Community Medicine
9 questionsAccording to the ICDS scheme, what is the recommended population range for establishing one Anganwadi centre in rural areas?
Which of the following statements about ASHA workers is NOT true?
Which of the following is NOT a duty of an ASHA worker?
Swajaldhara programme is associated with:
Which of the following screening methods is primarily used under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?
Which of the following statements about the Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPV) is correct?
What distance from a water source defines a problem village according to the Government of India?
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the strategic plan for malaria control 2012-2017?
What term is used for a patient who is kept under observation in a hospital for a short period (typically less than 48 hours) to determine if formal admission is necessary?
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 641: According to the ICDS scheme, what is the recommended population range for establishing one Anganwadi centre in rural areas?
- A. 700-1000 (Urban)
- B. 1000-1500 (Urban high density)
- C. 300-800 (Hilly/Tribal areas)
- D. 400-800 (Rural) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***400-800 (Rural)*** - The **Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)** scheme recommends one Anganwadi centre for a population of **400-800** in **rural areas**. - This is the **standard population norm** as per ICDS guidelines for establishing Anganwadi centres in typical rural settings. - This ensures adequate coverage and accessibility of ICDS services (nutrition, immunization, health check-ups, and preschool education) for mothers and children. *700-1000 (Urban)* - This population range (**700-1000**) is the standard norm for **urban areas**, not rural areas. - Urban areas have higher population density, hence a slightly larger population range is used per Anganwadi centre. - The question specifically asks about **rural areas**, making this option incorrect. *300-800 (Hilly/Tribal areas)* - This range (**300-800**) is designated for **hilly, difficult terrain, or specific tribal areas** where geographical challenges and scattered populations require lower population norms. - While this includes rural characteristics, it represents **special category areas**, not standard rural areas as asked in the question. *1000-1500 (Urban high density)* - A population target of **1000-1500** would be too high even for standard urban norms and doesn't align with official ICDS guidelines. - This is not applicable to **rural areas** as specified in the question.
Question 642: Which of the following statements about ASHA workers is NOT true?
- A. Local resident
- B. Informs about birth and deaths in her village to PHC
- C. Works per 1000 people of an area
- D. Education at least till 4th class or higher (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Education at least till 4th class or higher*** - This statement is **NOT true**. The educational qualification for an ASHA worker is typically stated as **8th class or higher**, not 4th class. - While flexibility may exist in some remote areas, the general guideline requires a higher level of foundational education. *Informs about birth and deaths in her village to PHC* - This is a true statement regarding an ASHA worker's responsibilities, as they are crucial for **community-level data collection** and reporting to the **Primary Health Center (PHC)**. - ASHAs play a vital role in health surveillance, including reporting **births, deaths, and disease outbreaks**. *Local resident* - This is a true characteristic of an ASHA worker; they must be a **resident of the village** they serve. - Being a local resident ensures **community trust**, cultural understanding, and accessibility to the population. *Works per 1000 people of an area* - This is a true statement outlining the typical **population coverage** for an ASHA worker. - ASHAs are typically appointed to serve a population of approximately **1000 people** in rural areas to ensure adequate reach and support.
Question 643: Which of the following is NOT a duty of an ASHA worker?
- A. Administering zero dose of DPT and OPV (Correct Answer)
- B. Assessing the success of national programs under ANM
- C. Primary screening for prevalence of non-communicable diseases
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Correct: Administering zero dose of DPT and OPV*** - **ASHA workers do NOT administer vaccines** - this is strictly beyond their scope of practice - According to **NRHM guidelines**, ASHAs are **facilitators and mobilizers** for immunization, not vaccine administrators - Only **ANMs and trained health workers** are authorized to administer vaccines including DPT and OPV - ASHAs role is to **identify beneficiaries, create awareness, and escort mothers/children to immunization centers** - Vaccine administration requires technical training and cold chain management that ASHAs are not equipped for *Incorrect: Assessing the success of national programs under ANM* - While this is also not a primary ASHA duty, the question asks for what is NOT a duty - Program assessment is done at district/state levels through monitoring and evaluation teams - However, between administering vaccines (strictly prohibited) vs program assessment (not their role but may provide data), vaccine administration is more clearly NOT their duty *Incorrect: Primary screening for prevalence of non-communicable diseases* - This **IS a duty** of ASHA workers under **NPCDCS** (National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke) - ASHAs conduct basic screening for hypertension, diabetes, and common cancers using simple tools - They refer suspected cases to appropriate health facilities for confirmation and management *Incorrect: All of the options* - This is incorrect because primary NCD screening IS part of ASHA duties, and administering vaccines is the most clearly defined non-duty among the options
Question 644: Swajaldhara programme is associated with:
- A. Provision of safe drinking water (Correct Answer)
- B. Provision of food supplements for destitute women
- C. Provision of relief for victim of sexual abuse
- D. Provision of health care for sick tribals
Explanation: ***Provision of safe drinking water*** - The **Swajaldhara programme** was launched by the Government of India in 2002 to accelerate coverage of **drinking water supply** in rural areas - Its primary objective was to ensure access to **safe and sustainable drinking water sources** through community participation and decentralized management - The program emphasized local ownership with communities contributing 10% of project costs *Provision of food supplements for destitute women* - Food security programs for women fall under separate social welfare schemes like ICDS and PDS - The **Swajaldhara programme** was specifically focused on **water supply infrastructure**, not nutrition *Provision of relief for victim of sexual abuse* - Relief for victims of sexual abuse is addressed through **justice and women's safety initiatives** (e.g., One Stop Centres, Nirbhaya Fund) - This is unrelated to the water supply mandate of Swajaldhara *Provision of health care for sick tribals* - Health care for tribal populations is managed through dedicated programs under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare - Swajaldhara's scope was limited to **rural drinking water infrastructure**, not healthcare delivery
Question 645: Which of the following screening methods is primarily used under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?
- A. Active
- B. Passive (Correct Answer)
- C. Mass
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Passive*** - Under the NTEP, **passive screening** involves individuals presenting to health facilities with symptoms suggestive of TB. - This method relies on **patient self-reporting** and healthcare provider suspicion, rather than active outreach. - Passive case finding is the **primary screening strategy** used across the general population in the NTEP framework. *Active* - **Active screening** involves community-based interventions to proactively identify individuals with TB, often in high-risk populations. - While active case finding is crucial for specific vulnerable groups (contacts, HIV patients, etc.), it is **not the primary screening method** under the standard NTEP framework for initial detection across the entire population. *Mass* - **Mass screening** involves testing large numbers of people in the general population, regardless of symptoms, to detect disease. - This is generally **cost-prohibitive** and not routinely implemented as a primary screening strategy for TB by the NTEP due to resource limitations and low yield in the general population. *None of the options* - **Passive screening** is indeed a primary method used under the NTEP, making this option incorrect. - The NTEP heavily relies on individuals seeking care when they experience symptoms, which aligns with the definition of passive case finding.
Question 646: Which of the following statements about the Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPV) is correct?
- A. Administered at birth
- B. Recommended for individuals with sickle cell disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Widely used in the general population
- D. Derived from live attenuated pneumococcal bacteria
Explanation: ***Recommended for individuals with sickle cell disease*** - Individuals with **sickle cell disease** are at significantly increased risk of severe and invasive **pneumococcal infections** due to **functional asplenia**. - The PPV is crucial for providing **prophylactic protection** against these life-threatening infections in this vulnerable population. *Administered at birth* - The **Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV)** is part of routine childhood immunizations and is administered at specific ages, but neither PCV nor PPV is given **at birth**. - **PCV** is typically given starting at **2 months of age**, while **PPV** is generally recommended for older children and adults at high risk. *Widely used in the general population* - The **Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV)** is widely used in the general *pediatric* population as part of routine immunization schedules. - The **Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPV)** is primarily recommended for **adults 65 years and older** and individuals with certain **underlying medical conditions** or compromised immune systems, not the general population. *Derived from live attenuated pneumococcal bacteria* - The **PPV** is a **polysaccharide vaccine**, meaning it is composed of purified capsular polysaccharides from various serotypes of *Streptococcus pneumoniae*. - It is an **inactivated vaccine** and does not contain live attenuated bacteria; such a vaccine would be contraindicated in immunocompromised individuals.
Question 647: What distance from a water source defines a problem village according to the Government of India?
- A. > 0.5 km
- B. > 1 km
- C. > 1.6 km (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***> 1.6 km*** - According to the **Government of India's criteria**, a village is designated as a **problem village** if its residents have to travel more than **1.6 kilometers** to access a safe and assured source of drinking water. - This definition is crucial for identifying areas that require specific interventions and programs to improve water access. *> 0.5 km* - While a distance of 0.5 km might be considered inconvenient, it does not meet the **official threshold** set by the Government of India for categorizing a village as "problematic" regarding water access. - This distance is typically much shorter than the criteria used for policy and intervention planning. *> 1 km* - A distance of 1 km, like 0.5 km, falls short of the **established benchmark** of 1.6 km defined by the Government of India for identifying a problem village. - Although it represents a significant walk, it does not trigger the specific **policy responses** associated with problem village status. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **1.6 km** is indeed the specific distance recognized by the Government of India for defining a problem village in terms of water source accessibility. - The other options are incorrect as they do not match the official criteria.
Question 648: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the strategic plan for malaria control 2012-2017?
- A. 50% reduction in mortality by 2017
- B. Objective is API < 1 per 10,000 (Correct Answer)
- C. Complete treatment to 100% of patients
- D. Annual incidence < 1 per 1000 by 2017
Explanation: ***Objective is API < 1 per 10,000*** - The correct objective for the **Annual Parasite Incidence (API)** in the 2012-2017 strategic plan for malaria control was to reduce it to **less than 1 per 1,000 population**, not 1 per 10,000, making this statement incorrect. - This metric measures the number of new malaria cases per 1,000 people per year. *50% reduction in mortality by 2017* - A key objective of the **National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India** (which this strategic plan aimed to contribute to) was indeed to achieve a significant reduction in malaria-related mortality. - Specifically, aiming for a **50% reduction in mortality** by 2017 was a stated goal to lessen the disease burden. *Annual incidence < 1 per 1000 by 2017* - One of the primary goals of the **Malaria Control Strategic Plan 2012-2017** was to reduce the annual parasite incidence (API) to **less than 1 per 1,000 population** in all endemic areas. - This target focused on decreasing the occurrence of new malaria cases. *Complete treatment to 100% of patients* - A core component of malaria control strategies emphasizes ensuring that **all confirmed malaria cases** receive complete and effective treatment. - Achieving **100% complete treatment adherence** is crucial to prevent drug resistance and eliminate the parasite reservoir.
Question 649: What term is used for a patient who is kept under observation in a hospital for a short period (typically less than 48 hours) to determine if formal admission is necessary?
- A. Inpatient
- B. Outpatient
- C. Urgent care patient
- D. Observation status (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Observation status*** - Patients under **observation status** are monitored in a hospital setting for a short period (typically less than 24-48 hours) to determine if inpatient admission is necessary. - This status is used when the medical condition is uncertain, requiring further evaluation and diagnostic tests to guide treatment decisions. *Inpatient* - An **inpatient** is formally admitted to the hospital for an expected stay of more than 24 hours, often requiring a hospital bed overnight. - This classification is associated with specific billing and care delivery models distinct from observation status. *Outpatient* - An **outpatient** receives medical care at a hospital, clinic, or doctor's office without being admitted for an overnight stay. - Examples include routine check-ups, specialist consultations, and minor surgical procedures performed on the same day. *Urgent care patient* - An **urgent care patient** receives immediate medical attention for illnesses or injuries that are not life-threatening but require prompt treatment. - This care is typically provided in an urgent care clinic, not usually in a hospital setting for 24-hour observation.
Psychiatry
1 questionsAll are included in sleep hygiene except which of the following?
NEET-PG 2015 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 641: All are included in sleep hygiene except which of the following?
- A. Healthy diet
- B. Exercising vigorously before sleep (Correct Answer)
- C. Sleeping on time
- D. Sleeping in dark room
Explanation: ***Exercising vigorously before sleep*** - **Vigorous exercise** elevates body temperature, heart rate, and stimulates the central nervous system, making it harder to fall asleep and reducing sleep quality. - This practice directly contradicts the principles of sleep hygiene, which promote relaxing activities before bedtime. - While regular exercise is beneficial for sleep, it should be completed at least **3-4 hours before bedtime**. *Healthy diet* - A **balanced diet** and mindful eating patterns are important components of sleep hygiene. - Sleep hygiene recommendations include avoiding **heavy meals, caffeine, and alcohol** close to bedtime, as these can disrupt sleep quality. - Proper nutrition supports the physiological processes necessary for restorative sleep. *Sleeping on time* - Maintaining a **consistent sleep schedule**, even on weekends, helps regulate the body's natural **circadian rhythm**. - This consistency reinforces the sleep-wake cycle, making it easier to fall asleep and wake up naturally. - Going to bed and waking up at the same time daily is a cornerstone of good sleep hygiene. *Sleeping in a dark room* - A **dark environment** signals to the brain that it's time to release **melatonin**, the hormone that promotes sleep. - Exposure to light, especially blue light from screens, can suppress melatonin production and interfere with sleep onset. - Creating an optimal sleep environment (dark, quiet, cool) is a fundamental sleep hygiene principle.