What is the first step to be taken in the management of a cervical spine injury?
How much length is increased in Z-plasty when it is done at 60 degrees?
What is the ideal angle for Z-plasty?
What is the most common abdominal surgical procedure for complete rectal prolapse?
What are the metabolic consequences of ureterosigmoidostomy?
What is the primary condition treated by the Kasai operation?
In the Bismuth-Corlette classification, which type involves the hepatic duct confluence WITHOUT extension into secondary intrahepatic ducts?
What is the investigation of choice for detecting recurrence after parathyroid gland surgery?
What is the most common complication associated with carpal tunnel release surgery?
Most common organism causing infection after an open fracture?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: What is the first step to be taken in the management of a cervical spine injury?
- A. Turn head
- B. None of the options
- C. Maintain airway
- D. Immobilization of spine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Immobilization of spine*** - In the context of **isolated cervical spine injury management**, **spinal immobilization** is the primary intervention to prevent further neurological damage. - This is typically achieved using a **cervical collar** and **backboard** to maintain in-line spinal stabilization. - **Note**: In actual trauma scenarios following **ATLS protocols**, airway management and cervical spine immobilization occur **simultaneously** as the first priority (Airway with C-spine protection). *Turn head* - **Turning the head** is absolutely contraindicated as it can exacerbate a cervical spine injury, leading to further compression or damage to the **spinal cord**. - Maintaining a **neutral, in-line position** is critical to avoid neurological deterioration. *Maintain airway* - In comprehensive trauma management per **ATLS guidelines**, **airway management with simultaneous cervical spine protection** is the first priority in the ABC sequence. - Airway is maintained using methods that do not compromise spinal stability, such as a **jaw thrust maneuver** or **endotracheal intubation with manual in-line stabilization**. - The distinction here is that this question focuses on the specific step for **spinal injury management** rather than overall trauma priorities. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **immobilization of the spine** is a definitive priority in managing a suspected cervical spine injury. - Both spinal immobilization and airway management are critical interventions that should occur together in actual practice.
Question 32: How much length is increased in Z-plasty when it is done at 60 degrees?
- A. 75% (Correct Answer)
- B. 50%
- C. 25%
- D. 100%
Explanation: ***75%*** - A **60-degree Z-plasty** lengthens the central limb by approximately **75%** of its original length. This configuration provides a balance between length gain and flap viability. - The greater the angle of the Z-plasty limbs, the greater the theoretical lengthening, but also the larger the flaps and the increased risk of complications. *25%* - A **30-degree Z-plasty** typically provides about **25% lengthening** of the central limb. This angle offers less lengthening but is useful for smaller scars or when skin mobility is limited. - While it provides some lengthening, it falls significantly short of the length achieved with a 60-degree Z-plasty. *50%* - A **45-degree Z-plasty** generally results in approximately **50% lengthening**. This is an intermediate option, providing moderate lengthening. - This option does not match the significant lengthening associated with the larger 60-degree angle. *100%* - To achieve approximately **100% length gain**, larger angles such as **75 or 90-degree Z-plasty** might be considered. However, these angles are less commonly used due to increased flap size and tension at the base. - A standard 60-degree Z-plasty does not provide a 100% increase in length.
Question 33: What is the ideal angle for Z-plasty?
- A. 90°
- B. 45°
- C. 60° (Correct Answer)
- D. 75°
Explanation: ***60°*** - An angle of **60°** is considered ideal for Z-plasty because it provides the best balance between **lengthening the scar** and maintaining **tissue viability**. - This angle typically results in a **75% gain in length** along the central limb of the Z-plasty, while ensuring the flaps have a broad enough base for adequate blood supply. *90°* - While a **90°** angle would provide the most lengthening (around 100%), it creates very **thin, narrow flap tips** that are highly susceptible to **ischemia and necrosis** due to compromised blood supply. - This angle is generally avoided in Z-plasty due to the high risk of **flap complications**. *45°* - A **45°** angle results in less lengthening (approximately 50% gain) compared to a 60° angle, which may not be sufficient for significant release of scar contractures. - While it offers excellent flap viability due to wider bases, the **suboptimal lengthening** makes it less efficient for many Z-plasty applications. *75°* - An angle of **75°** would yield greater lengthening than 60°, but it also compromises flap viability making the flap susceptible to **necrosis**. - The benefits of increased length are often outweighed by the increased **risk of complications** when using this angle.
Question 34: What is the most common abdominal surgical procedure for complete rectal prolapse?
- A. Rectal mucosal stapling
- B. Placation/wiring
- C. Rectopexy (Correct Answer)
- D. Mucosal resection
Explanation: ***Rectopexy*** - **Rectopexy** is the most common abdominal surgical procedure for full-thickness rectal prolapse - It involves fixing the rectum to the sacral promontory or presacral fascia (with sutures or mesh) to prevent prolapse - Various modifications exist including suture rectopexy, mesh rectopexy, ventral rectopexy, and resection rectopexy - **Abdominal approach** is preferred in fit patients with better long-term outcomes compared to perineal procedures *Rectal mucosal stapling* - This procedure refers to **stapled hemorrhoidopexy (PPH)** or **STARR procedure** - Primarily used for **internal mucosal prolapse** and hemorrhoids, not full-thickness external rectal prolapse - Involves excising redundant rectal mucosa using circular staplers - Does not address the full-thickness prolapse or provide proper fixation *Placation/wiring* - **Thiersch wiring** is a historical perineal procedure involving placement of a wire or suture around the anus to narrow the anal canal - Now largely abandoned due to high recurrence rates and complications - **Plication** refers to folding tissue but is not a standalone procedure name for rectal prolapse - This terminology is not standard in modern colorectal surgery *Mucosal resection* - Refers to **Delorme's procedure**, a perineal approach involving mucosal sleeve resection with underlying muscle plication - Used in elderly or high-risk patients who cannot tolerate abdominal surgery - Associated with higher recurrence rates compared to abdominal rectopexy - Does not provide the same level of fixation as abdominal procedures
Question 35: What are the metabolic consequences of ureterosigmoidostomy?
- A. Hyperchloremic with hypokalemic acidosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Metabolic alkalosis
- D. Hyponatremia
Explanation: ***Hyperchloremic with hypokalemic acidosis*** - In ureterosigmoidostomy, the reabsorption of urinary constituents like **chloride** and **urea** from the bowel mucosa leads to **hyperchloremia**. - The exchange of **chloride** for **bicarbonate** and the concomitant loss of **potassium** from the colon results in **hypokalemic metabolic acidosis**. *Hyperkalemia* - Colonic reabsorption of urinary products typically causes **potassium wasting** and **hypokalemia**, not hyperkalemia. - While some potassium is reabsorbed, the overall effect due to the exchange for hydrogen ions and fluid loss from the colon is a net decrease in serum potassium. *Metabolic alkalosis* - Metabolic alkalosis involves an increase in **bicarbonate**, which is the opposite of what occurs in ureterosigmoidostomy where bicarbonate is lost. - The increased reabsorption of urea and chloride from the urine in the colon leads to an **acidic state** due to increased **hydrogen ion production** and **bicarbonate depletion**. *Hyponatremia* - Although some **sodium** reabsorption can occur, the primary electrolyte imbalances are related to chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate. - While some intestinal urinary diversion procedures can lead to hyponatremia due to volume changes or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), it is not the most characteristic or direct metabolic consequence of ureterosigmoidostomy itself.
Question 36: What is the primary condition treated by the Kasai operation?
- A. Biliary atresia (Correct Answer)
- B. Choledochal cyst
- C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
- D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
Explanation: ***Biliary atresia*** - The **Kasai operation**, or **hepatoportoenterostomy**, is the primary surgical treatment for **biliary atresia**, a condition where the bile ducts are blocked or absent. - The procedure aims to establish bile flow from the liver to the small intestine to prevent liver damage. *Choledochal cyst* - A **choledochal cyst** is a congenital dilation of the bile ducts and is typically treated by surgical excision of the cyst and a **Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy**. - While it involves the biliary system, it is a distinct condition from biliary atresia and requires a different surgical approach. *Hepatocellular carcinoma* - **Hepatocellular carcinoma** is a primary liver cancer, and its treatment options range from **surgical resection** and **transplantation** to **chemotherapy** and **radiation**, which are distinctly different from the Kasai operation. - The Kasai operation is not used for malignant conditions of the liver or bile ducts. *Primary biliary cirrhosis* - **Primary biliary cirrhosis** is a chronic autoimmune disease affecting the small bile ducts within the liver, causing progressive cholestasis. - Its management is primarily medical, focusing on symptom control and preventing disease progression with drugs like **ursodeoxycholic acid**, and surgery is not a primary treatment.
Question 37: In the Bismuth-Corlette classification, which type involves the hepatic duct confluence WITHOUT extension into secondary intrahepatic ducts?
- A. Type II (Correct Answer)
- B. Type IIIb
- C. Type I
- D. Type IV
- E. Type IIIa
- F. Type III
Explanation: ***Type II*** - This classification specifically describes **cholangiocarcinomas** located at the **hepatic duct confluence** without extension into secondary intrahepatic ducts. - **Type II tumors** involve the hepatic duct confluence but **do not extend** into the right or left secondary intrahepatic ducts. - This is the defining feature that distinguishes Type II from Type III variants. *Type I* - **Type I tumors** are located at least **2 cm distal to the hepatic duct bifurcation**. - This type involves the **common hepatic duct** and **spares the confluence** completely. - Does not meet the criteria of involving the confluence. *Type IIIa* - **Type IIIa tumors** involve the **hepatic duct confluence** with extension into the **right secondary intrahepatic ducts**. - This represents extension **beyond** the confluence, unlike Type II. - The extension into secondary ducts is the key differentiating feature. *Type IIIb* - **Type IIIb tumors** involve the **hepatic duct confluence** with extension into the **left secondary intrahepatic ducts**. - This represents extension **beyond** the confluence, unlike Type II. - The extension pattern differs from Type IIIa by involving the left rather than right system.
Question 38: What is the investigation of choice for detecting recurrence after parathyroid gland surgery?
- A. SPECT
- B. MRI
- C. Neck ultrasound
- D. Sestamibi scan (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sestamibi scan*** - A **sestamibi scan** is the investigation of choice for **localizing recurrent or persistent hyperparathyroidism** because **parathyroid tissue preferentially retains the tracer** longer than thyroid tissue. - This nuclear medicine imaging technique helps identify ectopic or very small parathyroid adenomas, which may be difficult to locate with other methods. *SPECT* - **Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)** can be used as an adjunct to a sestamibi scan (SPECT-Sestamibi) to provide 3D images and improve localization, but it is typically not the initial or standalone investigation of choice for recurrence. - While SPECT offers increased sensitivity and specificity over planar imaging by removing superimposed structures, the **sestamibi uptake itself is the crucial diagnostic marker**. *MRI* - **Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)** is generally used for detailed anatomical assessment of the neck and mediastinum, especially if there's concern for **ectopic glands or complex anatomy**. - However, it is less sensitive than sestamibi for detecting small or recurrent hyperactive parathyroid tissue due to its reliance on anatomical rather than functional abnormalities. *Neck ultrasound* - **Neck ultrasound** is an excellent initial imaging modality for primary hyperparathyroidism due to its **affordability and ability to visualize cervical parathyroid glands**. - For detecting recurrence, its utility is limited, especially in cases of **ectopic glands** (e.g., in the mediastinum) or if scar tissue hinders clear visualization.
Question 39: What is the most common complication associated with carpal tunnel release surgery?
- A. Malunion
- B. Avascular necrosis
- C. Finger stiffness (Correct Answer)
- D. Rupture of EPL tendon
Explanation: ***Finger stiffness*** - Among the options listed, **finger stiffness** is the most recognized complication of carpal tunnel release surgery. - **Post-operative pain, swelling, and scar tissue formation** can lead to reduced range of motion in the digits. - Patients may develop stiffness due to **immobilization**, **scar adhesions**, or apprehension in mobilizing the hand after surgery. - **Note:** In clinical practice, **pillar pain** (pain at the thenar and hypothenar eminences) is actually the most common complication (10-30% of cases), but it is not among the options provided. *Malunion* - **Malunion** refers to improper healing of a fractured bone. - Carpal tunnel release involves dividing the **transverse carpal ligament** (flexor retinaculum), which is a **soft tissue procedure**. - No bone is cut or fractured, so malunion is not relevant to this surgery. *Avascular necrosis* - **Avascular necrosis (AVN)** is bone death due to interrupted blood supply. - AVN affects bones with precarious blood supply (femoral head, scaphoid, lunate in Kienböck's disease). - Carpal tunnel release does not involve bone manipulation and **AVN is not a recognized complication** of this procedure. *Rupture of EPL tendon* - **Extensor Pollicis Longus (EPL) tendon rupture** is classically associated with **distal radius fractures** or inflammatory arthritis. - EPL runs through the **third dorsal compartment** and is anatomically distant from the carpal tunnel (volar wrist). - While median nerve injury is a rare but serious complication of carpal tunnel release, **EPL rupture is not associated** with this surgery.
Question 40: Most common organism causing infection after an open fracture?
- A. Klebsiella
- B. Pseudomonas
- C. Gonococcus
- D. Staphylococcus aureus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus aureus*** - *Staphylococcus aureus* is the **most common organism** causing infection in **open fractures**, accounting for 30-40% of cases. - It is present on **skin flora** and readily contaminates traumatic wounds, making it the predominant pathogen in the immediate post-injury period. - **Antibiotic prophylaxis** for open fractures (cephalosporins) primarily targets *S. aureus*, reflecting its clinical importance. - It causes both **early and late infections** in open fractures and is the leading cause of **post-traumatic osteomyelitis**. *Pseudomonas* - *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* can cause infections in open fractures but is **not the most common** organism. - More frequently seen in **Type III open fractures** with extensive soft tissue damage, **nosocomial infections**, or **delayed infections** after hospitalization. - Associated with **contaminated water exposure** and **chronic wounds** rather than being the primary pathogen in acute open fractures. *Klebsiella* - *Klebsiella* species are typically associated with **nosocomial infections**, particularly **urinary tract infections** and **pneumonia**. - Rarely the primary pathogen in acute open fracture infections. - May be seen in **hospital-acquired** infections in patients with prolonged hospitalization. *Gonococcus* - **Gonococcus** (*Neisseria gonorrhoeae*) is primarily associated with **sexually transmitted infections** and can cause **septic arthritis** through hematogenous spread. - It does **not** cause infections in open fractures as it is not found in the environment or on skin. - The mode of transmission is completely unrelated to trauma or wound contamination.