birds. - They lack efficient **human-to-human transmission**, which prevents them from becoming endemic in the human population. *Have same frequency of antigenic variation* - Although both undergo **antigenic variation**, the specific frequency and patterns can differ between strains and are influenced by various factors, including their host range and circulation dynamics. - It is inaccurate to assume identical frequencies of **antigenic drift** and **shift** for different viral subtypes. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because "Strains of avian influenza" is a correct and common characteristic shared by both H5N1 and H7N7.

Q: Most common cause of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. ***Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)*** - This is the **most common** form of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia, accounting for approximately **50-60% of all IIP cases** - Represents the **most severe** IIP subtype with poor prognosis - Characterized by progressive **usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP) pattern** with fibroblastic foci and honeycombing - Presents with progressive dyspnea, dry cough, and restrictive lung disease *Organizing pneumonia* - While **Cryptogenic Organizing Pneumonia (COP)** is a form of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia, it is **much less common than IPF** [1] - Characterized by **intra-alveolar granulation tissue (Masson bodies)** [1] - Better prognosis and steroid-responsive compared to IPF [1] *Sarcoidosis* - This is **NOT classified as an idiopathic interstitial pneumonia** - It is a separate **multisystem granulomatous disease** with **non-caseating granulomas** - Has a distinct etiology related to altered immune response - Does not belong to the IIP classification system *Lipoid pneumonia* - This is **NOT an idiopathic interstitial pneumonia** - Results from **aspiration of lipid substances** causing exogenous lipoid pneumonia - Has a **known extrinsic cause**, therefore not "idiopathic" - Not part of the IIP classification **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Respiratory Tract Disease, pp. 330-331.

Q: Which term describes the sexual gratification obtained from enemas?

Klismaphilia. ***Klismaphilia*** - This term specifically refers to a **paraphilia** where an individual experiences **sexual arousal or gratification from enemas**. - It involves the use of enemas for purposes beyond their medical indication, for sexual pleasure. *Exhibitionism* - This paraphilia involves experiencing **sexual arousal from exposing one's genitals to an unsuspecting stranger**. - The gratification comes from the shock or surprise of the observer, not from enemas. *Fetishism* - This involves **sexual attraction to inanimate objects or non-genital body parts**. - While it could theoretically involve objects used for enemas, "klismaphilia" specifically describes the act with enemas. *Frotteurism* - This paraphilia is characterized by **sexual gratification from rubbing against or touching a nonconsenting person** in crowded public places. - It does not involve enemas and is instead focused on physical contact without consent.

Q: Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding Zenker diverticulum?

It is a pulsion diverticulum. ***It is a pulsion diverticulum*** - A **Zenker diverticulum** is formed by the herniation of the **pharyngeal mucosa** through a weak point in the posterior pharyngeal wall, driven by increased intraluminal pressure (**pulsion**). - This contrasts with **traction diverticula**, which are caused by external pulling forces on the esophageal wall. *It is between superior and middle constrictor* - **Zenker diverticulum** occurs in **Killian's triangle**, a weak area between the **cricopharyngeus muscle** (part of the inferior constrictor) and the **thyropharyngeus muscle** (also part of the inferior constrictor). - The superior and middle constrictor muscles are located more superiorly in the pharynx, and diverticula in this region are rare. *It projects posteriorly* - Although it originates from the **posterior pharyngeal wall**, the **Zenker diverticulum** typically projects **left laterally** or **inferiorly** into the neck as it enlarges. - Its initial herniation is posterior, but subsequent growth and gravitational forces lead to its characteristic downward and often left-sided displacement. *It is commonly seen in older adults* - While it most commonly affects **older adults**, this statement describes an **epidemiological characteristic** rather than a fundamental pathophysiological feature of the diverticulum's formation. - The question asks for the **most accurate statement** regarding its nature, and its classification as a pulsion diverticulum directly addresses its pathological mechanism.

Question 1

What is the Net Protein Utilization (NPU) for eggs?

Accepted Answer

94

Answer

70

Answer

80

Answer

100

Question 2

Most commonly used blinding technique in epidemiological studies?

Accepted Answer

Double blinding

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Single blinding

Answer

Triple blinding

Question 3

What distance from a water source defines a problem village according to the Government of India?

Accepted Answer

> 1.6 km

Answer

> 0.5 km

Answer

> 1 km

Answer

None of the options

Question 4

All of the following are features of Tubotympanic CSOM except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Extreme pain

Answer

Profuse discharge

Answer

Hearing loss

Answer

Facial nerve paralysis

Question 5

Which of the following statements about atrial myxomas is correct?

Accepted Answer

Most commonly found in the Left Atrium.

Answer

More prevalent in males.

Answer

Most myxomas are hereditary.

Answer

Distant metastasis is commonly observed.

Question 6

Capsular polysaccharide derived vaccine is available for all meningococci except?

Accepted Answer

Group B

Answer

Group C

Answer

Group Y

Answer

Group A

Question 7

What is a common characteristic of the H5N1 and H7N7 strains of influenza?

Accepted Answer

Strains of avian influenza

Answer

Frequent endemic infection in man

Answer

Have same frequency of antigenic variation

Answer

None of the options

Question 8

Most common cause of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is

Accepted Answer

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Answer

Organizing pneumonia

Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Lipoid pneumonia

Question 9

Which term describes the sexual gratification obtained from enemas?

Accepted Answer

Klismaphilia

Answer

Exhibitionism

Answer

Frotteurism

Answer

Fetishism

Question 10

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding Zenker diverticulum?

Accepted Answer

It is a pulsion diverticulum

Answer

It is between superior and middle constrictor

Answer

It projects posteriorly

Answer

It is commonly seen in older adults

NEET-PG 2015

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

ENT

Internal Medicine

Microbiology

Pathology

Psychiatry

Surgery