Internal Medicine
9 questionsWhich of the following statements about atrial myxomas is correct?
Duroziez's sign is associated with which of the following conditions?
Becks triad is seen in
The severity of mitral stenosis can be judged by-
Wide pulse pressure is seen in all except which of the following?
All are seen in Nephrotic syndrome except
Which of the following is NOT a common cause of acute renal failure?
All are true about GFR except:
Which of the following conditions is a direct indication for initiating dialysis?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 721: Which of the following statements about atrial myxomas is correct?
- A. More prevalent in males.
- B. Most myxomas are hereditary.
- C. Most commonly found in the Left Atrium. (Correct Answer)
- D. Distant metastasis is commonly observed.
Explanation: ***Most commonly found in the Left Atrium.*** - **Atrial myxomas** are typically found in the **left atrium** (approximately 75-80% of cases), often attached to the **interatrial septum** near the fossa ovalis. - Their presence in the left atrium can lead to **obstruction of the mitral valve**, causing symptoms mimicking mitral stenosis [1]. *More prevalent in males.* - **Atrial myxomas** are more common in **females** than males, with a female-to-male ratio of approximately 2:1. - This higher prevalence in women is a consistent finding in epidemiological studies of cardiac myxomas [2]. *Most myxomas are hereditary.* - The vast majority of **atrial myxomas** are **sporadic** (non-hereditary), accounting for about 90-95% of cases. - A small percentage (5-10%) are part of a familial syndrome known as **Carney complex**, which is an autosomal dominant disorder. *Distant metastasis is commonly observed.* - **Atrial myxomas** are generally **benign tumors** and do not metastasize to distant sites. - While they can embolize fragments, leading to systemic effects, these are not true metastases.
Question 722: Duroziez's sign is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Aortic Regurgitation (Correct Answer)
- B. Pericardial effusion
- C. Tricuspid Regurgitation
- D. Mitral Stenosis
Explanation: ***Aortic Regurgitation*** - **Duroziez's sign** is a characteristic **systolic and diastolic bruit** heard over the femoral artery, indicative of significant **aortic regurgitation**. [1], [2] - This sign occurs due to the rapid antegrade and retrograde flow of blood during systole and diastole, respectively, caused by the incompetent aortic valve. [2] *Tricuspid Regurgitation* - **Tricuspid regurgitation** is primarily associated with **holosystolic murmur** best heard at the left lower sternal border, often increasing with inspiration (Carvallo's sign). - It does not produce arterial bruits like Duroziez's sign. *Pericardial effusion* - **Pericardial effusion** is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which can lead to distant heart sounds, **pulsus paradoxus**, and electrical alternans on ECG. - It does not involve vascular bruits in peripheral arteries. *Mitral Stenosis* - **Mitral stenosis** classically presents with a **diastolic rumble** and an **opening snap**, typically heard at the apex. - It is a left-sided heart valve condition that does not cause peripheral arterial bruits.
Question 723: Becks triad is seen in
- A. Cardiac tamponade (Correct Answer)
- B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- C. Constrictive pericarditis
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Cardiac tamponade*** - **Beck's triad** is a set of three clinical signs associated with acute cardiac tamponade: **hypotension**, **jugular venous distension (JVD)**, and **muffled heart sounds**. [1] - These signs result from the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which compresses the heart and impairs its ability to fill. [1] *Constrictive pericarditis* - While it can manifest with JVD and signs of right heart failure, **muffled heart sounds** and acute **hypotension** as part of Beck's triad are not typical for its chronic nature. [2] - It involves a rigid, fibrotic pericardium that restricts diastolic filling, often with a **pericardial knock** rather than muffled sounds. [2] *Restrictive cardiomyopathy* - This condition involves impaired ventricular relaxation and filling, leading to signs of heart failure, including JVD. [3] - However, it does not typically present with the acute, severe **hypotension** or **muffled heart sounds** characteristic of cardiac tamponade. [3] *None of the options* - This option is incorrect as cardiac tamponade is the condition associated with Beck's triad.
Question 724: The severity of mitral stenosis can be judged by-
- A. Duration of murmur
- B. Intensity of murmur
- C. Presence of left ventricular S3
- D. Loud S1 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Loud S1*** - A **loud S1** in mitral stenosis indicates that the **mitral valve leaflets are still mobile** and able to snap shut forcefully, which is characteristic of early to moderate stenosis [2]. - As mitral stenosis becomes more severe and the valve becomes calcified and rigid, the S1 sound may become diminished or even absent due to reduced leaflet mobility [1]. *Intensity of murmur* - The **intensity (loudness)** of the diastolic murmur in mitral stenosis **does not directly correlate with the severity** of the stenosis. - A loud murmur can be heard with mild stenosis, while a soft murmur in severe stenosis may be due to reduced cardiac output or left atrial pressure. *Duration of murmur* - While a **longer duration of the diastolic murmur** can coincide with more severe mitral stenosis, it is not as reliable a single indicator as other findings. - The duration is influenced by the pressure gradient across the valve and the length of diastole [2]. *Presence of left ventricular S3* - A **left ventricular S3** is typically associated with **left ventricular dysfunction** and volume overload, as seen in conditions like mitral regurgitation or dilated cardiomyopathy [3]. - It is **not a feature of mitral stenosis**, where the primary issue is obstruction to left ventricular filling.
Question 725: Wide pulse pressure is seen in all except which of the following?
- A. Aortic Regurgitation
- B. PDA
- C. A.V. malformation
- D. Aortic stenosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Aortic stenosis** - In **aortic stenosis**, there is a fixed obstruction to left ventricular outflow, leading to a compensatory increase in systolic pressure to overcome the stenotic valve [2]. - The **reduced stroke volume** and impaired flow through the rigid valve cause a lower pulse pressure, often resulting in a **narrow pulse pressure**. *PDA (Patent Ductus Arteriosus)* - In **PDA**, blood flows from the aorta to the pulmonary artery during systole and diastole, causing a decrease in diastolic pressure. - This creates a **run-off phenomenon**, leading to a **wide pulse pressure** due to high systolic and low diastolic pressures. *Aortic Regurgitation* - **Aortic regurgitation** involves blood flowing back into the left ventricle during diastole, causing a rapid fall in diastolic pressure [1]. - The increased stroke volume from the left ventricle leads to a high systolic pressure, resulting in a **wide pulse pressure** [1]. *A.V. malformation (Arteriovenous Malformation)* - An **AV malformation** creates a shunt where arterial blood flows directly into the venous system, bypassing the capillary bed. - This leads to a **decrease in peripheral resistance** and an increased cardiac output, causing a higher systolic pressure and a lower diastolic pressure, thereby producing a **wide pulse pressure**.
Question 726: All are seen in Nephrotic syndrome except
- A. Atherosclerosis
- B. Thrombo-embolism
- C. Lipiduria
- D. Increased protein C levels (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increased protein C levels*** - In **nephrotic syndrome**, there is an **increased urinary loss of anticoagulant proteins**, including **Protein C** and **Protein S**, leading to a state of **hypercoagulability**. [1] - Therefore, **Protein C levels are decreased**, not increased, making this the exception. *Atherosclerosis* - **Hyperlipidemia**, a hallmark of nephrotic syndrome, contributes significantly to **accelerated atherosclerosis** due to dysregulation of lipid metabolism. - The increased levels of **LDL cholesterol** and other lipoproteins promote plaque formation and arterial stiffening. *Thrombo-embolism* - Patients with nephrotic syndrome are at a significantly **increased risk of thromboembolic events**, such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism, due to a **hypercoagulable state**. - This state results from the **urinary loss of anticoagulant proteins** (e.g., antithrombin III, Protein C, Protein S) and increased levels of procoagulant factors (e.g., fibrinogen, factor V, factor VIII). *Lipiduria* - **Lipiduria**, the presence of lipids in the urine, is a characteristic feature of nephrotic syndrome, often manifested as **oval fat bodies** and **fatty casts**. [1] - This occurs due to the increased glomerular permeability that allows lipoproteins to filter into the urine. [1]
Question 727: Which of the following is NOT a common cause of acute renal failure?
- A. Chronic kidney disease due to analgesic nephropathy (Correct Answer)
- B. Acute pyelonephritis
- C. Acute kidney injury from snakebite
- D. Acute kidney injury due to rhabdomyolysis
Explanation: Chronic kidney disease due to analgesic nephropathy - This is a cause of chronic kidney disease, characterized by gradual, irreversible kidney damage over a long period due to prolonged use of certain analgesics. [1] - It does not present as an acute, sudden decline in kidney function, which is the hallmark of acute renal failure. [1] Acute pyelonephritis - Severe cases of acute pyelonephritis (kidney infection) can lead to acute kidney injury due to sepsis, inflammation, and potential obstruction. [1] - The systemic inflammatory response and direct tissue damage can impair kidney function rapidly. [1] Acute kidney injury from snakebite - Snake envenomation can cause acute kidney injury through various mechanisms, including hemolysis, rhabdomyolysis, direct nephrotoxicity, and systemic hypotension. - These effects can lead to rapid and severe kidney damage. Acute kidney injury due to rhabdomyolysis - Rhabdomyolysis involves the breakdown of skeletal muscle tissue, releasing large amounts of myoglobin into the bloodstream. [1] - Myoglobin is toxic to the renal tubules, leading to acute tubular necrosis and rapid onset of acute kidney injury. [1]
Question 728: All are true about GFR except:
- A. 30-40% decrease after 70 years of age
- B. GFR is dependent on height in children
- C. Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is defined as GFR < 60 ml/min/1.73 m² for 3 months or more.
- D. Best estimated by creatinine clearance (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Best estimated by creatinine clearance*** - While **creatinine clearance** can be used as a measure of GFR, it is not the *best* estimate; it tends to slightly **overestimate** GFR due to tubular secretion of creatinine. [1] - The gold standard for measuring GFR involves methods like **inulin clearance**, but in clinical practice, GFR is often *estimated* using equations based on **serum creatinine** (e.g., CKD-EPI, MDRD). [2] *30-40% decrease after 70 years of age* - **Aging** is associated with a physiological decline in GFR, with a general decrease often cited as 30-40% after the age of 70 years. - This decline is part of the normal **age-related changes in renal function**. *GFR is dependent on height in children* - In children, GFR is often adjusted for **body surface area (BSA)**, which is calculated based on both **height and weight**, making height an important factor. [1] - This adjustment is crucial for accurate assessment of renal function in a growing pediatric population. *Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is defined as GFR < 60 ml/min/1.73 m² for 3 months or more.* - This statement accurately reflects the widely accepted definition of **Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)** according to clinical guidelines. [3] - A GFR below this threshold sustained for more than three months indicates persistent kidney damage or dysfunction.
Question 729: Which of the following conditions is a direct indication for initiating dialysis?
- A. Severe metabolic acidosis
- B. Fluid overload
- C. Severe hyperkalemia (Correct Answer)
- D. Acute kidney injury
Explanation: ### Severe hyperkalemia - **Severe hyperkalemia** (potassium levels typically >6.5 mEq/L or rapidly rising, especially with ECG changes) is an immediate life-threatening indication for dialysis when conservative measures fail or are insufficient [1]. - Dialysis effectively removes **excess potassium** from the blood, preventing fatal cardiac arrhythmias. *Severe metabolic acidosis* - While **severe metabolic acidosis** (pH <7.1-7.2) can be an indication, it is often managed first with bicarbonate administration and is typically not a stand-alone **direct** *emergency* indication for dialysis unless accompanied by other severe features or resistance to medical therapy. - The decision to dialyze for acidosis often depends on the underlying cause, degree of renal failure, and response to initial management [2]. *Fluid overload* - **Fluid overload** is a common complication of kidney failure, but it becomes a *direct* indication for dialysis when it is **refractory to diuretic therapy** and causes life-threatening symptoms such as **pulmonary edema** [2]. - Without such refractory state and immediate danger, fluid overload itself is not always an *immediate* trigger for dialysis compared to severe hyperkalemia. *Acute kidney injury* - **Acute kidney injury** (AKI) is the underlying *condition* that can lead to indications for dialysis, but AKI itself is not a *direct indication* for dialysis. - Dialysis is initiated for the *complications* of AKI, such as refractory hyperkalemia, severe metabolic acidosis, or fluid overload, rather than the diagnosis of AKI alone [2].
Pathology
1 questionsBasket weave appearance of glomerular basement membrane on electron microscopy is seen in
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 721: Basket weave appearance of glomerular basement membrane on electron microscopy is seen in
- A. Alport syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Polyarteritis nodosa
- C. Giant cell arteritis
- D. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Explanation: ***Alport syndrome*** - **Alport syndrome** is characterized by a "basket weave" appearance of the **glomerular basement membrane (GBM)** on electron microscopy due to irregular thickening, thinning, and splitting of the lamina densa. - This structural abnormality results from mutations in genes encoding **Type IV collagen**, particularly **COL4A5**, leading to progressive kidney disease, hearing loss, and ocular abnormalities. *Polyarteritis nodosa* - This is a **necrotizing vasculitis** primarily affecting medium-sized arteries, and its renal involvement typically manifests as a focal or diffuse necrotizing glomerulonephritis, often without specific GBM changes. - The electron microscopic findings would generally show inflammatory cell infiltration and fibrinoid necrosis of vessel walls, not a characteristic GBM pattern. *Giant cell arteritis* - **Giant cell arteritis** is a vasculitis affecting large- and medium-sized arteries, typically in the elderly, and often involves the temporal arteries. - Renal involvement is rare, and the characteristic pathological finding is **granulomatous inflammation** within the arterial wall with giant cells, not GBM changes. *Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis* - This condition is characterized by **subepithelial immune deposits ("humps")** on electron microscopy, not a "basket weave" pattern of the GBM. - The GBM itself may show minor changes but does not exhibit the lamellated and split appearance seen in Alport syndrome.